The Central Vigilance Commission
• Multi-member Commission consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (Chairperson) and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners (Member).
• The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of Home Affairs (Member) and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People (Member).
• The term of office of the Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners is four years from the date on which they enter their office or till they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• The CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/Department. It is an independent body which is only responsible to the Parliament.

Functions
• It is not an investigating agency. The CVC either gets the investigation done through the CBI or through chief vigilance officers (CVO) in government offices.
• It is empowered to inquire into offences alleged to have been committed under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 by certain categories of public servants.
• Its annual report gives the details of the work done by the commission and points to systemic failures which lead to corruption in government departments.

Procedure of Removal
• CEC (like Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)) may be Removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘Proven misbehaviour or incapacity’.
• Removal requires special majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house.
• The Constitution does not use the word ‘impeachment’, for the removal of the judges, CAG, CEC.
The term ‘Impeachment’ is only used for removing the President which requires the special majority of 2/3rd members of the total strength of both the houses which is not used elsewhere.

Articles related to Elections
• 324- Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission.
• 325- No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special, electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.
• 326- Elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
• 327- Power of Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to Legislatures.
• 328- Power of Legislature of a State to make provision with respect to elections to such Legislature.
• 329- Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters.

Functions
• Election Commission of India superintendents, direct and control the entire process of conducting elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India.
• The most important function of the commission is to decide the election schedules for the conduct of periodic and timely elections, whether general or bye-elections.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It prepares electoral roll, issues Electronic Photo Identity Card (EPIC).
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It decides on the location polling stations, assignment of voters to the polling stations, location of counting centres, arrangements to be made in and around polling stations and counting centres and all allied matters.
• It grants recognition to political parties & allot election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it.
• The Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• It issues the Model Code of Conduct in election for political parties and candidates so that the no one indulges in unfair practice or there is no arbitrary abuse of powers by those in power.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• It sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political parties, and also monitors the same.

Functions of the Constituent Assembly
1. Framing the Constitution.
2. Enacting laws and involved in the decision making process.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
3. It adopted the National flag on July 22, 1947.
4. It accepted and approved India’s membership of the British Commonwealth in May 1949.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
5. It elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
6. It adopted the National anthem on January 24, 1950.
7. It adopted the National song on January 24, 1950.

Union features-
• Appointment of governor by the Centre
• All India Services
• Integrated judiciary
• Single Election Commission
• President’s rule
• Emergency provisions, etc.

Tikdam:
You just need to know the provisions of each article clearly.
For example, Article 20 talks about protection in respect of conviction of offences. Nothing in this article talks about religion or secular nature.
Thus, knowing the provision would have helped you eliminate this option.

SOCIALIST, SECULAR and INTEGRITY were not part of the Preamble originally. They were added by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

Tikdam:
By saying “original Preamble”, the question was indirectly asking the words that were not added by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

The ‘UNION of India’ includes only states.

• In 1965 – Sajjan Singh case, the Supreme Court held that the Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution including fundamental rights.
• In 1967, the verdict of the Golaknath case said that the fundamental rights cannot be amended.
• In 1973, in the Kesavananda Bharati case, SC held that although no part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, was beyond the Parliament’s amending power, the “basic structure of the Constitution could not be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment – Judiciary can strike down any amendment passed by Parliament that is in conflict with the basic structure of the Constitution.
• In 1981, the Supreme Court reiterated the Basic Structure doctrine – It also drew a line of demarcation as April 24th, 1973 i.e., the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgement, and held that it should not be applied retrospectively to reopen the validity of any amendment to the Constitution which took place prior to that date.
• In 2020, SC has ruled that reservation in the matter of promotions in public posts is not a fundamental right and a state cannot be compelled to offer the quota, if it chooses not to ( Articles 16(4) and 16(4A) of the Constitution give states the power to make such reservations) and No mandamus can be issued by the court directing state governments to provide reservations.

Tikdam:
Statement 2 and statement 3 cannot be true simultaeously because statement 2 says that reservation in the matter of promotions in public posts is not a fundamental right and if it is not a fundamental right then there is no point of issuing mandamus.

The Court gave a list of rights that Article 21 covers based on earlier judgements. Some of them are:
• Right to privacy
• Right to go abroad
• Right to shelter
• Right against solitary confinement
• Right to social justice and economic empowerment
• Right against handcuffing
• Right against custodial death
• Right against delayed execution
• Doctors’ assistance
• Right against public hanging
• Protection of cultural heritage
• Right to pollution-free water and air
• Right of every child to a full development
• Right to health and medical aid
• Right to education
• Protection of under-trials

• Recently, the Kerala High Court upheld the right to have access to the internet as a part of the fundamental right to education along with the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.

• These six rights are protected against only state action and not private individuals.
• These rights are available only to the citizens and to shareholders of a company but not to foreigners or legal persons like companies or corporations, etc.

• This implies that all citizens have the right to express their views and opinions freely.
• This includes not only words of mouth, but also a speech by way of writings, pictures, movies, banners, etc.
• The right to speech also includes the right not to speak.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Supreme Court of India has held that participation in sports is an expression of one’s self and hence, is a form of freedom of speech.
• In 2004, the SC held that hoisting the national flag is also a form of this freedom.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• Freedom of the press is an inferred freedom under this Article.
• This right also includes the right to access information because this right is meaningless when others are prevented from knowing/listening. It is according to this interpretation that the Right to Information (RTI) is a fundamental right.
• This right also includes commercial as well as artistic speech and expression.

It also includes-
• Right to demonstration or picketing but not right to strike
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct.
• Right against tapping of telephonic conversation