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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 pointsAcinetobacter baumannii, Enterococcus faecalis, Escherichia coli are
Correct
Some of the pathogens to look out for are Acinetobacter baumannii, Enterococcus faecalis, Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi, Streptococcus pneumoniae and many more. “These pathogens are commonly implicated as causative agents of healthcare associated infections because of their ability to develop resistance to antibiotics.
Incorrect
Some of the pathogens to look out for are Acinetobacter baumannii, Enterococcus faecalis, Escherichia coli, Salmonella typhi, Streptococcus pneumoniae and many more. “These pathogens are commonly implicated as causative agents of healthcare associated infections because of their ability to develop resistance to antibiotics.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 pointsHydrogen is considered to be the fuel of the future. Consider the following about it.
1. It is highly flammable.
2. Hydrogen occurs sometimes in deposits or reserves like fossil fuel.
3. Water is the most abundant compound of hydrogen found on earth.
Select the correct answer code:Correct
Hydrogen is the lightest and first element on the periodic table. Since the weight of hydrogen is less than air, it rises in the atmosphere and is therefore rarely found in its pure form, H2.
At standard temperature and pressure, hydrogen is a nontoxic, non-metallic, odorless, tasteless, colorless, and highly combustible diatomic gas.
Hydrogen fuel is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen. It can be used in fuel cells or internal combustion engines. It is also used as a fuel for spacecraft propulsion.Incorrect
Hydrogen is the lightest and first element on the periodic table. Since the weight of hydrogen is less than air, it rises in the atmosphere and is therefore rarely found in its pure form, H2.
At standard temperature and pressure, hydrogen is a nontoxic, non-metallic, odorless, tasteless, colorless, and highly combustible diatomic gas.
Hydrogen fuel is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen. It can be used in fuel cells or internal combustion engines. It is also used as a fuel for spacecraft propulsion. -
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
1. India is the world’s largest crude oil importer.
2. At present, OPEC countries meet 90% of India’s crude oil demand.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Correct
India is the world’s third-largest crude oil importer.
OPEC meets 78% of India’s crude oil demand, 59% of its LPG needs, and nearly 38% of LNG consumption.
Traditionally, OPEC nations offer bigger discounts on crude oil sold to western economies in comparison to eastbound cargoesIncorrect
India is the world’s third-largest crude oil importer.
OPEC meets 78% of India’s crude oil demand, 59% of its LPG needs, and nearly 38% of LNG consumption.
Traditionally, OPEC nations offer bigger discounts on crude oil sold to western economies in comparison to eastbound cargoes -
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 pointsHague Code of Conduct (HCOC), sometimes seen in news, is related to Correct
The International Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation, also known as the Hague Code of Conduct (HCOC), was established on 25 November 2002 as an arrangement to prevent the proliferation of ballistic missiles Incorrect
The International Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation, also known as the Hague Code of Conduct (HCOC), was established on 25 November 2002 as an arrangement to prevent the proliferation of ballistic missiles -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC).
1. Nepal and Bhutan are members of the BIMSTEC.
2. It was established through the Bangkok Declaration.
3. It is an implicit free trade agreement among the member nations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Correct
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization comprising seven Member States lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional unity. This sub-regional organization came into being in 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration. It constitutes seven Member States: five deriving from South Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and Thailand.
It is not an FTA. IT is a sector-driven organization focussing on sharing best practices and help each other in agriculture, public health, poverty alleviation, counter-terrorism, environment, culture etc. Fourteen priority sectors of cooperation have been identified and several BIMSTEC centres have been established to focus on those
sectors.Incorrect
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization comprising seven Member States lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous regional unity. This sub-regional organization came into being in 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration. It constitutes seven Member States: five deriving from South Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and Thailand.
It is not an FTA. IT is a sector-driven organization focussing on sharing best practices and help each other in agriculture, public health, poverty alleviation, counter-terrorism, environment, culture etc. Fourteen priority sectors of cooperation have been identified and several BIMSTEC centres have been established to focus on those
sectors. -
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
1. China is the largest producer of generic medicines in the world.
2. India launched ‘Vaccine Maitri’ campaign, aimed at provisioning COVID-19 vaccines to countries both
near to and away from its immediate neighbourhood.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Correct
India is the largest producer of generic medicines in the world.
India’s ongoing ‘Vaccine Maitri’ campaign, which is aimed at provisioning COVID-19 vaccines to countries both near to and away from its immediate neighborhood, is one of the most important recent initiatives to leverage its science and technological advantages for the furtherance of its foreign policy objectives.Incorrect
India is the largest producer of generic medicines in the world.
India’s ongoing ‘Vaccine Maitri’ campaign, which is aimed at provisioning COVID-19 vaccines to countries both near to and away from its immediate neighborhood, is one of the most important recent initiatives to leverage its science and technological advantages for the furtherance of its foreign policy objectives. -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
1. The “inner-line permit” (ILP) system restricts movement in areas close to the border for everyone other than those with a formal permission.
2. Uttarakhand does not have any ILP system.
3, Uttarakhand shares border with China and Nepal.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Correct
The Uttarakhand government, had sought withdrawal of “inner-line permit” (ILP) system in Niti Valley of Chamoli district and Nelang Valley of Uttarkashi district for better border management and expansion of tourism and other economic activities in villages located there. The ILP system restricts movement in areas close to the border for everyone other than those with a formal permission. In Uttarakhand, tourists have to obtain ILP for locations near China border, at least in the three districts of Uttarkashi, Pithoragarh and Chamoli.
Uttarakhand shares a 350-km border with China and a 275-km boundary with Nepal.
Incorrect
The Uttarakhand government, had sought withdrawal of “inner-line permit” (ILP) system in Niti Valley of Chamoli district and Nelang Valley of Uttarkashi district for better border management and expansion of tourism and other economic activities in villages located there. The ILP system restricts movement in areas close to the border for everyone other than those with a formal permission. In Uttarakhand, tourists have to obtain ILP for locations near China border, at least in the three districts of Uttarkashi, Pithoragarh and Chamoli.
Uttarakhand shares a 350-km border with China and a 275-km boundary with Nepal.
-
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
1. According to Indra Sawhney judgement, under no circumstances the Centre can exceed 50 percent limit
on reservations.
2. It requires presidential assent for states notifying changes to OBC categories.
3. Article 16 of the Constitution deals with equality of opportunity in public employment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Correct
The Supreme Court recently said it would hear arguments on the issue of whether the landmark 1992 judgement in the Indra Sawhney case should be re-looked at and referred to a larger bench. The verdict in the case of the Indra Sawhney vs Union of India— also known as the Mandal verdict — capped reservations at 50 percent.
The judgment also laid down that the extent of reservation should not cross the 50 percent limit, unless a special case was made out for extraordinary situations and peculiar conditions to relax the rule.
Article 16 of the Constitution deals with equality of opportunity in public employment, and Clause 4 under it reads, “Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favor of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.”
Article 342A introduced by the 102nd Constitution Amendment Act (2018), which requires presidential (Centre’s) assent for states notifying changes to OBC categories.
Incorrect
The Supreme Court recently said it would hear arguments on the issue of whether the landmark 1992 judgement in the Indra Sawhney case should be re-looked at and referred to a larger bench. The verdict in the case of the Indra Sawhney vs Union of India— also known as the Mandal verdict — capped reservations at 50 percent.
The judgment also laid down that the extent of reservation should not cross the 50 percent limit, unless a special case was made out for extraordinary situations and peculiar conditions to relax the rule.
Article 16 of the Constitution deals with equality of opportunity in public employment, and Clause 4 under it reads, “Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favor of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.”
Article 342A introduced by the 102nd Constitution Amendment Act (2018), which requires presidential (Centre’s) assent for states notifying changes to OBC categories.
-
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
1. Delhi’s current status as a Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly was included in the original Constitution.
2. The status, powers and functions of the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi is similar to that of a Governor of a State.
3. The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi have the power to refer any matter, over which there is a disagreement with the elected government, to the President.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?Correct
Delhi’s current status as a Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly is an outcome of the 69th Amendment Act through which Articles 239AA and 239BB were introduced in the Constitution. The Bench of then Chief Justice of India Dipak Misra and Justices A K Sikri, A M Khanwilkar, D Y Chandrachud and Ashok Bhushan, in three separate yet concurring orders, had said: “The status of the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi
is not that of a Governor of a State, rather he remains an Administrator, in a limited sense, working with the designation of Lieutenant Governor”.The L-G does have the power to refer any matter, over which there is a disagreement with the elected government, to the President under Article 239AA(4).
Incorrect
Delhi’s current status as a Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly is an outcome of the 69th Amendment Act through which Articles 239AA and 239BB were introduced in the Constitution. The Bench of then Chief Justice of India Dipak Misra and Justices A K Sikri, A M Khanwilkar, D Y Chandrachud and Ashok Bhushan, in three separate yet concurring orders, had said: “The status of the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi
is not that of a Governor of a State, rather he remains an Administrator, in a limited sense, working with the designation of Lieutenant Governor”.The L-G does have the power to refer any matter, over which there is a disagreement with the elected government, to the President under Article 239AA(4).
-
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
1. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha have the same rights and privileges as elected members of Rajya Sabha with the right to vote in the election of the President.
2. The anti-defection law was not present in the original Constitution.
3. The Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are subjected to disqualification, if they join a political party within six months of being nominated to the House.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Correct
In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution. The law specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by MPs invite action under the law.
The law covers three types of scenarios with respect to an MP switching parties. The first is when a member elected on the ticket of a political party “voluntarily gives up” membership of such a party or votes in the House contrary to the wishes of the party. The second possibility is when an MP who has won his or her seat as an independent candidate after the election joins a political party. In both these instances, the MP lose the seat in the House on changing (or joining) a party.The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party.
Incorrect
In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution. The law specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by MPs invite action under the law.
The law covers three types of scenarios with respect to an MP switching parties. The first is when a member elected on the ticket of a political party “voluntarily gives up” membership of such a party or votes in the House contrary to the wishes of the party. The second possibility is when an MP who has won his or her seat as an independent candidate after the election joins a political party. In both these instances, the MP lose the seat in the House on changing (or joining) a party.The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party.
-
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsWith reference to administration of Union Territories, consider the following statements
1. Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him.
2. An administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President and head of state like a governor.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Correct
Under Article 1 of the Constitution, the territory of India comprises three categories of territories: (a) territories of the states; (b) union territories; and (c) territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time. Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him.
An administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President and not head of state like a governor. The President can specify the designation of an administrator; it may be Lieutenant Governor or Chief Commissioner or Administrator.
Incorrect
Under Article 1 of the Constitution, the territory of India comprises three categories of territories: (a) territories of the states; (b) union territories; and (c) territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time. Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him.
An administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President and not head of state like a governor. The President can specify the designation of an administrator; it may be Lieutenant Governor or Chief Commissioner or Administrator.
-
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sedition Law in India.
1. Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which deals with sedition, was drafted by Thomas Babington Macaulay.
2. Mahatma Gandhi was never held under the sedition trial during freedom movement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Correct
Famous sedition trials during freedom movement:
The first is the trial of Jogendra Chandra Bose in 1891. Bose, the editor of the newspaper, Bangobasi, wrote an article criticizing the Age of Consent Bill for posing a threat to the religion and for its coercive relationship with Indians.
The other most well-known cases are the sedition trials of Bal Gangadhar Tilak and the trial of Mahatma Gandhi in 1922. Mahatma Gandhi for his articles published in Young India.Incorrect
Famous sedition trials during freedom movement:
The first is the trial of Jogendra Chandra Bose in 1891. Bose, the editor of the newspaper, Bangobasi, wrote an article criticizing the Age of Consent Bill for posing a threat to the religion and for its coercive relationship with Indians.
The other most well-known cases are the sedition trials of Bal Gangadhar Tilak and the trial of Mahatma Gandhi in 1922. Mahatma Gandhi for his articles published in Young India. -
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding pottery during Harappan civilisation.
1. The pottery of the Harappan culture consisted of mainly wheel-made ware, turned in various shapes and sizes, but without any colours.
2. They used various mortars and cements made of limestone, gypsum and mica.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Correct
Chemical techniques in India can be traced back all the way to the Indus valley or Harappan civilisation (3rd millennium BCE). Pre-Harappan Indians were acquainted with the art of making baked or burnt clay pottery as well as painting the same with two or more colours.
The pottery of the Harappan culture consisted of mainly wheel-made ware, turned in various shapes, sizes and colours out of the well-levigated alluvium of the Indus.
The colour and other characteristics of the wares depended upon the composition of the clay used and techniques of firing under either oxidising or reducing conditions. The Harappans also experimented with various mortars and cements made of burnt limestone, gypsum and mica, among other components.
The Harappan artisans must have had an intimate knowledge of the processing and properties of several naturally occurring chemical substances. The craftsmen were highly skilled in the art of shaping and polishing the precious and semi-precious stones used for the production of beads.
A type of pottery, now known as ‘Painted Grey Ware’, is associated with the Vedic period.
Later, ‘Northern Black Polished Ware’ also came into being in the eastern part of the Gangetic plains.
Incorrect
Chemical techniques in India can be traced back all the way to the Indus valley or Harappan civilisation (3rd millennium BCE). Pre-Harappan Indians were acquainted with the art of making baked or burnt clay pottery as well as painting the same with two or more colours.
The pottery of the Harappan culture consisted of mainly wheel-made ware, turned in various shapes, sizes and colours out of the well-levigated alluvium of the Indus.
The colour and other characteristics of the wares depended upon the composition of the clay used and techniques of firing under either oxidising or reducing conditions. The Harappans also experimented with various mortars and cements made of burnt limestone, gypsum and mica, among other components.
The Harappan artisans must have had an intimate knowledge of the processing and properties of several naturally occurring chemical substances. The craftsmen were highly skilled in the art of shaping and polishing the precious and semi-precious stones used for the production of beads.
A type of pottery, now known as ‘Painted Grey Ware’, is associated with the Vedic period.
Later, ‘Northern Black Polished Ware’ also came into being in the eastern part of the Gangetic plains.
-
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sattras of Assam.
1. Sattras are monastic institutions created as part of the 16th century Neo-Vaishnavite reformist movement started by Vaishnavite saint-reformer Srimanta Sankaradeva.
2. These Sattras were established as centres of religious, social and cultural reforms.
3. During the Ahom reign, most of the Sattras across Assam were destroyed.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Sattras are monastic institutions created as part of the 16th century Neo-Vaishnavite reformist movement started by Vaishnavite saint-reformer Srimanta Sankaradeva (1449-1596). As the saint travelled across Assam, spreading his teachings and propagating an egalitarian society, these Sattras/Thans were established as centres of religious, social and cultural reforms in the 16th century. Today, Sattras are spread across the state, promulgating Sankardeva’s unique “worship through art” approach with music (borgeet), dance (xattriya) and theatre (bhauna).
Sankardeva propagated a form of Bhakti called eka-sharana-naam-dhrama, and espoused a society based on equality and fraternity, free from caste differences, orthodox Brahmanical rituals and sacrifices. His teaching focused on prayer and chanting (naam) instead of idol worship. His dharma was based on the four components of deva (god), naam (prayers), bhakats (devotees), and guru (teacher).
Scholars, however, argue that post the demise of Sankardeva, the nature of the Vaishnavite movement has changed significantly. “After his demise, due to ideological differences among his disciples, the Sattras got divided into four independent sectarian divisions.
During the Ahom reign, the Sattras received a lot of donations in the form of land or money from the kings.
Incorrect
Sattras are monastic institutions created as part of the 16th century Neo-Vaishnavite reformist movement started by Vaishnavite saint-reformer Srimanta Sankaradeva (1449-1596). As the saint travelled across Assam, spreading his teachings and propagating an egalitarian society, these Sattras/Thans were established as centres of religious, social and cultural reforms in the 16th century. Today, Sattras are spread across the state, promulgating Sankardeva’s unique “worship through art” approach with music (borgeet), dance (xattriya) and theatre (bhauna).
Sankardeva propagated a form of Bhakti called eka-sharana-naam-dhrama, and espoused a society based on equality and fraternity, free from caste differences, orthodox Brahmanical rituals and sacrifices. His teaching focused on prayer and chanting (naam) instead of idol worship. His dharma was based on the four components of deva (god), naam (prayers), bhakats (devotees), and guru (teacher).
Scholars, however, argue that post the demise of Sankardeva, the nature of the Vaishnavite movement has changed significantly. “After his demise, due to ideological differences among his disciples, the Sattras got divided into four independent sectarian divisions.
During the Ahom reign, the Sattras received a lot of donations in the form of land or money from the kings.
-
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsThe term ‘Brute Force Acquisition’ is related to Correct
Brute force acquisition can be performed by 3rd party passcode brute force tools that send a series of passcodes / passwords to the mobile device. This technique uses trial and error in an attempt to create the correct combination of password or PIN to authenticate access to the mobile device. Incorrect
Brute force acquisition can be performed by 3rd party passcode brute force tools that send a series of passcodes / passwords to the mobile device. This technique uses trial and error in an attempt to create the correct combination of password or PIN to authenticate access to the mobile device. -
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 points‘Christchurch call to action’ essentially tackles the issue of Correct
India has joined a major global initiative to combat terrorism and extremism online and secure the internet. The initiative — ‘Christchurch call to action’ — has been named after the New Zealand city where 51 people were killed in an attack on mosques. The declaration on Christchurch call to action said a free, open and secure internet is a powerful tool by which to promote connectivity, enhance social inclusiveness and foster economic growth. Incorrect
India has joined a major global initiative to combat terrorism and extremism online and secure the internet. The initiative — ‘Christchurch call to action’ — has been named after the New Zealand city where 51 people were killed in an attack on mosques. The declaration on Christchurch call to action said a free, open and secure internet is a powerful tool by which to promote connectivity, enhance social inclusiveness and foster economic growth. -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsIf the Government set-up a dedicated non-lapsable fund for Defence and Internal Security, it cannot receive
funds to it from which of the following sourcesCorrect
To bridge the gap between projected budgetary requirements and budget allocation for defence and internal security and to provide greater predictability for enabling critical defence capital expenditure, the Commission has recommended setting up of a dedicated non-lapsable fund, the Modernisation Fund for Defence and Internal Security (MFDIS), with four specific sources: (a) Transfers from the Consolidated Fund of India, (b) disinvestment proceeds of DPSEs, (c) proceeds from the monetisation of surplus defence land and (d) proceeds of receipts from defence land likely to be transferred to state governments and for public projects in the future. Incorrect
To bridge the gap between projected budgetary requirements and budget allocation for defence and internal security and to provide greater predictability for enabling critical defence capital expenditure, the Commission has recommended setting up of a dedicated non-lapsable fund, the Modernisation Fund for Defence and Internal Security (MFDIS), with four specific sources: (a) Transfers from the Consolidated Fund of India, (b) disinvestment proceeds of DPSEs, (c) proceeds from the monetisation of surplus defence land and (d) proceeds of receipts from defence land likely to be transferred to state governments and for public projects in the future. -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsGlobal Innovation Index seeks to assist economies in evaluating their innovation performance. Which of the following are the pillars of GII? 1. Human Capital and Research
2. Infrastructure
3. Knowledge and Technological outputs
4. Market Sophistication
5. Creative outputs
Select the correct answer code:Correct
GII has two sub-indices: the Innovation Input Sub-Index and the Innovation Output Sub-Index, and seven pillars, each consisting of three sub-pillars, further divided into a total of 80 indicators. The Innovation Input sub-index and the Innovation Output Sub-Index have equal weight in calculating the overall GII. The Innovation Input subindex has five pillars:
(i) Institutions;
(ii) Human Capital and Research;
(iii) Infrastructure;
(iv) Market Sophistication; and
(v) Business Sophistication.The Innovation Output Sub-Index has two pillars (i) Knowledge and Technological outputs and (ii) Creative outputs.
Incorrect
GII has two sub-indices: the Innovation Input Sub-Index and the Innovation Output Sub-Index, and seven pillars, each consisting of three sub-pillars, further divided into a total of 80 indicators. The Innovation Input sub-index and the Innovation Output Sub-Index have equal weight in calculating the overall GII. The Innovation Input subindex has five pillars:
(i) Institutions;
(ii) Human Capital and Research;
(iii) Infrastructure;
(iv) Market Sophistication; and
(v) Business Sophistication.The Innovation Output Sub-Index has two pillars (i) Knowledge and Technological outputs and (ii) Creative outputs.
-
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsGlobal Risks Report, 2021 is released by Correct
The WEF’s Global Risks report for 2021 states that environmental risks continue to threaten the global economy. The top five risks are extreme weather, climate action failure, human environmental damage, infectious diseases and biodiversity loss.
In terms of impact, infectious diseases top the list, followed by climate action failure.
Incorrect
The WEF’s Global Risks report for 2021 states that environmental risks continue to threaten the global economy. The top five risks are extreme weather, climate action failure, human environmental damage, infectious diseases and biodiversity loss.
In terms of impact, infectious diseases top the list, followed by climate action failure.
-
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsArrange the following Islands from North to South
1. Takeshima Island
2. Kuril Island
3. Senkaku Island
Select the correct answer code:Correct
Isnalnds from North To South
1. Kuril Island
2. Takeshima Island
3. Senkaku IslandIncorrect
Isnalnds from North To South
1. Kuril Island
2. Takeshima Island
3. Senkaku Island
Leaderboard: 03rd Sept 2021 | Science and Tech. Test 02
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