• The biosphere is the biological component (supporting life) of the earth which includes the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The biosphere includes all living organisms on earth, together with the dead organic matter produced by them.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The biosphere is absent at extremes of the North and South poles, the highest mountains and the deepest oceans since existing hostile conditions there do not support life (life is the characteristic feature of the biosphere).
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Occasionally spores of fungi and bacteria do occur at a great height beyond 8,000 metres, but they are metabolically inactive, and hence represent only dormant life.

• A habitat always has life in it, whereas the environment does not necessarily have life in it.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• All habitats are environments, but all environments are not habitats.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• A habitat is always a preference of one species.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• An environment could be a preference of many species that could eventually become many habitats.
• Usually, the environment governs the properties of a habitat, but not vice versa.

• Ecology is the study of interactions between organisms, organisms and the surroundings occurring within an ecosystem or environment.
• An ecosystem is a functional unit of the environment (mostly biosphere).
• An environment is a group of ecosystems.

Dieback
• Refers to the progressive dying usually backwards from the tip of any portion of the plant.
• This is one of the adaptive mechanisms to avoid adverse conditions like drought.
• In this mechanism, the root remains alive for years together, but the shoots die.
• E.g. sal, red sanders, silk cotton tree etc.

Tikdam:
The shoots cannot survive if the roots die.

• Ecocline is a zone of gradual but continuous change from one ecosystem to another when there is no sharp boundary between the two in terms of species composition.
• Ecocline occurs across the environmental gradient (gradual change in abiotic factors such as altitude, temperature (thermocline), salinity (halocline), depth, etc.).

• The first plant to colonize an area is called the pioneer community.
• The final stage of succession is called the climax community.
• A climax community is stable, mature, more complex and long-lasting.
• The stage leading to the climax community is called successional stages or seres.
• Each transitional community that is formed and replaced during succession is called a stage in succession or a seral community.
• Succession is characterized by the following: increased productivity, the shift of nutrients from the reservoirs, increased diversity of organisms, and a gradual increase in the complexity of food webs.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Succession would occur faster in area existing in the middle of the large continent. This is because here seeds of plants belonging to the different seres would reach much faster.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• Pyramid of numbers represents the total number of individuals of different species (population) at each trophic level.
• Depending upon the size, the pyramid of numbers may not always be upright, and may even be completely inverted.
• It is very difficult to count all the organisms, in a pyramid of numbers and so the pyramid of number does not completely define the trophic structure for an ecosystem.

Pyramid of numbers – upright
• In this pyramid, the number of individuals is decreased from lower level to higher trophic level.
• This type of pyramid can be seen in the grassland ecosystem and pond ecosystem.
• The grasses occupy the lowest trophic level (base) because of their abundance.
• The next higher trophic level is primary consumer – herbivores like a grasshopper.
• The individual number of grasshoppers is less than that of grass.
• The next energy level is a primary carnivore like rats.
• The number of rats is less than grasshoppers, because, they feed on grasshoppers.
• The next higher trophic level is secondary carnivore like snakes. They feed on rats.
• The next higher trophic level is the top carnivore like Hawk.
• With each higher trophic level, the number of individual decreases.

Pyramid of numbers – inverted
• In this pyramid, the number of individuals is increased from lower level to higher trophic level. E.g. Tree ecosystem.

The Montreux Record
• The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference.
• It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.

Fly Ash
• Fly ash is ejected mostly by thermal power plants as by-products of coal burning operations.
• Fly ash pollutes air and water and may cause heavy metal pollution in water bodies.
• Fly ash affects crops and vegetation as a result of its direct deposition on leaf surfaces.

Composition
• Fly ash particles are oxide rich and consist of silica, alumina, oxides of iron, calcium, and magnesium and toxic heavy metals like lead, arsenic, cobalt, and copper.
• Major oxides are present are aluminium silicate (in large amounts), silicon dioxide (SiO2) and calcium oxide (CaO). It also contains heavy toxic elements like arsenic, cobalt, lead etc.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Uses
• Cement can be replaced by fly ash up to 35%, thus reducing the cost of construction, making roads, etc.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Fly ash bricks are light in weight and offer high strength and durability.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Fly ash is a better fill material for road embankments and in concrete roads.
• Fly ash can be used in the reclamation of wastelands.
• Abandoned mines can be filled up with fly ash.
• Fly ash can increase crop yield when added to the soil. But if it gets deposited on the leaf, it will reduce photosynthesis.
• It also enhances the water holding capacity of the land.

Policy measures of MoEF
• The Ministry of Environment and Forests has made it mandatory to use Fly Ash-based products in all construction projects, road embankment works, and low lying landfilling works within 100 km radius of Thermal Power Station and mine filling activities within 50 km radius of Thermal Power Station.

Conservation status of Vultures found in India

Critically Endangered
• White-Rumped Vulture (Gyps bengalensis)
• White-Backed Vulture (Gyps africanus)
• Ruppell’s Vulture (Gyps rueppellii)
• Indian Vulture (Gyps indicus)
• Slender-Billed Vulture (Gyps tenuirostris)

Endangered
• Cape Vulture (Gyps coprotheres)

Near Threatened
• Himalayan Vulture (Gyps himalayensis)

Least Concern
• Griffon Vulture (Gyps fulvus)

Biochar
• Bio char is found in soils around the world as a result of vegetation fires and historic soil management practices.
• Intensive study of bio char-rich dark earths in the Amazon (terra preta), has led to a wider appreciation of bio char’s unique properties as a soil enhancer.
• Bio char is charcoal that is used as soil amendment (minor improvement).
• It is created using a pyrolysis process (decomposition brought about by high temperatures), heating biomass in a low oxygen environment.
• Once the pyrolysis reaction has begun, it is self-sustaining, requiring no outside energy input.
• By-products of the process include syngas (H2 + CO), minor quantities of methane (CH4), organic acids and excess heat.
• Once it is produced, bio char is spread on agricultural fields and incorporated into the top layer of soil.
• The syngas and excess heat can be used directly or employed to produce a variety of biofuels.

• The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002).
• The NBA is a Statutory, Autonomous Body.
• The NBA will enjoy the power of a civil court.
• Before applying for any form of IPRs (Intellectual Property Rights) in or outside India for an invention based on research on a biological resource obtained from India, prior approval of NBA will be required.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The monetary benefits, fees, royalties as a result of approvals by NBA will be deposited in National Biodiversity Fund.
• It checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The top biotech regulator in India for Genetically Modified Organisms is Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Forest Rights Act, 2006
• The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
• Forest Rights Act, 2006 provides for the restitution of deprived forest rights across India.
• The Act is providing scope of integrating conservation and livelihood rights of the people.
• FRA is tool
– To empower and strengthen the local self-governance
– To address the livelihood security of the people
– To address the issues of Conservation and management of the Natural Resources and conservation governance of India.

Salient Features
• This Act is applicable for Tribal and Other Traditional Forest Dwelling Communities.
• The Act provides for recognition of forest rights of other traditional forest dwellers provided they have for at least three generations prior to 13.12.2005 primarily resided in and have depended on the forests for bonafide livelihood needs.
• The maximum limit of recognizing rights on forest land is 4 ha.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• National Parks and Sanctuaries have been included along with Reserve Forest, Protected Forests for the recognition of Rights.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Act recognizes the right of ownership access to collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce by tribals.
• Minor forest produce includes all non-timber forest produce of plant origin.
• The rights conferred under the Act shall be heritable but not alienable or transferable.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• As per the Act, the Gram Sabha has been designated as the competent authority for initiating the process of determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights.

National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
• Act of the Parliament of India which enables creation of NGT to handle the expeditious disposal of the cases pertaining to environmental issues.
• It was enacted under India’s constitutional provision of Article 21, which assures the citizens of India the right to a healthy environment.
Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
• The specialized architecture of the NGT will facilitate fast track resolution of environmental cases and provide a boost to the implementation of many sustainable development measures.
• NGT is mandated to dispose the cases within six months of their respective appeals.

Origin
• During the Earth Summit 1992, India vowed the participating states to provide judicial and administrative remedies for the victims of the pollutants and other environmental damage.

Members
• The sanctioned strength of the tribunal is currently 10 expert members and 10 judicial members although the act allows for up to 20 of each.
• The Chairman of the tribunal who is the administrative head of the tribunal also serves as a judicial member.
• Every bench of tribunal must consist of at least one expert member and one judicial member.
• The Chairman of the tribunal is required to be a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High Court or a judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Animal Welfare Board of India
• Statutory advisory body advising the Government of India on animal welfare laws and promotes animal welfare in the country of India.
• It works to ensure that animal welfare laws in the country are followed; provides grants to Animal Welfare Organizations; and considers itself “the face of the animal welfare movement in the country.”
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It was established in 1960 under Section 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Well-known humanitarian Rukmini Devi Arundale was instrumental in setting up the board.
• The subject of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals is under MoEF (Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change).

Functions
• The board is highly concerned about “abuse of animals in research” and “cruelty involved when animals were used in entertainment”.
• The Board oversees Animal Welfare Organizations (AWOs) by granting recognition to them if they meet its guidelines.
• The Board provides financial assistance to recognized Animal Welfare Organizations (AWOs)
• The Board suggests changes to laws and rules about animal welfare issues.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The Board issues publications to raise awareness of various animal welfare issues.

Core and Buffer zones
The Tiger Reserves are constituted on a ‘core-buffer strategy’.

Core Zone
• The core area is kept free of biotic disturbances and forestry operations, where collection of minor forest produce, grazing, human disturbances are not allowed within.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• These areas are required to be kept for the purposes of tiger conservation, without affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers.
• These areas are notified by the State Government in consultation with an Expert Committee (constituted for that purpose).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Buffer Zone
• The Act defines buffer zone as the area peripheral to the critical tiger habitat or core area providing supplementary habitat for dispersing tigers, besides offering scope for co-existence of human activity (tribals).
• The limits of such areas are determined with the concerned Gram Sabha and an Expert Committee constituted for the purpose.

Indian Crocodile Conservation Project
• The Indian Crocodile Conservation Project has pulled back the once threatened crocodilians from the brink of extinction and place them on a good path of recovery.

Objectives
• To protect the remaining population of crocodilians in their natural habitat by creating sanctuaries.
• To rebuild natural population quickly through ‘grow and release’ or ‘rear and release’ technique.
• To promote captive breeding.
• To take-up research to improve management.
• To build up a level of trained personnel for better continuity of the project through training imparted at project-sites and through the (erstwhile) Central Crocodile Breeding and Management Training Institute, Hyderabad.
• To involve the local people in the project intimately.

Captive breeding means that members of a wild species are captured, then bred and raised in a special facility under the care of wildlife biologists and other expert.
Bringing an animal into captivity may represent the last chance to preserve a species in the wild.

Ganges Dolphin
• The Ministry of Environment and Forests notified the Ganges River Dolphin as the National Aquatic Animal.
• The River Dolphin inhabits the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is estimated that their total population is around 2,000 and they are listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act (1972).
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Ganges Dolphin is among the four “obligate” freshwater dolphins found in the world — the other three are the ‘baiji found in the Yangtze River (China), the ‘bhulan’ of the Indus (Pakistan) and the ‘boto’ of the Amazon River (Latin America).
• Although there are several species of marine dolphins whose ranges include some freshwater habitats, these four species live only in rivers and lakes.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The Chinese River Dolphin was declared functionally extinct by a team of international scientists in 2006.
• In India, the Ganges River Dolphin is threatened by river water pollution and siltation, accidental entanglement in fishing nets and poaching for their oil.
• In addition, alterations to the rivers in the form of barrages and dams are separating populations.

Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is a statutory body constituted under the ‘Rules for the Manufacture, Use /Import /Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineering Organisms or Cells, 1989’ notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It was formed as the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee and was renamed to its current name in 2010.
• It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change.
• The body regulates the use, manufacture, storage, import and export of hazardous microorganisms or genetically-engineered organisms and cells in India.

GEAC Functions
• It is responsible for the appraisal of activities that involve the large scale use of hazardous microbes and recombinants in research and industrial production from the point of view of the environment.
• The GEAC also assesses proposals regarding the release of genetically engineered products and organisms into the environment, and this includes experimental field trials as well.
• The body also looks into proposals regarding the use of living modified organism that comes in the risk category III and above in the import/manufacture of recombinant pharma products, or where the end-product of the recombinant pharma product is a modified living organism.
• The Committee has the power to take punitive action against people/body under the Environment (Protection) Act.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The approval of the GEAC is mandatory before genetically modified organisms and products derived from them can be used commercially.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Tikdam:
The genetically modified organisms and products derived from them cannot be used commercially without the committee’s approval at all. So, Statement 3 could have been eliminated on the very first sight of it.

Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)
• The coastal stretches of seas, bays, estuaries, creeks, rivers and back waters which are influenced by tidal action are declared “Coastal Regulation Zone” (CRZ) in 1991.
• India has created institutional mechanisms such as National Coastal Zone Management Authority (NCZMA) and State Coastal Zone Management Authority (SCZMA) for enforcement and monitoring of the CRZ Notification.
• These authorities have been delegated powers under Section 5 of the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986 to take various measures for protecting and improving the quality of the coastal environment and preventing, abating and controlling environmental pollution in coastal areas.

Classification Criteria and Regulatory Norms
The coastal regulation zone has been classified for the purpose of regulation of the permitted activities.

CRZ-I:
• Ecological sensitive area and the area between High Tide Line (HTL) and Low Tide Line (LTL).
• No new construction is permitted except for a few specified most essential activities like support activities for Atomic Energy Plants and Defense requirements, facilities required for disposal of treated effluents and other port related water front activities.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

CRZ-II:
• The area that have been developed up to or close to the shore line which includes the designated urban areas that are substantially built up.
• Buildings permitted only on the landward side of the existing authorized structures as defined in the notification.

CRZ-III:
• The areas that are relatively undisturbed and those which do not belong to either CRZ-I or CRZ-II which includes mainly the rural area and those not substantially built up within designated urban areas.
• The area up to 200 meters from HTL is earmarked as “No Development Zone”.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• No construction is permitted within this zone except for repairs to the existing authorized structures.
• Development of vacant plots between 200 and 500 meters of HTL is permitted in CRZ III for the purpose of construction of dwelling units and hotels/beach resorts subject to certain conditions.

CRZ-IV
• The activities impugning on the sea and tidal influenced water bodies will be regulated except for traditional fishing and related activities undertaken by local communities.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• No untreated sewage, effluents, pollution from oil drilling shall be let off or dumped.