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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the schedules of Constitution to what they contain.
1. First Schedule – List of names of All States and Union Territories
2. Second Schedule – Powers of President, Governor and Judges
3. Fourth Schedule – Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha
4. Seventh Schedule – Division of powers between Legislative, Executive and Judiciary
How many of the above is/are correctly matched?Correct
First Schedule — Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction; Names of the Union Territories and their extent.
• Second Schedule — Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of President, Governor, Judges etc.
• Third Schedule — Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for MPs, Ministers, Constitutional functionaries etc.
• Fourth Schedule – Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
• Fifth Schedule – Provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
• Sixth Schedule – Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
• Seventh Schedule – Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List).
• Eighth Schedule – Languages recognized by the Constitution.
• Ninth schedule – Acts & regulation of states dealing with the land reforms & abolition of zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.
• Tenth schedule – Anti-defection provisions
• Eleventh schedule – powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayat
• Twelfth schedule – powers, authority and responsibilities of MunicipalitiesIncorrect
First Schedule — Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction; Names of the Union Territories and their extent.
• Second Schedule — Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of President, Governor, Judges etc.
• Third Schedule — Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for MPs, Ministers, Constitutional functionaries etc.
• Fourth Schedule – Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
• Fifth Schedule – Provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
• Sixth Schedule – Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
• Seventh Schedule – Division of powers between the Union and the States in terms of List I (Union List), List II (State List) and List III (Concurrent List).
• Eighth Schedule – Languages recognized by the Constitution.
• Ninth schedule – Acts & regulation of states dealing with the land reforms & abolition of zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973, are now open to judicial review.
• Tenth schedule – Anti-defection provisions
• Eleventh schedule – powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayat
• Twelfth schedule – powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding North Eastern Council (NEC).
1. NEC established by an Act of Parliament is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region.
2. Minister of Development of NER is the ex-officio Chairman of North Eastern Council.
3. Initially Sikkim was not the part of North Eastern Council and was added to the council in the year 2002.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Correct
North Eastern Council (NEC) was constituted as a statutory advisory body under the NEC Act 1971 and came into being on the 7th November, 1972 at Shillong. The eight States of Northeast India viz. Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim, are members of the council, with their respective Chief Ministers and Governors representing them.
Sikkim was added to the council in the year 2002. In June 2018, the chairmanship of NEC was transferred by Union Cabinet to Home Minister from Minister of Development of NER.Incorrect
North Eastern Council (NEC) was constituted as a statutory advisory body under the NEC Act 1971 and came into being on the 7th November, 1972 at Shillong. The eight States of Northeast India viz. Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim, are members of the council, with their respective Chief Ministers and Governors representing them.
Sikkim was added to the council in the year 2002. In June 2018, the chairmanship of NEC was transferred by Union Cabinet to Home Minister from Minister of Development of NER. -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the role and functions of a Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
1. Speaker is a quasi-judicial body
2. Ultimate interpreter and arbiter of those provisions which relate to the functioning of the House.
3. Sole representative of the House in the international arena.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?Correct
The nature of duties of the Speaker, technically as an “arbiter” or a “quasi-judicial body” should not be limited
exclusively to matters under the Tenth Schedule; rather, it extends to a range of its functions. While facilitating the business of the House and to maintain decorum in the House, the Speaker has ‘extensive functions to perform in matters regulatory, administrative and judicial, falling under her domain. She enjoys vast authority under the Constitution and the Rules, as well as inherently’.
She is the ‘ultimate interpreter and arbiter of those provisions which relate to the functioning of the House. Her decisions are final and binding and ordinarily cannot be easily challenged. She decides the duration of debates, can discipline members and even override decisions by committees. She represents the collective voice of the
House and is the sole representative of the House in the international arena’.Incorrect
The nature of duties of the Speaker, technically as an “arbiter” or a “quasi-judicial body” should not be limited
exclusively to matters under the Tenth Schedule; rather, it extends to a range of its functions. While facilitating the business of the House and to maintain decorum in the House, the Speaker has ‘extensive functions to perform in matters regulatory, administrative and judicial, falling under her domain. She enjoys vast authority under the Constitution and the Rules, as well as inherently’.
She is the ‘ultimate interpreter and arbiter of those provisions which relate to the functioning of the House. Her decisions are final and binding and ordinarily cannot be easily challenged. She decides the duration of debates, can discipline members and even override decisions by committees. She represents the collective voice of the
House and is the sole representative of the House in the international arena’. -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsWhich Act enabled the Governor General to associate representatives of the Indian People with the work of legislation by nominating them to his expanded council?
Correct
Indian Councils Act, 1861, made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the lawmaking process. It thus provided that the viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council.
In 1862, Lord Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council—the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.Incorrect
Indian Councils Act, 1861, made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the lawmaking process. It thus provided that the viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council.
In 1862, Lord Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council—the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao. -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the procedure for Impeachment of President of India.
1. The President in India can be removed on grounds of treason, bribery, high crimes or misdemeanour.
2. The charges of impeachment can be initiated in either house of the Parliament.
3. Till now the impeachment proceeding has been passed only once by the parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?Correct
The president may also be removed before the expiry of the term through impeachment for violating the Constitution of India by the Parliament of India. The process may start in either of the two houses of the parliament. The house initiates the process by levelling the charges against the president. The charges are contained in a notice that has to be signed by at least one-quarter of the total members of that house. The notice is sent up to the president and 14 days later, it is taken up for consideration.
A resolution to impeach the president has to be passed by a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of the originating house. It is then sent to the other house. The other house investigates the charges that have been made. During this process, the president has the right to defend oneself through an authorised counsel. If the second house also approves the charges made by special majority again, the president stands impeached and is deemed to have vacated their office from the date when such a resolution stands
passed. No president has faced impeachment proceedings so the above provisions have never been used.Incorrect
The president may also be removed before the expiry of the term through impeachment for violating the Constitution of India by the Parliament of India. The process may start in either of the two houses of the parliament. The house initiates the process by levelling the charges against the president. The charges are contained in a notice that has to be signed by at least one-quarter of the total members of that house. The notice is sent up to the president and 14 days later, it is taken up for consideration.
A resolution to impeach the president has to be passed by a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of the originating house. It is then sent to the other house. The other house investigates the charges that have been made. During this process, the president has the right to defend oneself through an authorised counsel. If the second house also approves the charges made by special majority again, the president stands impeached and is deemed to have vacated their office from the date when such a resolution stands
passed. No president has faced impeachment proceedings so the above provisions have never been used.
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