Quiz-summary
0 of 20 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
Information
Dear students,
1. In the comments section, share your score and also let everyone know the logic you’ve used to mark certain answers. This will trigger intelligent discussions benefitting everyone.
2. Completing the test should be your top priority. Focus on accuracy rather than simply attempting more questions. Give enough thought to each question, we have increased the time limit so you can do this.
3. At the end of the test, click on ‘View Questions’ button to check the solutions.
*You can attempt the test multiple times for your own practice but only your first attempt will be counted for rankings.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 20 questions answered correctly.
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points (0).
| Average score |
|
| Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
| Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Table is loading | ||||
| No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement is/are correct with respect to Fifth Schedule of our Constitution?
1. It deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes.
2. The Governor may increase the area of any Scheduled Area in a state.Correct
Why in news?
Maharashtra government has issued a notification modifying the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 that will enable tribals and other traditional forest dwelling families to build houses in the neighbourhood forest areas.• The notification has been issued by the Governor using his powers under subparagraph (1) of paragraph 5 of the Schedule V of the Constitution, according to a statement issued by Raj Bhavan.
• PESA rules in the State have given recognition to many habitations as villages, but there is no provision for land for house-building.Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
• It deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram (ATM2).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In Article 244(1) of the Constitution, expression Scheduled Areas means such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas (SA).The President may at any time by order-
1. direct that the whole or any specified part of Scheduled Area (SA) shall cease to be a SA or a part of such an area;
2. increase the area of any SA in a State after consultation with the Governor of that State;
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
3. alter, but only by way of rectification of boundaries, any Scheduled Area;
4. on any alteration of the boundaries of a State on the admission into the Union or the establishment of a new State, declare any territory not previously included in any State to be, or to form part of, a SA;
5. rescind, in relation to any State of States, any order or orders made under these provisions and in consultation with the Governor of the State concerned, make fresh orders redefining the areas which are to be SA.• The Governor may, by public notification, direct that any particular Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of the State shall or shall not apply to a SA or any part thereof in the State, subject to such exceptions and modifications, as specified.
• The Governor may make regulations for the peace and good government of any area in the State which is for the time being a SA. Such regulations may
1. prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes in such area;
2. regulate the allotment of land to members of the STs in such area;
3. regulate the carrying on of business as money-lender by persons who lend money to members of the STs in such area.• In making such regulations, the Governor may repeal or amend any Act of Parliament or of Legislature of the State or any existing law after obtaining the assent of the President.
Incorrect
Why in news?
Maharashtra government has issued a notification modifying the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 that will enable tribals and other traditional forest dwelling families to build houses in the neighbourhood forest areas.• The notification has been issued by the Governor using his powers under subparagraph (1) of paragraph 5 of the Schedule V of the Constitution, according to a statement issued by Raj Bhavan.
• PESA rules in the State have given recognition to many habitations as villages, but there is no provision for land for house-building.Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
• It deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram (ATM2).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In Article 244(1) of the Constitution, expression Scheduled Areas means such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas (SA).The President may at any time by order-
1. direct that the whole or any specified part of Scheduled Area (SA) shall cease to be a SA or a part of such an area;
2. increase the area of any SA in a State after consultation with the Governor of that State;
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
3. alter, but only by way of rectification of boundaries, any Scheduled Area;
4. on any alteration of the boundaries of a State on the admission into the Union or the establishment of a new State, declare any territory not previously included in any State to be, or to form part of, a SA;
5. rescind, in relation to any State of States, any order or orders made under these provisions and in consultation with the Governor of the State concerned, make fresh orders redefining the areas which are to be SA.• The Governor may, by public notification, direct that any particular Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of the State shall or shall not apply to a SA or any part thereof in the State, subject to such exceptions and modifications, as specified.
• The Governor may make regulations for the peace and good government of any area in the State which is for the time being a SA. Such regulations may
1. prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes in such area;
2. regulate the allotment of land to members of the STs in such area;
3. regulate the carrying on of business as money-lender by persons who lend money to members of the STs in such area.• In making such regulations, the Governor may repeal or amend any Act of Parliament or of Legislature of the State or any existing law after obtaining the assent of the President.
-
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are specialised agencies of United Nations?
1. Food and Agriculture Organization
2. International Maritime Organization
3. International Telecommunication Union
4. World Trade OrganizationCorrect
Why in news?
United Nations (UN) enters into 75th year of its existence.UN specialized agencies are international organizations working with the UN, in accordance with relationship agreements between each organization and the UN.
There are 17 Specialized Agencies:
• FAO: Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations
• ICAO: International Civil Aviation Organization
• IFAD: International Fund for Agricultural Development
• ILO: International Labour Organization
• IMF: International Monetary Fund
• IMO: International Maritime Organization
• ITU: International Telecommunication Union
• UNESCO: United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
• UNIDO: United Nations Industrial Development Organization
• UNWTO: World Tourism Organization
• UPU: Universal Postal Union
• WHO: World Health Organization
• WIPO: World Intellectual Property Organization
• WMO: World Meteorological Organization
• World Bank Group
– IBRD: International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
– IDA: International Development Association
– IFC: International Finance CorporationWorld Trade Organization (WTO) is not a UN specialized agency.
Incorrect
Why in news?
United Nations (UN) enters into 75th year of its existence.UN specialized agencies are international organizations working with the UN, in accordance with relationship agreements between each organization and the UN.
There are 17 Specialized Agencies:
• FAO: Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations
• ICAO: International Civil Aviation Organization
• IFAD: International Fund for Agricultural Development
• ILO: International Labour Organization
• IMF: International Monetary Fund
• IMO: International Maritime Organization
• ITU: International Telecommunication Union
• UNESCO: United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
• UNIDO: United Nations Industrial Development Organization
• UNWTO: World Tourism Organization
• UPU: Universal Postal Union
• WHO: World Health Organization
• WIPO: World Intellectual Property Organization
• WMO: World Meteorological Organization
• World Bank Group
– IBRD: International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
– IDA: International Development Association
– IFC: International Finance CorporationWorld Trade Organization (WTO) is not a UN specialized agency.
-
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 points“This doctrine refers to the question of competency of the legislature while enacting a provision of law”.
Which of the following doctrines is being referred to in the above passage?Correct
Why in news?
The President has finally given assent to the controversial farm Bills passed by Parliament.What is the Doctrine of Colorable Legislation?
• This doctrine refers to the question of competency of the legislature while enacting a provision of law.
• If a legislature is prohibited from doing something, it may not be permitted to do this under the guise or pretence of doing something while acting within its lawful jurisdiction and this prohibition is an implied result of the maxim “what cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly”.
• This doctrine is a tool used to determine the legislative competence of laws enacted by various legislatures.
• Therefore, it is a means to implement the separation of powers and impose judicial accountability.
• It was applied by the Supreme Court of India in the case State of Bihar vs Kameshwar Singh and it was held that the Bihar Land Reforms Act was invalid.Doctrine of Eclipse
• The doctrine states that if any law becomes contradictory to the fundamental rights, then it does not permanently die but becomes inactive.
• As soon as that fundamental right is omitted from the Constitution, the inactive law becomes revived.
• When a court strikes a part of the law, it becomes unenforceable. Hence, an ‘eclipse’ is said to be cast on it. The law just becomes invalid but continues to exist.
• The eclipse is removed when another (probably a higher level court) makes the law valid again or an amendment is brought to it by way of legislation.
• Supreme Court first applied this doctrine in the case of Bhikaji vs State of Madhya Pradesh where it applied to pre-constitutional law. The extension to the post-constitutional law was stated in the case of Dulare Lodh vs ADJ Kanpur.Doctrine of Pith and Substance
• This doctrine comes into picture when there is a conflict between the different subjects in different lists. There is an interpretation of List 1 and List 2 of the Constitution of India.
• There can be a situation when a subject of one list touche the subject of another List. Hence this doctrine is applied then.
• Pith and Substance means the true nature of law.
• The real subject matter is challenged and not its incidental effect on another field.
• The doctrine has been applied in India also to provide a degree of flexibility in the otherwise rigid scheme of distribution of powers.
• The reason for the adoption of this doctrine is that if every legislation were to be declared invalid on the grounds that it encroached powers, the powers of the legislature would be drastically circumscribed.
• It was applied by the Supreme Court in the case State of Bombay Vs F.N Balasar.Incorrect
Why in news?
The President has finally given assent to the controversial farm Bills passed by Parliament.What is the Doctrine of Colorable Legislation?
• This doctrine refers to the question of competency of the legislature while enacting a provision of law.
• If a legislature is prohibited from doing something, it may not be permitted to do this under the guise or pretence of doing something while acting within its lawful jurisdiction and this prohibition is an implied result of the maxim “what cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly”.
• This doctrine is a tool used to determine the legislative competence of laws enacted by various legislatures.
• Therefore, it is a means to implement the separation of powers and impose judicial accountability.
• It was applied by the Supreme Court of India in the case State of Bihar vs Kameshwar Singh and it was held that the Bihar Land Reforms Act was invalid.Doctrine of Eclipse
• The doctrine states that if any law becomes contradictory to the fundamental rights, then it does not permanently die but becomes inactive.
• As soon as that fundamental right is omitted from the Constitution, the inactive law becomes revived.
• When a court strikes a part of the law, it becomes unenforceable. Hence, an ‘eclipse’ is said to be cast on it. The law just becomes invalid but continues to exist.
• The eclipse is removed when another (probably a higher level court) makes the law valid again or an amendment is brought to it by way of legislation.
• Supreme Court first applied this doctrine in the case of Bhikaji vs State of Madhya Pradesh where it applied to pre-constitutional law. The extension to the post-constitutional law was stated in the case of Dulare Lodh vs ADJ Kanpur.Doctrine of Pith and Substance
• This doctrine comes into picture when there is a conflict between the different subjects in different lists. There is an interpretation of List 1 and List 2 of the Constitution of India.
• There can be a situation when a subject of one list touche the subject of another List. Hence this doctrine is applied then.
• Pith and Substance means the true nature of law.
• The real subject matter is challenged and not its incidental effect on another field.
• The doctrine has been applied in India also to provide a degree of flexibility in the otherwise rigid scheme of distribution of powers.
• The reason for the adoption of this doctrine is that if every legislation were to be declared invalid on the grounds that it encroached powers, the powers of the legislature would be drastically circumscribed.
• It was applied by the Supreme Court in the case State of Bombay Vs F.N Balasar. -
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to ESG funds?
1. It is a type of mutual fund.
2. It takes into account the environment sustainability and social responsibility of companies.Correct
Why in news?
ESG funds are witnessing a growing interest in the Indian mutual fund industry these days.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.What are the ESG funds?
• ESG means using Environmental, Social and Governance factors to evaluate companies and countries on how far advanced they are with sustainability.
• ESG investing is used synonymously with sustainable investing or socially responsible investing.
• While selecting a stock for investment, the ESG fund shortlists companies that score high on the environment, social responsibility and corporate governance, and then looks into financial factors.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• So, the scheme focuses on companies with environment-friendly practices, ethical business practices and an employee-friendly record.
• They imbibe the environment, social responsibility and corporate governance in their investing process.Incorrect
Why in news?
ESG funds are witnessing a growing interest in the Indian mutual fund industry these days.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.What are the ESG funds?
• ESG means using Environmental, Social and Governance factors to evaluate companies and countries on how far advanced they are with sustainability.
• ESG investing is used synonymously with sustainable investing or socially responsible investing.
• While selecting a stock for investment, the ESG fund shortlists companies that score high on the environment, social responsibility and corporate governance, and then looks into financial factors.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• So, the scheme focuses on companies with environment-friendly practices, ethical business practices and an employee-friendly record.
• They imbibe the environment, social responsibility and corporate governance in their investing process. -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 pointsIdentify the correct statement/s with reference to Ultra-Violet Imaging Telescope (UVIT).
1. It can simultaneously observe in the visible, the near-ultraviolet and the far-ultraviolet.
2. It has enabled astronomers to explore stars and star clusters.
3. It is chatacterized by a superior spatial resolution capability.Correct
Why in news?
The satellite that detected the first extreme-UV rays in the Universe from the cosmic noon celebrated its 5th birthday today.Ultra-Violet Imaging Telescope (UVIT)
• The UVIT is a remarkable 3-in-1 imaging telescope.
• Weighing all of 230 kg, the UVIT can simultaneously observe in the visible, the near-ultraviolet (NUV) and the far-ultraviolet (FUV).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• UVIT comprises of two separate telescopes. One of them works in the visible (320-550 nm) and the NUV (200-300 nm).
The second works only in the FUV (130-180 nm).Its achievement
• It has carried out 1166 observations of 800 unique celestial sources proposed by scientists both from India and abroad.
• It has explored stars, star clusters, mapping of the large and small satellite galaxies nearby to our own Milky Way galaxy called the Magellanic Clouds.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is an energetic phenomenon in the Universe such as the ultra-violet counterparts to gamma-ray bursts, supernovae, active galactic nuclei, and so on.
• Its superior spatial resolution capability has enabled astronomers to probe star formation in galaxies as well as resolve the cores of star clusters (3 times better than the last NASA mission, GALEX).
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Observations from UVIT has recently led to the discovery of a galaxy located at a distance of about 10 billion light-years from Earth and emitting extreme ultraviolet radiation that can ionize the intergalactic medium.Incorrect
Why in news?
The satellite that detected the first extreme-UV rays in the Universe from the cosmic noon celebrated its 5th birthday today.Ultra-Violet Imaging Telescope (UVIT)
• The UVIT is a remarkable 3-in-1 imaging telescope.
• Weighing all of 230 kg, the UVIT can simultaneously observe in the visible, the near-ultraviolet (NUV) and the far-ultraviolet (FUV).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• UVIT comprises of two separate telescopes. One of them works in the visible (320-550 nm) and the NUV (200-300 nm).
The second works only in the FUV (130-180 nm).Its achievement
• It has carried out 1166 observations of 800 unique celestial sources proposed by scientists both from India and abroad.
• It has explored stars, star clusters, mapping of the large and small satellite galaxies nearby to our own Milky Way galaxy called the Magellanic Clouds.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is an energetic phenomenon in the Universe such as the ultra-violet counterparts to gamma-ray bursts, supernovae, active galactic nuclei, and so on.
• Its superior spatial resolution capability has enabled astronomers to probe star formation in galaxies as well as resolve the cores of star clusters (3 times better than the last NASA mission, GALEX).
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Observations from UVIT has recently led to the discovery of a galaxy located at a distance of about 10 billion light-years from Earth and emitting extreme ultraviolet radiation that can ionize the intergalactic medium. -
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with regard to “cess”.
1. It is collected for a specific purpose and ought to be spent only for that purpose.
2. The Union government is not mandated to share it with the states.
3. A total of 42 cesses have been levied since 1944.
4. The introduction of the GST has led to most cesses being done away with.
Select the correct code from the codes given below.Correct
Why in news?
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, in its latest audit report of government accounts, has observed that the government withheld in the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) more than ₹1.1 lakh crore out of the almost ₹2.75 lakh crore collected through various cesses in 2018-19.What is Cess?
• The Union government is empowered to raise revenue through a gamut of levies, including taxes (both direct and indirect), surcharges, fees and cess.
• While direct taxes, including income tax, and indirect taxes such as GST are taxes where the revenue received can be spent by the government for any public purpose in any manner it deems appropriate for the nation’s good, a cess is an earmarked tax that is collected for a specific purpose and ought to be spent only for that.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Every cess is collected after Parliament has authorised its creation through enabling legislation that specifies the purpose for which the funds are being raised.
• Article 270 of the Constitution allows cess to be excluded from the purview of the divisible pool of taxes that the Union government must share with the States.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.How many cesses does government levy?
• A report submitted to the Fifteenth Finance Commission listed 42 cesses that have been levied at various points in time since 1944. The very first cess was levied on matches, according to this report.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Post Independence, the cess taxes were linked initially to the development of a particular industry, including a salt cess and a tea cess in 1953.
• Subsequently, the introduction of cess was motivated by the aim of ensuring labour welfare.
• Some cesses that exemplified this thrust were the iron ore mines labour welfare cess in 1961, the limestone and dolomite mines labour welfare cess of 1972 and the cine workers welfare cess introduced in 1981.Cesses after GST
• The introduction of the GST in 2017 led to most cesses being done away with and as of August 2018, there were only seven cesses that continued to be levied.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• These were Cess on Exports, Cess on Crude Oil, Health and Education Cess, Road and Infrastructure Cess, Building and Other Construction Workers Welfare Cess, National Calamity Contingent Duty on Tobacco and Tobacco Products and the GST Compensation Cess.
• And in February, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman introduced a new cess — a Health Cess of 5% on imported medical devices — in the Finance Bill for 2020-2021.Incorrect
Why in news?
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India, in its latest audit report of government accounts, has observed that the government withheld in the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) more than ₹1.1 lakh crore out of the almost ₹2.75 lakh crore collected through various cesses in 2018-19.What is Cess?
• The Union government is empowered to raise revenue through a gamut of levies, including taxes (both direct and indirect), surcharges, fees and cess.
• While direct taxes, including income tax, and indirect taxes such as GST are taxes where the revenue received can be spent by the government for any public purpose in any manner it deems appropriate for the nation’s good, a cess is an earmarked tax that is collected for a specific purpose and ought to be spent only for that.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Every cess is collected after Parliament has authorised its creation through enabling legislation that specifies the purpose for which the funds are being raised.
• Article 270 of the Constitution allows cess to be excluded from the purview of the divisible pool of taxes that the Union government must share with the States.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.How many cesses does government levy?
• A report submitted to the Fifteenth Finance Commission listed 42 cesses that have been levied at various points in time since 1944. The very first cess was levied on matches, according to this report.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Post Independence, the cess taxes were linked initially to the development of a particular industry, including a salt cess and a tea cess in 1953.
• Subsequently, the introduction of cess was motivated by the aim of ensuring labour welfare.
• Some cesses that exemplified this thrust were the iron ore mines labour welfare cess in 1961, the limestone and dolomite mines labour welfare cess of 1972 and the cine workers welfare cess introduced in 1981.Cesses after GST
• The introduction of the GST in 2017 led to most cesses being done away with and as of August 2018, there were only seven cesses that continued to be levied.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• These were Cess on Exports, Cess on Crude Oil, Health and Education Cess, Road and Infrastructure Cess, Building and Other Construction Workers Welfare Cess, National Calamity Contingent Duty on Tobacco and Tobacco Products and the GST Compensation Cess.
• And in February, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman introduced a new cess — a Health Cess of 5% on imported medical devices — in the Finance Bill for 2020-2021. -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsIdentify the correct statement/s in context to Gilgit-Baltistan region.
1. It is home to the world’s second tallest mountain.
2. The region consists some of the ancient Buddhist sculptures and rock edicts.Correct
Why in news?
Seven decades after it took control of the region, Pakistan is moving to grant full statehood to Gilgit-Baltistan (GB), which appears as the northernmost part of the country in its official map.Gilgit-Baltistan (GB)
• It’s home to K-2, the second tallest mountain in the world.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Tourism remains restricted by many factors, including military hostility, though the region has some of the ancient Buddhist sculptures and rock edicts.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is also home to an old Shia community, which often finds itself subjected to persecution in Pakistan’s urban centres.
• At present, a Governor and an elected Chief Minister rule the region, which is divided into Gilgit, Skardu, Diamer, Astore, Ghanche, Ghizer and Hunza-Nagar.Incorrect
Why in news?
Seven decades after it took control of the region, Pakistan is moving to grant full statehood to Gilgit-Baltistan (GB), which appears as the northernmost part of the country in its official map.Gilgit-Baltistan (GB)
• It’s home to K-2, the second tallest mountain in the world.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Tourism remains restricted by many factors, including military hostility, though the region has some of the ancient Buddhist sculptures and rock edicts.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is also home to an old Shia community, which often finds itself subjected to persecution in Pakistan’s urban centres.
• At present, a Governor and an elected Chief Minister rule the region, which is divided into Gilgit, Skardu, Diamer, Astore, Ghanche, Ghizer and Hunza-Nagar. -
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Varuna-18 : India and French
2. Samudra Shakti : India and Indonesia
3. Sampriti-Ix : India and Bangladesh
4. Jimex : India and JapanCorrect
Why in news?
The 4th edition of India – Japan Maritime bilateral exercise JIMEX will be held in the North Arabian Sea from 26 to 28 September 2020.Varuna-18 : India and French
Samudra Shakti : India and Indonesia
Sampriti-Ix : India and Bangladesh
Jimex : India and JapanIncorrect
Why in news?
The 4th edition of India – Japan Maritime bilateral exercise JIMEX will be held in the North Arabian Sea from 26 to 28 September 2020.Varuna-18 : India and French
Samudra Shakti : India and Indonesia
Sampriti-Ix : India and Bangladesh
Jimex : India and Japan -
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsSelect the correct statement/s from the set of statements given below in reference to “sonification project” recently seen in news.
1. It is a joint project of NASA and European Space Observatory.
2. It will help ‘listen’ to images of the Galactic Centre, the remains of a supernova, etc.Correct
Why in news?
While telescopes offer glimpses of outer space by translating digital data into stunning images, NASA’s Chandra X-Ray Center (CXC) has gone a step further by unveiling a new ‘sonification’ project that transforms data from astronomical images into audio.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.What is the project?
• Users can now ‘listen’ to images of the Galactic Centre, the remains of a supernova called Cassiopeia A, as well as the Pillars of Creation Nebula, which are all located in a region around 26,000 light-years away from Earth.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The data has been collected by NASA’s Chandra X-Ray Observatory, Hubble Space Telescope and Spitzer Space Telescope — each of which is represented by a different musical ‘instrument’.What is data sonification?
• Data sonification refers to the use of sound values to represent real data. Simply put, it is the auditory version of data visualization.
• In NASA’s recent Chandra project, for instance, data is represented using a number of musical notes.
• With this data sonification project, users can now experience different phenomena captured in astronomical images as an aural experience.
• The birth of a star, a cloud of dust or even a black hole can now be ‘heard’ as a high or low pitched sound.Incorrect
Why in news?
While telescopes offer glimpses of outer space by translating digital data into stunning images, NASA’s Chandra X-Ray Center (CXC) has gone a step further by unveiling a new ‘sonification’ project that transforms data from astronomical images into audio.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.What is the project?
• Users can now ‘listen’ to images of the Galactic Centre, the remains of a supernova called Cassiopeia A, as well as the Pillars of Creation Nebula, which are all located in a region around 26,000 light-years away from Earth.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The data has been collected by NASA’s Chandra X-Ray Observatory, Hubble Space Telescope and Spitzer Space Telescope — each of which is represented by a different musical ‘instrument’.What is data sonification?
• Data sonification refers to the use of sound values to represent real data. Simply put, it is the auditory version of data visualization.
• In NASA’s recent Chandra project, for instance, data is represented using a number of musical notes.
• With this data sonification project, users can now experience different phenomena captured in astronomical images as an aural experience.
• The birth of a star, a cloud of dust or even a black hole can now be ‘heard’ as a high or low pitched sound. -
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsThe Yo-Yo test sometimes seen in news is related to:
Correct
Why in news?
In his interaction with fitness experts and influencers the PM asked about the yo-yo test, that is a vital part of the Indian cricket team’s fitness routine.What is the Yo-Yo test?
• The test was developed by Danish football physiologist Jens Bangsbo.
• Two cones are placed 20 metres apart, and the athlete has to run between them when the beep goes off.
• The beeps become more frequent after one minute, and if the athlete fails to reach the line within that time, he is expected to catch up within two more beeps.
• The test is stopped if the player fails to catch up before the beeps run out.
• The test has a beginner and an advanced level, and players are given scores. The minimum score set by the Board of Control for Cricket in India to pass the test is 16.1.Incorrect
Why in news?
In his interaction with fitness experts and influencers the PM asked about the yo-yo test, that is a vital part of the Indian cricket team’s fitness routine.What is the Yo-Yo test?
• The test was developed by Danish football physiologist Jens Bangsbo.
• Two cones are placed 20 metres apart, and the athlete has to run between them when the beep goes off.
• The beeps become more frequent after one minute, and if the athlete fails to reach the line within that time, he is expected to catch up within two more beeps.
• The test is stopped if the player fails to catch up before the beeps run out.
• The test has a beginner and an advanced level, and players are given scores. The minimum score set by the Board of Control for Cricket in India to pass the test is 16.1. -
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsIdentify the correct statements/s from those given below with respect to Social Stock Exchanges (SSEs).
1. It allows investors to buy shares in social enterprises.
2. The Union Budget 2020 proposed setting up of first of its kind SSE in India.
3. It will function under the regulatory ambit of RBI.Correct
Why in news?
The Securities and Exchange Board’s (SEBI) working group has submitted its report with recommendations regarding the structure, mechanisms, and regulatory framework for the proposed Social Stock Exchange (SSE).What are Social Stock Exchanges (SSEs)?
• An SSE is a platform which allows investors to buy shares in social enterprises vetted by an official exchange.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Union Budget 2019 proposed setting up of first of its kind SSE in India.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The SSE will function as a common platform where social enterprises can raise funds from the public.
• It will function on the lines of major stock exchanges like BSE and NSE. However, the purpose of the Social Stock Exchange will be different – not profit, but social welfare.
• Under the regulatory ambit of SEBI, a listing of social enterprises and voluntary organizations will be undertaken so that they can raise capital as equity, debt or as units like a mutual fund.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.Incorrect
Why in news?
The Securities and Exchange Board’s (SEBI) working group has submitted its report with recommendations regarding the structure, mechanisms, and regulatory framework for the proposed Social Stock Exchange (SSE).What are Social Stock Exchanges (SSEs)?
• An SSE is a platform which allows investors to buy shares in social enterprises vetted by an official exchange.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Union Budget 2019 proposed setting up of first of its kind SSE in India.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The SSE will function as a common platform where social enterprises can raise funds from the public.
• It will function on the lines of major stock exchanges like BSE and NSE. However, the purpose of the Social Stock Exchange will be different – not profit, but social welfare.
• Under the regulatory ambit of SEBI, a listing of social enterprises and voluntary organizations will be undertaken so that they can raise capital as equity, debt or as units like a mutual fund.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. -
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsSelect the correct statement/s from those given below.
1. Essential Commodities Act, 1955 specifically defines “essential commodities”.
2. The Act gives powers to the state government to add or remove a commodity in the Schedule of the Act.Correct
Why in news?
Recently, the Rajya Sabha passed the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020 which is aimed at deregulating commodities such as cereals, pulses, oilseeds, edible oils, onion and potatoes.Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020
• It amends the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, by introducing a new Subsection 1(A) in Section 3.
• After the amendment, the supply of certain foodstuffs — including cereals, pulses, oilseeds, edible oils, potato — can be regulated only under extraordinary circumstances, which include an extraordinary price rise, war, famine, and natural calamity of a severe nature.
• In effect, the amendment takes these items out from the purview of Section 3(1), which gives powers to the central government to “control production, supply, distribution, etc, of essential commodities”.
• Earlier, these commodities were not mentioned under Section 3(1) and reasons for invoking the section were not specified.How is an ‘essential commodity’ defined?
• There is no specific definition of essential commodities in the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. Section 2(A) states that an “essential commodity” means a commodity specified in the Schedule of the Act.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Act gives powers to the central government to add or remove a commodity in the Schedule.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Centre, if it is satisfied that it is necessary to do so in the public interest, can notify an item as essential, in consultation with state governments.Incorrect
Why in news?
Recently, the Rajya Sabha passed the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020 which is aimed at deregulating commodities such as cereals, pulses, oilseeds, edible oils, onion and potatoes.Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020
• It amends the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, by introducing a new Subsection 1(A) in Section 3.
• After the amendment, the supply of certain foodstuffs — including cereals, pulses, oilseeds, edible oils, potato — can be regulated only under extraordinary circumstances, which include an extraordinary price rise, war, famine, and natural calamity of a severe nature.
• In effect, the amendment takes these items out from the purview of Section 3(1), which gives powers to the central government to “control production, supply, distribution, etc, of essential commodities”.
• Earlier, these commodities were not mentioned under Section 3(1) and reasons for invoking the section were not specified.How is an ‘essential commodity’ defined?
• There is no specific definition of essential commodities in the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. Section 2(A) states that an “essential commodity” means a commodity specified in the Schedule of the Act.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Act gives powers to the central government to add or remove a commodity in the Schedule.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Centre, if it is satisfied that it is necessary to do so in the public interest, can notify an item as essential, in consultation with state governments. -
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?
1. It is a regional intergovernmental organization.
2. Myanmar and Sri Lanka are two of its members.
3. It maintains permanent diplomatic relations at the United Nations as an observer.Correct
Why in news?
This was in news in context to how South Asia is dealing with the pandemic and the need for coordinated action by the countries across the region.What is South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?
• The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of states in South Asia.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Its member states are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The SAARC comprises 3% of the world’s area, 21% of the world’s population and 4.21% (US$3.67 trillion) of the global economy, as of 2019.
• The SAARC was founded in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.
• Its secretariat is based in Kathmandu, Nepal.
• The organization promotes development of economic and regional integration.
• It launched the South Asian Free Trade Area in 2006.
• The SAARC maintains permanent diplomatic relations at the United Nations as an observer and has developed links with multilateral entities, including the European Union.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.Incorrect
Why in news?
This was in news in context to how South Asia is dealing with the pandemic and the need for coordinated action by the countries across the region.What is South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?
• The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of states in South Asia.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Its member states are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The SAARC comprises 3% of the world’s area, 21% of the world’s population and 4.21% (US$3.67 trillion) of the global economy, as of 2019.
• The SAARC was founded in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.
• Its secretariat is based in Kathmandu, Nepal.
• The organization promotes development of economic and regional integration.
• It launched the South Asian Free Trade Area in 2006.
• The SAARC maintains permanent diplomatic relations at the United Nations as an observer and has developed links with multilateral entities, including the European Union.
Hence, statement 3 is correct. -
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to ABHYAS Air Vehicle recently seen in news.
1. The vehicle is programmed for fully autonomous flight.
2. It can also function as a jammer platform and decoy.
3. The HEAT system is utilized to do away with the post-launch recovery mode.
Select the correct code from the codes given below.Correct
Why in news?
Successful flight test of ABHYAS – High-speed Expendable Aerial Target (HEAT) was conducted by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) from the Interim Test Range, Balasore in Odisha.ABHYAS Air Vehicle
• ABHYAS is designed & developed by Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE), DRDO.
• The air vehicle is launched using twin underslung booster.
• It is powered by a small gas turbine engine and has a MEMS-based Inertial Navigation System (INS) for navigation along with the Flight Control Computer (FCC) for guidance and control.
• The vehicle is programmed for fully autonomous flight. The check out of air vehicle is done using laptop-based Ground Control Station (GCS).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• During the test campaign, the user requirement of 5 km flying altitude, vehicle speed of 0.5 mach, the endurance of 30 minutes and 2g turn capability of the test vehicle were successfully achieved.Its uses
• Abhyas’s radar cross-section (RCS), as well as its visual and infrared signatures, can be augmented to simulate a variety of aircraft for air-defence weapon practices.
• It can also function as a jammer platform and decoy.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The HEAT system is utilized to do away with the post-launch recovery mode, which is time-consuming and difficult in a scenario as the sea.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.Incorrect
Why in news?
Successful flight test of ABHYAS – High-speed Expendable Aerial Target (HEAT) was conducted by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) from the Interim Test Range, Balasore in Odisha.ABHYAS Air Vehicle
• ABHYAS is designed & developed by Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE), DRDO.
• The air vehicle is launched using twin underslung booster.
• It is powered by a small gas turbine engine and has a MEMS-based Inertial Navigation System (INS) for navigation along with the Flight Control Computer (FCC) for guidance and control.
• The vehicle is programmed for fully autonomous flight. The check out of air vehicle is done using laptop-based Ground Control Station (GCS).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• During the test campaign, the user requirement of 5 km flying altitude, vehicle speed of 0.5 mach, the endurance of 30 minutes and 2g turn capability of the test vehicle were successfully achieved.Its uses
• Abhyas’s radar cross-section (RCS), as well as its visual and infrared signatures, can be augmented to simulate a variety of aircraft for air-defence weapon practices.
• It can also function as a jammer platform and decoy.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The HEAT system is utilized to do away with the post-launch recovery mode, which is time-consuming and difficult in a scenario as the sea.
Hence, statement 3 is correct. -
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
1. The Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a Member.
2. The House can suspend the member for a maximum of 7 years.
Select the correct code from the codes given below.Correct
Why in news?
Recently eight Rajya Sabha MPs were suspended for unruly behaviour in the House.What are the rules under which the Presiding Officer acts?
• Rule Number 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business provides for the suspension of MPs by the Speaker of the House.
• To deal with more recalcitrant Members, the Speaker make take recourse to Rules 374 and 374A.
• Rule 374 says: The Speaker may, if deems it necessary, name a Member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the House by persistently and wilfully obstructing the business thereof.
• Rule 374A was incorporated in the Rule Book on December 5, 2001. The intention was to skirt around the necessity of moving and adopting a motion for suspension.Procedure in Rajya Sabha
It’s largely similar, with one important difference.
• Like the Speaker in Lok Sabha, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is empowered under Rule Number 255 of its Rule Book to “direct any Member whose conduct is in his opinion grossly disorderly to withdraw immediately” from the House.
• Unlike the Speaker, however, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a Member. The House may, by another motion, terminate the suspension.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Chairman may “name a Member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the Council by persistently and wilfully obstructing” business.
• In such a situation, the House may adopt a motion suspending the Member from the service of the House for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.Incorrect
Why in news?
Recently eight Rajya Sabha MPs were suspended for unruly behaviour in the House.What are the rules under which the Presiding Officer acts?
• Rule Number 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business provides for the suspension of MPs by the Speaker of the House.
• To deal with more recalcitrant Members, the Speaker make take recourse to Rules 374 and 374A.
• Rule 374 says: The Speaker may, if deems it necessary, name a Member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the House by persistently and wilfully obstructing the business thereof.
• Rule 374A was incorporated in the Rule Book on December 5, 2001. The intention was to skirt around the necessity of moving and adopting a motion for suspension.Procedure in Rajya Sabha
It’s largely similar, with one important difference.
• Like the Speaker in Lok Sabha, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is empowered under Rule Number 255 of its Rule Book to “direct any Member whose conduct is in his opinion grossly disorderly to withdraw immediately” from the House.
• Unlike the Speaker, however, the Rajya Sabha Chairman does not have the power to suspend a Member. The House may, by another motion, terminate the suspension.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Chairman may “name a Member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the Council by persistently and wilfully obstructing” business.
• In such a situation, the House may adopt a motion suspending the Member from the service of the House for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. -
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 points‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often seen in the news, seeks to:
Correct
Why in news?
The country’s largest lender State Bank of India has raised Rs 7,000 crore by issuing Basel III compliant bonds.What are Basel III compliant Bonds?
• The bonds qualify as tier II capital of the bank, and has a face value of Rs 10 lakh each, bearing a coupon rate of 6.24 per cent per annum payable annually for a tenor of 10 years.
• There is a call option after 5 years and on anniversary thereafter.
• Call option means the issuer of the bonds can call back the bonds before the maturity date by paying back the principal amount to investors.Incorrect
Why in news?
The country’s largest lender State Bank of India has raised Rs 7,000 crore by issuing Basel III compliant bonds.What are Basel III compliant Bonds?
• The bonds qualify as tier II capital of the bank, and has a face value of Rs 10 lakh each, bearing a coupon rate of 6.24 per cent per annum payable annually for a tenor of 10 years.
• There is a call option after 5 years and on anniversary thereafter.
• Call option means the issuer of the bonds can call back the bonds before the maturity date by paying back the principal amount to investors. -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Central Asian countries share boundary with Afghanistan?
1. Kazakhstan
2. Turkmenistan
3. Tajikistan
4. KyrgyzstanCorrect
Why this question?
Afghan Peace Process was recently in news.Borders of Afghanistan
Tajikistan
Turkmenistan
Uzbekistan
Iran
PakistanIncorrect
Why this question?
Afghan Peace Process was recently in news.Borders of Afghanistan
Tajikistan
Turkmenistan
Uzbekistan
Iran
Pakistan -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are correct in reference to “Global Smart City Index” recently seen in news.
1. It is given by UN-Habitat.
2. In India, New Delhi topped the index.Correct
Why in news?
Four Indian cities -New Delhi, Mumbai, Hyderabad, and Bengaluru – witnessed a significant drop in their rankings in the global listing of smart cities that was topped by Singapore.Global Smart City Index
• The Institute for Management Development, in collaboration with Singapore University for Technology and Design, has released the 2020 Smart City Index.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Its key findings rest on how technology is playing a role in the Covid-19 era.
• The 2020 Index was topped by Singapore, followed by Helsinki and Zurich in the second and the third place respectively.
• Others in the top 10 list include Auckland (4th), Oslo (5th), Copenhagen (6th), Geneva (7th), Taipei City (8th), Amsterdam (9th) and New York at the 10th place.India’s performances
• In the 2020 Smart City Index, Hyderabad was placed at the 85th position (down from 67 in 2019), New Delhi at 86th rank (down from 68 in 2019), Mumbai was at 93rd place (in 2019 it was at 78) and Bengaluru at 95th (79 in 2019).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• This drop can be attributed to the detrimental effect that the pandemic has had where the technological advancement was not up to date.
• From 15 indicators that the respondents perceive as the priority areas for their city, all four cities highlighted air pollution as one of the key areas that they felt their city needed to prioritise on.
• For cities like Bangalore and Mumbai, this was closely followed by road congestion while for Delhi and Hyderabad it was basic amenities, the report said.Incorrect
Why in news?
Four Indian cities -New Delhi, Mumbai, Hyderabad, and Bengaluru – witnessed a significant drop in their rankings in the global listing of smart cities that was topped by Singapore.Global Smart City Index
• The Institute for Management Development, in collaboration with Singapore University for Technology and Design, has released the 2020 Smart City Index.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Its key findings rest on how technology is playing a role in the Covid-19 era.
• The 2020 Index was topped by Singapore, followed by Helsinki and Zurich in the second and the third place respectively.
• Others in the top 10 list include Auckland (4th), Oslo (5th), Copenhagen (6th), Geneva (7th), Taipei City (8th), Amsterdam (9th) and New York at the 10th place.India’s performances
• In the 2020 Smart City Index, Hyderabad was placed at the 85th position (down from 67 in 2019), New Delhi at 86th rank (down from 68 in 2019), Mumbai was at 93rd place (in 2019 it was at 78) and Bengaluru at 95th (79 in 2019).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• This drop can be attributed to the detrimental effect that the pandemic has had where the technological advancement was not up to date.
• From 15 indicators that the respondents perceive as the priority areas for their city, all four cities highlighted air pollution as one of the key areas that they felt their city needed to prioritise on.
• For cities like Bangalore and Mumbai, this was closely followed by road congestion while for Delhi and Hyderabad it was basic amenities, the report said. -
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsThe “Djibouti Code of Conduct” sometimes seen in news is related to:
Correct
Why in news?
India has joined the Djibouti Code of Conduct/ Jeddah Amendment (DCOC/JA) as Observer, following the high-level virtual meeting.Djibouti Code of Conduct
• DCOC/JA is a grouping on maritime matters comprising 18 member states adjoining the Red Sea, Gulf of Aden, the East coast of Africa and Island countries in the IOR.
• The DCOC, established in January 2009, is aimed at the repression of piracy and armed robbery against ships in the Western Indian Ocean Region, the Gulf of Aden and the Red Sea.Provisions of the code
• The Code provides a framework for capacity building in the Gulf of Aden and Western Indian Ocean to combat the threat of piracy.
• It is a partnership of the willing and continues to both deliver against its aims as well as attract increasing membership.
• The Code was signed on January 29 by the representatives of Djibouti, Ethiopia, Kenya, Madagascar, Maldives, Seychelles, Somalia, the United Republic of Tanzania and Yemen.
• Since the meeting, further countries have signed bringing the total to 18 countries from the 21 eligible.Incorrect
Why in news?
India has joined the Djibouti Code of Conduct/ Jeddah Amendment (DCOC/JA) as Observer, following the high-level virtual meeting.Djibouti Code of Conduct
• DCOC/JA is a grouping on maritime matters comprising 18 member states adjoining the Red Sea, Gulf of Aden, the East coast of Africa and Island countries in the IOR.
• The DCOC, established in January 2009, is aimed at the repression of piracy and armed robbery against ships in the Western Indian Ocean Region, the Gulf of Aden and the Red Sea.Provisions of the code
• The Code provides a framework for capacity building in the Gulf of Aden and Western Indian Ocean to combat the threat of piracy.
• It is a partnership of the willing and continues to both deliver against its aims as well as attract increasing membership.
• The Code was signed on January 29 by the representatives of Djibouti, Ethiopia, Kenya, Madagascar, Maldives, Seychelles, Somalia, the United Republic of Tanzania and Yemen.
• Since the meeting, further countries have signed bringing the total to 18 countries from the 21 eligible. -
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following fundamental rights constitute “golden triangle” of rights?
1. Article 14
2. Article 19
3. Article 20
4. Article 21Correct
Why in news?
It was in news due to the death of Keshavananda Bharati.Understanding the Basic Structure doctrine
• Basic Structure and essential features doctrine was expounded in the Kesavananda Bharati case.
• In the case, the validity of the 29th amendment which immunised, in the Ninth Schedule Kerala’s takeover of the religious mutt’s property was challenged.
• Basic structure is the power of judicial review and essential features are what the Court identifies as such in the exercise of that power.
• Justice Bhagwati remarkably enunciated as an essential feature the “harmony” between fundamental rights and directive principles.
• The crucial message though is that the apex court has, in the rarest of rare cases, the constituent power to pronounce a constitutional amendment invalid.Limits on the powers of Supreme Court
• The Court is bound by the “golden triangle” of rights created by Articles 14, 19, and 21 of the Constitution.
• Court must derive the “spirit” of the Constitution by reference to the provisions of the Constitution.
• Since 1973, the evidence shows the Apex Court has shown utmost democratic responsibility and rectitude in interpreting the doctrine of Basic Structure and essential features.Incorrect
Why in news?
It was in news due to the death of Keshavananda Bharati.Understanding the Basic Structure doctrine
• Basic Structure and essential features doctrine was expounded in the Kesavananda Bharati case.
• In the case, the validity of the 29th amendment which immunised, in the Ninth Schedule Kerala’s takeover of the religious mutt’s property was challenged.
• Basic structure is the power of judicial review and essential features are what the Court identifies as such in the exercise of that power.
• Justice Bhagwati remarkably enunciated as an essential feature the “harmony” between fundamental rights and directive principles.
• The crucial message though is that the apex court has, in the rarest of rare cases, the constituent power to pronounce a constitutional amendment invalid.Limits on the powers of Supreme Court
• The Court is bound by the “golden triangle” of rights created by Articles 14, 19, and 21 of the Constitution.
• Court must derive the “spirit” of the Constitution by reference to the provisions of the Constitution.
• Since 1973, the evidence shows the Apex Court has shown utmost democratic responsibility and rectitude in interpreting the doctrine of Basic Structure and essential features.
