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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 points“Q1. Consider the following statements with respect to non-ionising radiations.
1. They have low penetrating power.
2. They may cause snow blindness.
3. They include X-rays, cosmic rays and atomic radiations.
Select the correct code from the codes goven below.”Correct
“• Radioactivity is a phenomenon of spontaneous emission
of proton (a-particles), electrons (ß-particles) and
gamma rays (short wave electromagnetic waves) due to
disintegration of atomic nuclei of some elements. These
cause radioactive pollution.Radiations are of two types with regard to the mode of
their action on cells.
1. Non-ionising radiations:
• They include short-wave radiations such as ultraviolet
rays, which forms a part of solar radiation.
• They have low penetrating power and affect the cells
and molecules which absorb them.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• They damage eyes which may be caused by reflections
from coastal sand, snow (snow blindness), directly looking
towards sun during eclipse.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• They injure the cells of skin and blood capillaries producing
blisters and reddening called sunburns.
2. Ionising radiations.
• They include X-rays, cosmic rays and atomic radiations
(radiations emitted by radioactive elements).
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Ionising radiations have high penetration power and
cause breakage of macro molecules.
• The molecular damage may produce short range
(immediate) or long range (delayed) effects.
i. Short range effects include burns, impaired metabolism,
dead tissues and death of the organisms.
ii. Long range effects are mutations increased incidence
of tumors and cancer, shortening of life-span and developmental
changes.
iii. The mutated gene can persist in living organisms and
may affect their progeny.
• The actively dividing cells such as Embryo, foetus, cells
of skin, intestinal lining, bone marrow and gamete
forming cells are more sensitive to radiations.
• Some species of animals and plants preferentially
accumulate specific radioactive materials. For example, oysters deposit 65Zn, fish accumulate 55Fe, marine animals selectively deposit 90Sr.”Incorrect
“• Radioactivity is a phenomenon of spontaneous emission
of proton (a-particles), electrons (ß-particles) and
gamma rays (short wave electromagnetic waves) due to
disintegration of atomic nuclei of some elements. These
cause radioactive pollution.Radiations are of two types with regard to the mode of
their action on cells.
1. Non-ionising radiations:
• They include short-wave radiations such as ultraviolet
rays, which forms a part of solar radiation.
• They have low penetrating power and affect the cells
and molecules which absorb them.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• They damage eyes which may be caused by reflections
from coastal sand, snow (snow blindness), directly looking
towards sun during eclipse.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• They injure the cells of skin and blood capillaries producing
blisters and reddening called sunburns.
2. Ionising radiations.
• They include X-rays, cosmic rays and atomic radiations
(radiations emitted by radioactive elements).
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Ionising radiations have high penetration power and
cause breakage of macro molecules.
• The molecular damage may produce short range
(immediate) or long range (delayed) effects.
i. Short range effects include burns, impaired metabolism,
dead tissues and death of the organisms.
ii. Long range effects are mutations increased incidence
of tumors and cancer, shortening of life-span and developmental
changes.
iii. The mutated gene can persist in living organisms and
may affect their progeny.
• The actively dividing cells such as Embryo, foetus, cells
of skin, intestinal lining, bone marrow and gamete
forming cells are more sensitive to radiations.
• Some species of animals and plants preferentially
accumulate specific radioactive materials. For example, oysters deposit 65Zn, fish accumulate 55Fe, marine animals selectively deposit 90Sr.” -
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 points“Q2. Which of the following statement/s is/are correcr in context to polarization?
1. Polarization is a property of light that represents the direction that the light wave oscillates.
2. It helps in inferring the presence of clouds.”Correct
“Why in News
Recently, a group of astrophysicists have found that
the closest known brown dwarf, Luhman 16A shows
signs of cloud bands similar to those seen on Jupiter and
Saturn.
They used the technique of polarimetry to determine
the properties of atmospheric clouds outside of the
solar system.Polarimetry
• The concept of polarimetry technique was put forth
by Indian astrophysicist Sujan Sengupta, that the light
emitted by a cloudy brown dwarf, or reflected off
an extrasolar planet, will be polarised.
• Polarimetry is the study of polarization. Polarization
is a property of light that represents the direction
that the light wave oscillates.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• When light is reflected off of particles it can favor
a certain angle of polarization. By measuring the
preferred polarization of light from a distant system,
astronomers can deduce the presence of clouds.
(Hence, statement 2 is correct).
However, in case of Luhman 16A, the researchers
have found the actual structure of the clouds (not
only their presence).
• The polarimetry technique isn’t limited to brown
dwarfs. It can also be applied to exoplanets orbiting
distant stars, or even stars. However, light from brown
dwarfs is ideal for the study.”Incorrect
“Why in News
Recently, a group of astrophysicists have found that
the closest known brown dwarf, Luhman 16A shows
signs of cloud bands similar to those seen on Jupiter and
Saturn.
They used the technique of polarimetry to determine
the properties of atmospheric clouds outside of the
solar system.Polarimetry
• The concept of polarimetry technique was put forth
by Indian astrophysicist Sujan Sengupta, that the light
emitted by a cloudy brown dwarf, or reflected off
an extrasolar planet, will be polarised.
• Polarimetry is the study of polarization. Polarization
is a property of light that represents the direction
that the light wave oscillates.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• When light is reflected off of particles it can favor
a certain angle of polarization. By measuring the
preferred polarization of light from a distant system,
astronomers can deduce the presence of clouds.
(Hence, statement 2 is correct).
However, in case of Luhman 16A, the researchers
have found the actual structure of the clouds (not
only their presence).
• The polarimetry technique isn’t limited to brown
dwarfs. It can also be applied to exoplanets orbiting
distant stars, or even stars. However, light from brown
dwarfs is ideal for the study.” -
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 points“Q3. Identify the correct statement/s with respect to Luhman 16 recently seen in news?
1. It consists of a pair of brown dwarfs.
2. It is the third closest system to the Sun.”Correct
–
Incorrect
–
-
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 points“Q4. Select the correct statement/s with reference to African swine fever sometimes seen in news.
1. It is a non-contagious and curable disease .
2. It spreads very rapidly from humans to humans.
3. It mainly affects domestic and wild pigs.”Correct
“Why in News
The Centre has advised the Assam state government
to go for culling of pigs affected by the African Swine
Fever (ASF).African Swine Fever
• It is a highly contagious and fatal animal disease that infects and leads to an acute form of hemorrhagic fever in domestic and wild pigs. The mortality is close to 100% and since the fever has no cure, the only way to stop its spread is by culling
the animals. Hence, statements 1 is incorrect while the 3rd statement is correct.
• It was first detected in Africa in the 1920s.
• ASF is not a threat to human beings since it only spreads from animals to other animals.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• ASF is a disease listed in the World Organisation for
Animal Health (OIE) Terrestrial Animal Health Code
and thus, reported to the OIE.”Incorrect
“Why in News
The Centre has advised the Assam state government
to go for culling of pigs affected by the African Swine
Fever (ASF).African Swine Fever
• It is a highly contagious and fatal animal disease that infects and leads to an acute form of hemorrhagic fever in domestic and wild pigs. The mortality is close to 100% and since the fever has no cure, the only way to stop its spread is by culling
the animals. Hence, statements 1 is incorrect while the 3rd statement is correct.
• It was first detected in Africa in the 1920s.
• ASF is not a threat to human beings since it only spreads from animals to other animals.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• ASF is a disease listed in the World Organisation for
Animal Health (OIE) Terrestrial Animal Health Code
and thus, reported to the OIE.” -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 points“Q5. Which of the following are advantages of carbon nanomaterials based supercapacitors?
1. High energy density
2. High power density
3. Energy storage
4. Cost-effective”Correct
“Why in News
Recently, a group of researchers (including a recipient
of the INSPIRE Faculty Award) have made significant
achievements in developing nanomaterials based supercapacitors to achieve high energy density and power
density of supercapacitors.Nanomaterials Based Supercapacitors:
• The researchers have been working on carbon
(Carbon Nanotubes, Graphene) nanomaterials
based supercapacitors to achieve high energy
density and power density of supercapacitors.
• High energy density of supercapacitors suggests
that constant current can be withdrawn for a longer
duration without recharging. Hence automobiles
can run longer distances without charging.
• Thus, researchers have developed a reduced
graphene oxide (rGO) at a moderate temperature
of 100°C with high capacitance performance. It is
cost-effective and suitable for commercial purposes.
• The focus on energy devices paves the way for
the development of cost-effective and efficient
devices, which can be used for energy storage
application.”Incorrect
“Why in News
Recently, a group of researchers (including a recipient
of the INSPIRE Faculty Award) have made significant
achievements in developing nanomaterials based supercapacitors to achieve high energy density and power
density of supercapacitors.Nanomaterials Based Supercapacitors:
• The researchers have been working on carbon
(Carbon Nanotubes, Graphene) nanomaterials
based supercapacitors to achieve high energy
density and power density of supercapacitors.
• High energy density of supercapacitors suggests
that constant current can be withdrawn for a longer
duration without recharging. Hence automobiles
can run longer distances without charging.
• Thus, researchers have developed a reduced
graphene oxide (rGO) at a moderate temperature
of 100°C with high capacitance performance. It is
cost-effective and suitable for commercial purposes.
• The focus on energy devices paves the way for
the development of cost-effective and efficient
devices, which can be used for energy storage
application.” -
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 points“Q6. Which of the fllowing countries are collaborating in International Space Station (ISS) programme?
1. United States
2. Russia
3. Japan
4. China”Correct
“Why in News
Recently, China has successfully launched the Long
March 5B’ rocket and prototype spacecraft.International Space Station (ISS)
• ISS is a habitable artificial satellite – the single
largest man-made structure in low earth orbit. Its
first component was launched into orbit in 1998.
• It circles the Earth in roughly 92 minutes and
completes 15.5 orbits per day.
• The ISS programme is a joint project between five
participating space agencies: NASA (United States),
Roscosmos (Russia), JAXA (Japan), ESA (Europe),
and CSA (Canada) but its ownership and use has
been established by intergovernmental treaties
and agreements.
• It serves as a microgravity and space environment
research laboratory in which crew members conduct
experiments in biology, human biology, physics,
astronomy, meteorology, and other fields.
• Continuous presence at ISS has resulted in the longest
continuous human presence in the low earth orbit.
• It is expected to operate until 2030”Incorrect
“Why in News
Recently, China has successfully launched the Long
March 5B’ rocket and prototype spacecraft.International Space Station (ISS)
• ISS is a habitable artificial satellite – the single
largest man-made structure in low earth orbit. Its
first component was launched into orbit in 1998.
• It circles the Earth in roughly 92 minutes and
completes 15.5 orbits per day.
• The ISS programme is a joint project between five
participating space agencies: NASA (United States),
Roscosmos (Russia), JAXA (Japan), ESA (Europe),
and CSA (Canada) but its ownership and use has
been established by intergovernmental treaties
and agreements.
• It serves as a microgravity and space environment
research laboratory in which crew members conduct
experiments in biology, human biology, physics,
astronomy, meteorology, and other fields.
• Continuous presence at ISS has resulted in the longest
continuous human presence in the low earth orbit.
• It is expected to operate until 2030” -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsQ7. Stringency Index recently seen in news is realted to:
Correct
“Why in News
The Oxford University has created a Stringency Index
which shows how strict a country’s measures were and
at what stage of the Covid-19 spread, it enforced these.Stringency Index
• The Government Response Stringency Index is a
composite measure based on various response
indicators including school and workplace closures,
stay-at-home policies and travel bans, rescaled to a
value from 0 to 100.
• A higher index score indicates a higher level of
stringency (100 = strictest response).
• It is among the metrics used by the Oxford Coronavirus
Government Response Tracker (OxCGRT).
• The Tracker has a team of 100 Oxford community
members who update a database of 17 indicators of
government response.”Incorrect
“Why in News
The Oxford University has created a Stringency Index
which shows how strict a country’s measures were and
at what stage of the Covid-19 spread, it enforced these.Stringency Index
• The Government Response Stringency Index is a
composite measure based on various response
indicators including school and workplace closures,
stay-at-home policies and travel bans, rescaled to a
value from 0 to 100.
• A higher index score indicates a higher level of
stringency (100 = strictest response).
• It is among the metrics used by the Oxford Coronavirus
Government Response Tracker (OxCGRT).
• The Tracker has a team of 100 Oxford community
members who update a database of 17 indicators of
government response.” -
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsQ8. Select the correct statement/s from the following statements.
1. Both Covid-19 and Swine flu are caused due to viruses from non-human hosts.
2. Both are respiratory viruses that spread through contact.Correct
Why in News
Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Delhi and Tamil
Nadu account for about 70% of India’s confirmed Covid-19
cases till now.
• Data from the Health Ministry’s National Centre for
Disease Control (NCDC), show that these are also the
states which consistently accounted for the majority
of Swine Flu (H1N1) cases, since 2015.Parallels between Covid-19 and Swine Flu
• Both are caused due to pathogens that trace their
origins to viruses from non-human hosts even
though they belong to different families.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Both are respiratory viruses that spread through
contact.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Both infiltrate the lungs and cause characteristic
pulmonary infections but they have varying lethality.
• Swine flu infections have a higher case fatality
rate (deaths per confirmed cases) and can cause
significant deaths in children as well as those
less than 60.
• Covid-19 is relatively more dangerous to those
above 60 and almost harmless in children.
However, due to lack of sufficient research,
it cannot be said which age group is safer or
not.
• High number of Covid-19 and Swine Flu cases
have been observed in Gujarat and Maharashtra.
• The relative dominance of these diseases can
be attributed to the migration for work.Incorrect
Why in News
Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Delhi and Tamil
Nadu account for about 70% of India’s confirmed Covid-19
cases till now.
• Data from the Health Ministry’s National Centre for
Disease Control (NCDC), show that these are also the
states which consistently accounted for the majority
of Swine Flu (H1N1) cases, since 2015.Parallels between Covid-19 and Swine Flu
• Both are caused due to pathogens that trace their
origins to viruses from non-human hosts even
though they belong to different families.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Both are respiratory viruses that spread through
contact.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Both infiltrate the lungs and cause characteristic
pulmonary infections but they have varying lethality.
• Swine flu infections have a higher case fatality
rate (deaths per confirmed cases) and can cause
significant deaths in children as well as those
less than 60.
• Covid-19 is relatively more dangerous to those
above 60 and almost harmless in children.
However, due to lack of sufficient research,
it cannot be said which age group is safer or
not.
• High number of Covid-19 and Swine Flu cases
have been observed in Gujarat and Maharashtra.
• The relative dominance of these diseases can
be attributed to the migration for work. -
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsQ9. Consider the following statements in context to “happy hypoxia” sometimes seen in news.
1. This condition is characterized by extremely low blood oxygen levels in humans.
2. Such patients show signs of breathlessness.
3. Patients with such a condition live in great distress.
Select the correct code from the codes given below.Correct
Why in News
Amidst the ongoing Covid-19 pandemic, medical
practitioners have reported a condition called silent or
happy hypoxia, in which patients have extremely low
blood oxygen levels, yet they do not show signs of
breathlessness.
Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.Silent Hypoxia
• It is a form of oxygen deprivation that is harder
to detect than regular hypoxis because patients
appear to be less in distress.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Covid pneumonia, a serious medical condition
found in severe Covid-19 patients, is preceded
by silent hypoxia.
• Many Covid-19 patients with oxygen levels below
80% look at ease and alert. There have been a few
cases of oxygen levels below 50% as well.
• Those with such low levels of oxygen would
normally appear extremely ill but not in silent
hypoxia cases.
• In many cases, Covid-19 patients with silent
hypoxia did not exhibit symptoms such as shortness
of breath or coughing until their oxygen fell
to acutely low levels, at which point there was
a risk of acute respiratory distress (ARDS) and
organ failure.Incorrect
Why in News
Amidst the ongoing Covid-19 pandemic, medical
practitioners have reported a condition called silent or
happy hypoxia, in which patients have extremely low
blood oxygen levels, yet they do not show signs of
breathlessness.
Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.Silent Hypoxia
• It is a form of oxygen deprivation that is harder
to detect than regular hypoxis because patients
appear to be less in distress.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Covid pneumonia, a serious medical condition
found in severe Covid-19 patients, is preceded
by silent hypoxia.
• Many Covid-19 patients with oxygen levels below
80% look at ease and alert. There have been a few
cases of oxygen levels below 50% as well.
• Those with such low levels of oxygen would
normally appear extremely ill but not in silent
hypoxia cases.
• In many cases, Covid-19 patients with silent
hypoxia did not exhibit symptoms such as shortness
of breath or coughing until their oxygen fell
to acutely low levels, at which point there was
a risk of acute respiratory distress (ARDS) and
organ failure. -
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsQ10. “COBAS 6800” recently seen in news is a: Correct
Why in News
The Union Health Minister inaugurated the first
automated coronavirus testing device named ‘COBAS
6800’.
• This is the first such testing machine that has been
procured by the Government for testing of Covid-19
cases and is installed at the National Centre for
Disease Control (NCDC).Key Points
• COBAS 6800 is a fully automated, high end machine
for performing Real Time Polymerase Chain Reaction
(RT-PCR) testing for Covid-19.
• It will provide quality, high-volume testing as it can
test around 1200 samples in 24 hours.
This will largely increase the testing capacity in
the country.
• It is a sophisticated machine enabled with robotics
that minimizes the chance of contamination as well
as the risk of infection to the health care workers.
• The machine requires a minimum Biosafety Level
2 (BSL2+) containment level for testing, thus it was
placed at the NCDC.
• BSL2+ covers laboratories that work with agents
associated with human diseases (i.e. pathogenic
or infectious organisms) that pose a moderate
health hazard.
• The device can also detect other pathogens like Viral
Hepatitis B & C, HIV (Human Immunodeficiency
Virus), Mycobacterium Tuberculosis, Papilloma,
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection, Chlamydia (a
bacterial infection), Neisseria (bacteria) etc.Incorrect
Why in News
The Union Health Minister inaugurated the first
automated coronavirus testing device named ‘COBAS
6800’.
• This is the first such testing machine that has been
procured by the Government for testing of Covid-19
cases and is installed at the National Centre for
Disease Control (NCDC).Key Points
• COBAS 6800 is a fully automated, high end machine
for performing Real Time Polymerase Chain Reaction
(RT-PCR) testing for Covid-19.
• It will provide quality, high-volume testing as it can
test around 1200 samples in 24 hours.
This will largely increase the testing capacity in
the country.
• It is a sophisticated machine enabled with robotics
that minimizes the chance of contamination as well
as the risk of infection to the health care workers.
• The machine requires a minimum Biosafety Level
2 (BSL2+) containment level for testing, thus it was
placed at the NCDC.
• BSL2+ covers laboratories that work with agents
associated with human diseases (i.e. pathogenic
or infectious organisms) that pose a moderate
health hazard.
• The device can also detect other pathogens like Viral
Hepatitis B & C, HIV (Human Immunodeficiency
Virus), Mycobacterium Tuberculosis, Papilloma,
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection, Chlamydia (a
bacterial infection), Neisseria (bacteria) etc. -
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsQ11. Identify the correct statement/s from those given below.
1. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA.
2. Endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA.Correct
• In the year 1963, the two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth
of bacteriophage in Escherichia coli were isolated. One of these added
methyl groups to DNA, while the other cut DNA. The later was called
restriction endonuclease.
• Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes called
nucleases. These are of two kinds; exonucleases and endonucleases.
• Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA whereas,
endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA.
Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.Incorrect
• In the year 1963, the two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth
of bacteriophage in Escherichia coli were isolated. One of these added
methyl groups to DNA, while the other cut DNA. The later was called
restriction endonuclease.
• Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes called
nucleases. These are of two kinds; exonucleases and endonucleases.
• Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA whereas,
endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA.
Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct. -
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsQ12. Conisder the following statements.
1. The fragments of DNA can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis.
2. DNA fragments are positively charged molecules.
3. The most commonly used matrix to separate DNA is agarose.
Select the correct code from the codes given below.Correct
Separation and isolation of DNA fragments :
• The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragments of DNA.
These fragments can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Since DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules they can be separated by forcing them to move towards the anode under an electric field through a medium/matrix.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Nowadays the most commonly used matrix is agarose
which is a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through
sieving effect provided by the agarose gel. Hence, the smaller the fragment
size, the farther it moves.Incorrect
Separation and isolation of DNA fragments :
• The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragments of DNA.
These fragments can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Since DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules they can be separated by forcing them to move towards the anode under an electric field through a medium/matrix.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Nowadays the most commonly used matrix is agarose
which is a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through
sieving effect provided by the agarose gel. Hence, the smaller the fragment
size, the farther it moves. -
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsQ13. Select the correct statement/s from those given below.
1. Typhoid fever is caused by a virus called Salmonella typhi.
2. Widal test can be used to confirm typhoid fever.Correct
• Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which causes typhoid
fever in human beings.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• These pathogens generally enter the small intestine through food and
water contaminated with them and migrate to other organs through blood.
• Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, stomach pain, constipation,
headache and loss of appetite are some of the common symptoms of this
disease. Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases.
• Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.Incorrect
• Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which causes typhoid
fever in human beings.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• These pathogens generally enter the small intestine through food and
water contaminated with them and migrate to other organs through blood.
• Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, stomach pain, constipation,
headache and loss of appetite are some of the common symptoms of this
disease. Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases.
• Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test.
Hence, statement 2 is correct. -
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsQ14. Identify the correct statements.
1. Elephantiasis is a disease caused by filarial worms known as Wuchereria.
2. It leads to chronic inflammation of the organs.
3. The pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person through the bite by the female mosquito vectors.Correct
• Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi), the filarial
worms cause a slowly developing chronic inflammation
of the organs in which they live for many years, usually
the lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and the disease
is called elephantiasis or filariasis.
Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• The genital organs are also often affected, resulting in gross
deformities.
• The pathogens are transmitted to a healthy
person through the bite by the female mosquito vectors.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.Incorrect
• Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi), the filarial
worms cause a slowly developing chronic inflammation
of the organs in which they live for many years, usually
the lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and the disease
is called elephantiasis or filariasis.
Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• The genital organs are also often affected, resulting in gross
deformities.
• The pathogens are transmitted to a healthy
person through the bite by the female mosquito vectors.
Hence, statement 3 is correct. -
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsQ15. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect ot innate immunity?
1. Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence, that is present at the time of birth.
2. It is pathogen specific and has a memory.Correct
• The overall ability of the host to fight the disease-causing organisms,
conferred by the immune system is called immunity.
• Immunity is of two types: (i) Innate immunity and (ii) Acquired
immunity.
(i) Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence, that is present at the
time of birth.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This is accomplished by providing different types of barriers
to the entry of the foreign agents into our body.
(ii) Acquired immunity, on the other hand is pathogen specific.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is characterised by memory. This means when our body encounters a
pathogen for the first time it produces a response called primary
response which is of low intensity. Subsequent encounter with the same
pathogen elicits a highly intensified secondary or anamnestic response.
This is ascribed to the fact that our body appears to have memory of the
first encounter.Incorrect
• The overall ability of the host to fight the disease-causing organisms,
conferred by the immune system is called immunity.
• Immunity is of two types: (i) Innate immunity and (ii) Acquired
immunity.
(i) Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence, that is present at the
time of birth.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This is accomplished by providing different types of barriers
to the entry of the foreign agents into our body.
(ii) Acquired immunity, on the other hand is pathogen specific.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is characterised by memory. This means when our body encounters a
pathogen for the first time it produces a response called primary
response which is of low intensity. Subsequent encounter with the same
pathogen elicits a highly intensified secondary or anamnestic response.
This is ascribed to the fact that our body appears to have memory of the
first encounter. -
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 pointsQ16. Identify the correct statements with respect to prokaryotic cells.
1. They multiply more rapidly than the eukaryotic cells.
2. All prokaryotes generally have a cell wall surrounding the cell membrane.
3. They lack a well-defined nucleus.Correct
• The prokaryotic cells are represented by bacteria, blue-green algae,
mycoplasma and PPLO (Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms).
• They are generally smaller and multiply more rapidly than the eukaryotic cells.
• They may vary greatly in shape and size.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The four basic shapes of bacteria are bacillus (rod like), coccus (spherical),
vibrio (comma shaped) and spirillum (spiral).
• All prokaryotes have a cell wall surrounding the cell membrane except in
mycoplasma. The fluid matrix filling the cell is the cytoplasm.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• There is no well-defined nucleus. The genetic material is basically naked,
not enveloped by a nuclear membrane.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.Incorrect
• The prokaryotic cells are represented by bacteria, blue-green algae,
mycoplasma and PPLO (Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms).
• They are generally smaller and multiply more rapidly than the eukaryotic cells.
• They may vary greatly in shape and size.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The four basic shapes of bacteria are bacillus (rod like), coccus (spherical),
vibrio (comma shaped) and spirillum (spiral).
• All prokaryotes have a cell wall surrounding the cell membrane except in
mycoplasma. The fluid matrix filling the cell is the cytoplasm.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• There is no well-defined nucleus. The genetic material is basically naked,
not enveloped by a nuclear membrane.
Hence, statement 3 is correct. -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsQ17. Select the correct statement/s with reference to eukaryotic cells.
1. Eukaryotic cells possess an organised nucleus.
2. All eukaryotic cells are identical.Correct
• The eukaryotes include all the protists, plants, animals and fungi.
• In eukaryotic cells there is an extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm
through the presence of membrane bound organelles.
• Eukaryotic cells possess an organised nucleus with a nuclear envelope.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In addition, eukaryotic cells have a variety of complex locomotory and cytoskeletal
structures. Their genetic material is organised into chromosomes.
• All eukaryotic cells are not identical. Plant and animal cells are different
as the former possess cell walls, plastids and a large central vacuole which
are absent in animal cells. On the other hand, animal cells have centrioles
which are absent in almost all plant cells.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.Incorrect
• The eukaryotes include all the protists, plants, animals and fungi.
• In eukaryotic cells there is an extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm
through the presence of membrane bound organelles.
• Eukaryotic cells possess an organised nucleus with a nuclear envelope.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In addition, eukaryotic cells have a variety of complex locomotory and cytoskeletal
structures. Their genetic material is organised into chromosomes.
• All eukaryotic cells are not identical. Plant and animal cells are different
as the former possess cell walls, plastids and a large central vacuole which
are absent in animal cells. On the other hand, animal cells have centrioles
which are absent in almost all plant cells.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsQ18. Identify the correct statements from those given below.
1. The chloroplasts in plant cells contain chlorophyll.
2. The chromoplasts in plants are responsible for giving it yellow, orange or red colour.
3. The leucoplasts are the colourless plastids of varied shapes and sizes with stored nutrients.Correct
• Plastids are found in all plant cells and in euglenoides. These are easily
observed under the microscope as they are large. They bear some specific
pigments, thus imparting specific colours to the plants.
• Based on the type of pigments plastids can be classified into chloroplasts,
chromoplasts and leucoplasts.
• The chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments which
are responsible for trapping light energy essential for photosynthesis.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In the chromoplasts fat soluble carotenoid pigments like carotene,
xanthophylls and others are present. This gives the part of the plant a
yellow, orange or red colour.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The leucoplasts are the colourless plastids of varied shapes and sizes
with stored nutrients: Amyloplasts store carbohydrates (starch), e.g., potato;
elaioplasts store oils and fats whereas the aleuroplasts store proteins.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.Incorrect
• Plastids are found in all plant cells and in euglenoides. These are easily
observed under the microscope as they are large. They bear some specific
pigments, thus imparting specific colours to the plants.
• Based on the type of pigments plastids can be classified into chloroplasts,
chromoplasts and leucoplasts.
• The chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments which
are responsible for trapping light energy essential for photosynthesis.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In the chromoplasts fat soluble carotenoid pigments like carotene,
xanthophylls and others are present. This gives the part of the plant a
yellow, orange or red colour.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The leucoplasts are the colourless plastids of varied shapes and sizes
with stored nutrients: Amyloplasts store carbohydrates (starch), e.g., potato;
elaioplasts store oils and fats whereas the aleuroplasts store proteins.
Hence, statement 3 is correct. -
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsQ19. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to National Supercomputing Mission (NSM)?
1. It supports the government’s vision of ‘Digital India’ and ‘Make in India’ initiatives.
2. These supercomputers will be networked on the National Supercomputing grid over the
National Knowledge Network (NKN).
3. Param Shivay is NSM’s first supercomputer.Correct
Why in News
Recently, a Right to Information (RTI) reply has revealed that India has produced just three supercomputers
since 2015 under the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM).National Supercomputing Mission
• It was announced in 2015, with an aim to connect national academic and R&D institutions with a grid
of more than 70 high-performance computing facilities at an estimated cost of ₹4,500 crores over
the period of seven years.
• It supports the government’s vision of ‘Digital India’ and ‘Make in India’ initiatives. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The mission will be implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (Ministry of Science
and Technology) and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), through the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune and Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.
• It is also an effort to improve the number of supercomputers owned by India.
• These supercomputers will also be networked on the National Supercomputing grid over the
National Knowledge Network (NKN). The NKN connects academic institutions and R&D labs over a high-speed network.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Under NSM, the long-term plan is to build a strong base of 20,000 skilled persons over the next five years
who will be equipped to handle the complexities of supercomputers.Progress of NSM:
• NSM’s first supercomputer named Param Shivay has been installed in IIT-BHU, Varanasi, in 2019.
– It has 837 TeraFlop High-Performance Computing (HPC) capacity. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The second supercomputer with a capacity of 1.66 PetaFlop has been installed at IIT-Kharagpur.
• The third system, Param Brahma, has been installed at IISER-Pune, which has a capacity of 797 TeraFlop.Incorrect
Why in News
Recently, a Right to Information (RTI) reply has revealed that India has produced just three supercomputers
since 2015 under the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM).National Supercomputing Mission
• It was announced in 2015, with an aim to connect national academic and R&D institutions with a grid
of more than 70 high-performance computing facilities at an estimated cost of ₹4,500 crores over
the period of seven years.
• It supports the government’s vision of ‘Digital India’ and ‘Make in India’ initiatives. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The mission will be implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (Ministry of Science
and Technology) and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), through the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune and Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.
• It is also an effort to improve the number of supercomputers owned by India.
• These supercomputers will also be networked on the National Supercomputing grid over the
National Knowledge Network (NKN). The NKN connects academic institutions and R&D labs over a high-speed network.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Under NSM, the long-term plan is to build a strong base of 20,000 skilled persons over the next five years
who will be equipped to handle the complexities of supercomputers.Progress of NSM:
• NSM’s first supercomputer named Param Shivay has been installed in IIT-BHU, Varanasi, in 2019.
– It has 837 TeraFlop High-Performance Computing (HPC) capacity. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The second supercomputer with a capacity of 1.66 PetaFlop has been installed at IIT-Kharagpur.
• The third system, Param Brahma, has been installed at IISER-Pune, which has a capacity of 797 TeraFlop. -
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsQ20. Identify the correct statement/s from those given below.
1. The main function of Red Blood Cells (RBCs) is to
transport oxygen from and to various tissues and organs.
2. Leucocytes are the colourless blood cells as it is devoid of
haemoglobin.Correct
Why in News
A team of Indian researchers have invented a process
through which generation of Red Blood Cells (RBCs)
outside the body (in vitro) from Haematopoietic Stem
Cells (HSCs) can be speeded up.Blood
• Blood is a fluid connective tissue that consists of
plasma, blood cells and platelets.
• It helps to circulate oxygen and nutrients to various
cells and tissues.
• The major types of blood cells include:
1. Red Blood Cells
– These are also known as Erythrocytes.
– RBCs contain the iron-rich protein called
haemoglobin that gives blood its red colour.
– RBCs are the most copious blood cells produced
in bone marrow. Their main function is to
transport oxygen from and to various tissues
and organs.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
2. White Blood Cells
– These are also known as Leucocytes and are
the colourless blood cells as it is devoid of
haemoglobin.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
– It mainly contributes to immunity and defence
mechanisms.Incorrect
Why in News
A team of Indian researchers have invented a process
through which generation of Red Blood Cells (RBCs)
outside the body (in vitro) from Haematopoietic Stem
Cells (HSCs) can be speeded up.Blood
• Blood is a fluid connective tissue that consists of
plasma, blood cells and platelets.
• It helps to circulate oxygen and nutrients to various
cells and tissues.
• The major types of blood cells include:
1. Red Blood Cells
– These are also known as Erythrocytes.
– RBCs contain the iron-rich protein called
haemoglobin that gives blood its red colour.
– RBCs are the most copious blood cells produced
in bone marrow. Their main function is to
transport oxygen from and to various tissues
and organs.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
2. White Blood Cells
– These are also known as Leucocytes and are
the colourless blood cells as it is devoid of
haemoglobin.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
– It mainly contributes to immunity and defence
mechanisms.
Leaderboard: 05 Aug 2021 | Prelims Daily with Previous Year Questions
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