statement 1 is incorrect. Eco mark was started in 1991 and is certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards to products conforming to a set of standards aimed at the least impact on the ecosystem.
Explanation-
Eco mark was started in 1991 and is certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards to products conforming to a set of standards aimed at the least impact on the ecosystem.

The objectives of the scheme are :
(i) to reward initiatives of manufacturers to reduce the adverse environmental impact of their products. (ii) to save energy and raw materials by the producers.
(iii) to encourage recycling of waste materials to save raw material as well as to solve problems associated with waste disposal.
(iv) to encourage sustainable management of resources.
(v) to encourage citizens to purchase products which have a less harmful environmental impact, and
(vi) to provide consumers with information to note environmental factors in their purchase decisions.

The Eco-Mark logo represents an earthen pot that symbolises the earth. It represents a man’s inner urge to create and preserve’. Its structure stands for strength and fragility, that characterises the ecosystems. The earthen pot is made of mud, the renewable resource that does not produce hazardous wastes. It consumes little energy.

statement 1 and 3 are not correct. Humus is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate.
EXPLANATION-
o Humification leads to accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous substance called humus. It is the organic component of soil, formed by the decomposition of leaves and other plant material by soil microorganisms. Humus is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate.

o Humus significantly influences the density of soil and contributes to moisture and nutrient retention. Being colloidal in nature it serves as a reservoir of nutrients. It contains many useful nutrients for healthy soil, nitrogen being the most important of all. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

o Soil formation begins with the weathering of humus. The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occur by the process known as mineralisation.

statement 1 is incorrect. Short-wavelength UVC ( NOT UV A) is the most damaging type of UV radiation. However, it is completely filtered by the atmosphere and does not reach the earth’s surface.
Explanation-
o Ozone layer is present in the second layer of atmosphere, Stratosphere. It absorbs ultraviolet radiations and infrared rays from the sun. This leads to heating of Stratosphere and causes temperature inversion, it prevents vertical mixing of pollutants from troposphere to stratosphere.

What is the difference between UVA, UVB and UVC?

The three types of UV radiation are classified according to their wavelength. They differ in their biological activity and the extent to which they can penetrate the skin. The shorter the wavelength, the more harmful the UV radiation. However, shorter wavelength UV radiation is less able to penetrate the skin.

Short-wavelength UVC is the most damaging type of UV radiation. However, it is completely filtered by the atmosphere and does not reach the earth’s surface.

Medium-wavelength UVB is very biologically active but cannot penetrate beyond the superficial skin layers. It is responsible for delayed tanning and burning; in addition to these short-term effects it enhances skin ageing and significantly promotes the development of skin cancer. Most solar UVB is filtered by the atmosphere.

The relatively long-wavelength UVA accounts for approximately 95 per cent of the UV radiation reaching the Earth’s surface. It can penetrate into the deeper layers of the skin and is responsible for the immediate tanning effect. Furthermore, it also contributes to skin ageing and wrinkling. For a long time it was thought that UVA could not cause any lasting damage. Recent studies strongly suggest that it may also enhance the development of skin cancers.

statement 2 is incorrect. Biopiracy is not limited to drug research and development. It can take place in other fields such as agriculture biotechnology also.

Explanation-
o Biopiracy is defined as the privatisation and unauthorised use of biological reserve by entities (including corporations, universities and governments) outside a country which has pre-existing knowledge of rare biological reserves. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

o Agencies indulging in biopiracy illegally claim:
§ Exclusive commercial rights to plants, animals, organs, micro-organisms and genes;
§ Commercialisation of traditional communities’ knowledge on biological resources;
§ Patenting of biological reserves.

Traditional Knowledge Digital Library
• TKDL is an initiative to provide the information on traditional knowledge existing in the country, in languages and format understandable by patent examiners at International Patent Offices ( IPOs), so as to prevent the grant of wrong patents.
• TKDL is a collaborative project of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and the Department of Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy, is situated in Ghaziabad, U.P.
• TKDL acts as a bridge between the traditional knowledge information existing in local languages and the patent examiners at IPOs.
• TKDL is proving to be an effective deterrent against bio-piracy and is being recognized as a global leader in the area of traditional knowledge protection.

Tikdam:
Now statement 1 and 3 looks tough

statement 2 is incorrect. In the aquatic system, the biomass can increase at higher trophic levels. For example, in Oceans, the food chain typically starts with phytoplankton and ends at predatory fish, which has largest biomass. Thus, the pyramid of biomass is inverted in the aquatic systems including marine, ponds etc. Explanation- o A single plant or animal in a parasitic food chain may support numerous parasites, which might be further supporting a larger number of hyperparasites. Thus, the pyramid of numbers in a parasitic food chain is inverted. Hence, statement 1 is correct. o In the aquatic system, the biomass can increase at higher trophic levels. For example, in Oceans, the food chain typically starts with phytoplankton and ends at predatory fish, which has largest biomass. Thus, the pyramid of biomass is inverted in the aquatic systems including marine, ponds etc. o Energy cannot be recycled and during the flow of energy from one trophic level to other, there is a considerable loss in the form of heat, respiration, mechanical energy etc. Highest energy is available to primary producers and lowest to tertiary consumers. Therefore, the pyramid of energy is always upright and vertical. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Genetic Diversity: A single species might show high diversity at the genetic level over its distributional range. India has more than 50,000 genetically different strains of rice and 1000 varieties of mango.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Species Diversity: The diversity at the species level. For example, the Western Ghats have a greater amphibian species diversity than Eastern Ghats.
EXPLANATION-
o In our biosphere heterogeneity exists not only at the species level but all levels of biological organization ranging from macromolecules within cells to biomes. The most important forms of diversity are at the following levels:

Genetic diversity
Genetic diversity is the total number of genetic characteristics in the genetic makeup of a species.
A single species might show high diversity at the genetic level [E.g. Man: Chinese, Indian American, African etc.]. India has more than 50,000 genetically different strains of rice, and 1,000 varieties of mango.
Genetic diversity allows species to adapt to changing environments. This diversity aims to ensure that some species survive drastic changes and thus carry on desirable genes.

Species diversity
It is the ratio of one species population over total number of organisms across all species in the given biome. ‘Zero’ would be infinite diversity, and ‘one’ represents only one species present.
Species diversity is a measure of the diversity within an ecological community that incorporates both species richness (the number of species in a community) and the evenness of species.
For example, the Western Ghats have a greater amphibian species diversity than the Eastern Ghats. There are more than 200000 species in India of which several are confined to India (endemic).

Ecological diversity
Ecological diversity refers to the different types of habitats. A habitat is the cumulative factor of the climate, vegetation and geography of a region.
It includes various biological zones, like lake, desert, coast, estuaries, wetlands, mangroves, coral reefs etc.
At the ecosystem level, India, for instance, with its deserts, rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries, and alpine meadows has a greater ecosystem diversity than a Scandinavian country like Norway.

Functional Diversity:

a) Functional diversity refers to the diversity of ecological processes that maintain and are dependent upon the other components of diversity.
b) Functional diversity includes the many ecological interactions among species e.g. competition, predation, parasitism, mutualism, etc. as well as ecological processes such as nutrient retention and recycling.
c) It also includes the varying tempos and intensities of natural disturbances that many species and communities require if they are to persist.

EXPLANATION
GLobal Warming Potential (GWP)
Each gas’ effect on climate change depends on three main factors:

How Much
How long
How Powerful
Last 2 factors together determine global warming potential

o Carbon dioxide, by definition, has a GWP of 1 as it is used as the reference.
Methane is known to trap heat five times more effectively than Carbon dioxide.
Nitrous oxide is 230 times more efficient in global warming than Carbon dioxide.
Greenhouse potential of Chlorofluorocarbons can be in the thousands or tens of thousands and are responsible for 15 to 20 percent of the global warming.

STATEMENT 1 IS INCORRECT. Biomagnification refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next.
EXPLANATION-
Biomagnification
Biomagnification refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next.
Thus in biomagnification there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another.
In order for biomagnification to occur, the pollutant must be: long-lived, mobile, soluble in fats, biologically active. E.g. DDT.
If a pollutant is short-lived, it will be broken down before it can become dangerous.
If it is not mobile, it will stay in one place and is unlikely to be taken up by organisms.
If the pollutant is soluble in water, it will be excreted by the organism. Pollutants that dissolve in fats, however, may be retained for a long time.
It is traditional to measure the amount of pollutants in fatty tissues of organisms such as fish.
In mammals, we often test the milk produced by females, since the milk has a lot of fat in it and is often more susceptible to damage from toxins (poisons).

Bio-accumulation refers to increase in concentration of a substance in certain tissues of organism’s body. While Bioaccumulation occurs when an organism absorbs a toxic substance from all sources at a rate greater than that at which the substance is lost. Bioconcentration occurs when an organism absorbs a toxic substance from ONLY Water at a rate greater than that at which the substance is lost.

Here, we note that Bioaccumulation and Bioconcentration are synonymous except the difference of the source. Both Bioaccumulation and Bioconcentration occur in the same organism. However, Biomagnification occurs across various trophic levels in a food chain.

STATEMENT 2 IS INCORRECT. The Kyoto Protocol of 1997 is an international treaty with main focus on reducing green house gas emissions to curb global warming. Hence, it is not correct.
EXPLANATION-
o The Vienna Conference was the first international conference on ozone layer depletion. It was held
in Vienna, Austria in 1985 when a hole in the stratospheric ozone layer was observed in the South Pole.
o Through the Montreal Protocol convention in 1987 developed countries decided to reduce
chlorofluorocarbons production, which is an ozone depleting material, production step by step. Some
relaxations were provided to developing countries.
o The Helsinki Conference of 1989 was held to revise the Montreal Protocol. There it was agreed to have a total ban by 2000 on chemicals that cause ozone depletion.
o The Kyoto Protocol of 1997 is an international treaty with main focus on reducing green house
gas emissions to curb global warming.

ALL STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT.
EXPLANATION-
o Ecological Pyramids express the food or energy relationship between organisms at different trophic level.
This, relationship is expressed in terms of number, biomass or energy. The base of each pyramid
represents the producers or the first trophic level while the apex represents tertiary or top level consumer.
The three ecological pyramids that are usually studied are (a) pyramid of number; (b) pyramid of biomass and (c) pyramid of energy.
o However, there are certain limitations of ecological pyramids:
 it does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
 It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never exists in nature; it does not
accommodate a food web.
 Moreover, saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids even though they play a
vital role in the ecosystem.

statement 1 is not correct-It is made up of decomposers which are heterotrophic organisms, mainly fungi and bacteria.
statement 2 is not correct- Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels
explanation-
o Death of organism is the beginning of the detritus food chain/web. It is made up of decomposers
which are heterotrophic organisms, mainly fungi and bacteria. They meet their energy and nutrient
requirements by degrading dead organic matter or detritus. These are also known as saprotrophs.
Decomposers secrete digestive enzymes that breakdown dead and waste materials into simple, inorganic materials, which are subsequently absorbed by them. The green plant in the ecosystem-terminology are called producers. Grazing food chain begins with green plants where primary consumers are herbivores. The chain or web is formed because of this interdependency. No energy that is trapped into an organism remains in it for ever. The energy trapped by the producer, hence, is either passed on to a consumer or the organism dies.

o Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels: some of the
organisms of detritus food chain are prey to the grazing food chain animals, and in a natural ecosystem,
some animals like cockroaches, crows, etc., are omnivores. These natural interconnection of food chains
make it a food web.

statement 1 is not correct.Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants (producers) during photosynthesis.
EXPLANATION-

o A constant input of solar energy is the basic requirement for any ecosystem to function and
sustain. Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit
area over a time period by plants (producers) during photosynthesis.

In Secondary productivity new organic matter is formed by consumers. To compare the
productivity of different ecosystems. It can be divided into gross primary productivity (GPP) and net
primary productivity (NPP).

o Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during
photosynthesis. A considerable amount of GPP is utilised by plants in respiration. Gross primary
productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP).o Primary productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area. It also depends on a variety of environmental factors, availability of nutrients and photosynthetic capacity of plants. And it varies in different types of ecosystems. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

statement 2,3 and 4 are incorrect.  Gaseous cycle: The element is mainly stored in the earth’s atmosphere where it exists as a gas in gaseous cycle. Example- nitrogen, oxygen, carbon, and water
EXPLANATION-
o Nutrient Cycle is also known as biogeochemical cycle. Environmental factors like soil, moisture,
temperature, etc. regulate the rate of release of nutrients into the atmosphere. Nutrients are never lost from the ecosystem; they are recycled time and again indefinitely. There are two types:
 Gaseous cycle: The element is mainly stored in the earth’s atmosphere where it exists as a gas in
gaseous cycle. Example- nitrogen, oxygen, carbon, and water
 Sedimentary cycle: This cycle have the earth’s crust as the main storage area for their elements. Example- Phosphorus, sulfur, and other more-earthbound element.

EXPLANATION-
o In parasitism, one organism, the parasite, derives nourishment from another organism, its host, which is harmed in the process. Parasites live on or in their hosts; often for long periods of time. Hence, Option (A) is not correct.

o Competition is the conflict between organisms for a limited essential resource. competition for limited
resources can occur between individuals of different species, and it can occur between individuals of
the same species. The first kind of competition is called interspecific competition, or between-species
competition, and the second kind is called intraspecific competition, or within-species competition. Hence, Option (B) is not correct.

o An interaction where one species benefits and the other remains unaffected is known
as commensalism. As an example, cattle egrets and brown-headed cowbirds forage in close association
with cattle and horses, feeding on insects flushed by the movement of the livestock. The birds benefit
from this relationship, but the livestock generally do not. Hence, Option (C) is not correct.

o Antibiosis refers to the production of secretions by an organism which is harmful to others. In this interaction none of the species in benefited. For example, some species of blue green algae produce toxins in ponds that kill fishes and the cattle who drink that water. Hence, Option (D) is correct.

Ecocline (ecological gradient): A gradation from one ecosystem to another when there is no sharp boundary between the two. It is the joint expression of associated community (coenocline) and complex environmental gradients. o Ecotone: An ecotone is a transition area between two biomes. It is where two communities meet and integrate. It may be narrow or wide, and it may be local (the zone between a field and forest) or regional (the transition between forest and grassland ecosystems). o Ecotype: In evolutionary ecology, an ecotype, sometimes called ecospecies, describes a genetically distinct geographic variety, population or race within a species, which is adapted to specific environmental conditions. They typically show morphological differences. o An ecological niche is the role and position a species has in its environment; how it meets its needs for food and shelter, how it survives, and how it reproduces. A species’ niche includes all of its interactions with the biotic and abiotic factors of its environment. No two species have identical niches.

EXPLANATION- Renewable Methanol by capturing Carbon dioxide back from the atmosphere is becoming very popular and is seen by the world as an enduring energy solution. Hence, option 1 is correct. China alone produces 65% of world’s Methanol and it uses its coal to produce Methanol. Hence, option 2 is correct. Methanol is also produced by breaking down natural gas at high temperatures into hydrogen gas and carbon monoxide before reassembling them- processes known as ‗steam reforming‘ and ‗methanol synthesis‘ Hence, option 3 is correct. NitiAayog plans to set up a Methanol Economy Fund worth Rs 4,000-5,000 crore to promote production and use of the clean fuel. The government think tank is aiming at generation of the fuel by converting high ash content coal into methanol and such a plant is expected to be set up by Coal India. Methanol can be used as an energy producing fuel, transportation fuel and cooking fuel, cutting down India‘s oil import bill by an estimated 20 per cent over the next few years.

Statement 1 is not correct – They are notified by the State Government. NBA is responsible for issuing guidelines for selection and management of the BHS. Statement 3 is not correct – It is not mandatory that site must be free from the human association. These sites are selected generally after the suggestions of local communities, gram sabha, tribal councils etc. So it evident that communities have some direct or indirect association with such sites for which they wish to conserve the site as Biodiversity Heritage Sites. EXPLANATION- Biodiversity Heritage Sites- They are well-defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems – terrestrial, coastal, inland waters and marine. They have rich biodiversity comprising of any one or more of the following components: richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories, high endemism, presence of rare and threatened species, keystone species, species of evolutionary significance, wild ancestors of domestic/ cultivated species or their varieties, past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds and having significant cultural, ethical or aesthetic values They are important for the maintenance of cultural diversity, with or without a long history of human association with them. Statement 2 is correct – Biodiversity Heritage Sites are declared under Biological Diversity Act, 2002 (Section 37 ). They are notified by the State Government in consultation with local bodies and National Biodiversity Authority.

Statement 1 is not correct: The phrase critical wildlife habitat‘ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife (Protection) Act,1972.

EXPLANATION-
Statement 2 is correct: CWLHs are such areas of the National Parks and Sanctuaries that are required to
be kept as “inviolate” (undamaged or free) for the purpose of wildlife conservation as determined and
notified by the MoE&F, after an open process of consultation by an Expert Committee. Such areas are to
be clearly identified on case-to-case basis following scientific and objective criteria and only after settling the rights of tribals and other traditional forest dwellers.

Statement 3 is correct: The identification and declaration of CWLHs are two distinct processes. While
the identification of an area required for betterment of wildlife conservation is purely a scientific exercise to be carried out by the Forest Departments on a case-to-case basis in consultation with the scientific institutions (the criteria for identification of CWLHs have to be site-specific), its notification is to be done only after extensive consultations (means consent) with the Gram Sabha and the affected
persons/stakeholders.

EXPLANATION-
An indicator species is any biological species that defines a trait or characteristic of the environment. Indicator species are ideal for biomonitoring. A species may indicate an environmental
condition such as a disease outbreak, pollution, species competition or climate change. Examples include the following:
o Stoneflies: indicate high oxygen levels in water
o Mosses and fungi: indicate acidic soil.
o Greasewood: indicates saline soil
o Lichens: some species indicate low air pollution
o Molluscs: some molluscs indicate water pollution status
o Tubifex worms: indicate non-potable, stagnant, oxygen-poor water.
o River otter are an important indicator species as to the quality of habitats where they are found. This is because the otter is a strict carnivore and contaminants that occur in the environment may concentrate in the otter over time in a process known as biomagnification.
o Sparrow being very sensitive to changes in the environment, is one of the most preferred indicator species of urban ecosystems. A stable house sparrow population indicates a healthy ecosystem for human beings in terms of air and water quality, vegetation and other parameters of habitat quality

STATEMENT 1 IS INCORRECT. It is State governments can declare any area owned by the government particularly the areas adjacent to national parks and other protected areas as conservation reserves.
EXPLANATION-

State governments can declare any area owned by the government particularly the areas adjacent to national parks and other protected areas as conservation reserves. Such declaration should be made after having consultantions with the local communities. On the other hand, state government can declare any private or community land not comprised with in national parks, sanctuaries or conservation reserves as community reserve.

Statement 2 is correct: Conservation Reserves are declared for the purpose of protecting landscapes,
seascapes, flora and fauna and their habitat. The rights of people living inside a conservation reserves are
not affected.

Statement 3 is correct: Community and Conservation reserves are declared under the provisions of
Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.