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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 pointsSelect the countries bordering Iran from the following.
1. Tajikistan
2. Turkmenistan
3. Azerbaijan
4. TurkeyCorrect
Why in news?
Mohsen Fakhrizadeh, the Iranian scientist who led Iran’s nuclear weapons programme until it was disbanded, was assassinated in November.Iran is bounded to the north by Azerbaijan, Armenia, Turkmenistan, and the Caspian Sea, to the east by Pakistan and Afghanistan, to the south by the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman, and to the west by Turkey and Iraq.
Incorrect
-
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 pointsThe LAMP technology recently in news is used to test:
Correct
Why in news?
Indian Council of Medical Research has recently validated the LAMP technology for COVID-19 testing.What is RT-LAMP?
• RT-LAMP stands for Reverse Transcriptase loop-mediated isothermal amplification technology.
• Agappe Diagnostics has recently developed the technology indigenously, and their kit has been validated and approved by the ICMR for marketing.
• It is named LUME Screen nCoV.How does it work?
• RT-LAMP technology is a one-step nucleic acid amplification method to multiply specific sequences of RNA of the coronavirus.
• The RNA is first made into cDNA (copy DNA) by the usual reverse transcription. Then, the DNA is amplified by the LAMP technique.Current method
• The current method diagnosis is the real time reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) test which detects the presence of viral nucleic acids in nasopharyngeal swab samples.
• But it has certain shortcomings-
– The test requires complex and costly equipment.
– It requires extensive training for potential users.Benefits of LAMP over RT-PCR
• The LAMP technology is superior to the PCR technology–based COVID-19 kits where specificity is around 95% only.
• As the specificity and sensitivity of the test is about 95%, there is a possibility of false negative results.
• The turnaround time is about 10 hours, so that the result will be available only by the next day.
• In remote places, the turnaround time further increases depending on the distance the samples need to travel.
• In short, the RT-PCR does not have the capacity to keep pace with the increasing demand.
• The LAMP technology does not need laborious preparation as in the case of RT-PCR. LAMP is cost effective and does not need complex expensive equipment.Incorrect
Why in news?
Indian Council of Medical Research has recently validated the LAMP technology for COVID-19 testing.What is RT-LAMP?
• RT-LAMP stands for Reverse Transcriptase loop-mediated isothermal amplification technology.
• Agappe Diagnostics has recently developed the technology indigenously, and their kit has been validated and approved by the ICMR for marketing.
• It is named LUME Screen nCoV.How does it work?
• RT-LAMP technology is a one-step nucleic acid amplification method to multiply specific sequences of RNA of the coronavirus.
• The RNA is first made into cDNA (copy DNA) by the usual reverse transcription. Then, the DNA is amplified by the LAMP technique.Current method
• The current method diagnosis is the real time reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) test which detects the presence of viral nucleic acids in nasopharyngeal swab samples.
• But it has certain shortcomings-
– The test requires complex and costly equipment.
– It requires extensive training for potential users.Benefits of LAMP over RT-PCR
• The LAMP technology is superior to the PCR technology–based COVID-19 kits where specificity is around 95% only.
• As the specificity and sensitivity of the test is about 95%, there is a possibility of false negative results.
• The turnaround time is about 10 hours, so that the result will be available only by the next day.
• In remote places, the turnaround time further increases depending on the distance the samples need to travel.
• In short, the RT-PCR does not have the capacity to keep pace with the increasing demand.
• The LAMP technology does not need laborious preparation as in the case of RT-PCR. LAMP is cost effective and does not need complex expensive equipment. -
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013.
1. It covers the entire rural population under it.
2. In 2018, it was merged with Antyodaya Anna Yojana.
3. It provdes for the maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000 to pregnant women and lactating mothers.
Select the correct code from the codes given below.Correct
Why in news?
Two recent reports — “The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2020” by the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations and the 2020 Hunger report, “Better Nutrition, Better Tomorrow” by the Bread for the World Institute – document staggering facts about Indian food insecurity and malnutrition.National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013
• Notified on: 10th September, 2013.
• Objective: To provide for food and nutritional security in the human life cycle approach, by ensuring access to adequate quantities of quality food at affordable prices to people to live a life with dignity.
• Coverage: 75% of the rural population and upto 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Eligibility:
– Priority Households to be covered under TPDS, according to guidelines by the State government.
– Households covered under existing Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY).
• Provisions:
– 5 Kgs of foodgrains per person per month at Rs. 3/2/1 per Kg for rice/wheat/coarse grains.
– The existing AAY household will continue to receive 35 Kgs of foodgrains per household per month.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
– Meal and maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000 to pregnant women and lactating mothers during pregnancy and six months after the child birth.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
– Meals to children upto 14 years of age.
– Food security allowance to beneficiaries in case of non-supply of entitled foodgrains or meals.
– Setting up of grievance redressal mechanisms at the district and state level.Incorrect
Why in news?
Two recent reports — “The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2020” by the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations and the 2020 Hunger report, “Better Nutrition, Better Tomorrow” by the Bread for the World Institute – document staggering facts about Indian food insecurity and malnutrition.National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013
• Notified on: 10th September, 2013.
• Objective: To provide for food and nutritional security in the human life cycle approach, by ensuring access to adequate quantities of quality food at affordable prices to people to live a life with dignity.
• Coverage: 75% of the rural population and upto 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Eligibility:
– Priority Households to be covered under TPDS, according to guidelines by the State government.
– Households covered under existing Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY).
• Provisions:
– 5 Kgs of foodgrains per person per month at Rs. 3/2/1 per Kg for rice/wheat/coarse grains.
– The existing AAY household will continue to receive 35 Kgs of foodgrains per household per month.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
– Meal and maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000 to pregnant women and lactating mothers during pregnancy and six months after the child birth.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
– Meals to children upto 14 years of age.
– Food security allowance to beneficiaries in case of non-supply of entitled foodgrains or meals.
– Setting up of grievance redressal mechanisms at the district and state level. -
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 pointsThe main objective of Athena SWAN sometimes seen in news is:
Correct
Why this question?
One of the focuses of the new Science, Technology and Innovation Policy, currently being drafted by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) is to increase the participation of women in science.GATI
• The DST is incorporating a system of grading institutes depending on the enrolment of women and the advancement of the careers of women faculty and scientists.
• It will be called GATI (Gender Advancement through Transforming Institutions).
• The concept borrows from a programme started by the UK in 2005 called the Athena SWAN (Scientific Women’s Academic Network), which is now being adopted by many countries.
• The DST will soon launch a pilot, which the British Council has helped it develop.What is Athena SWAN?
• The Athena SWAN Charter is an evaluation and accreditation programme in the UK enhancing gender equity in science, technology, engineering, mathematics and medicine (STEMM).
• Participating research organisations and academic institutions are required to analyse data on gender equity and develop action plans for improvement.
• Signatories commit to addressing various issues such as –
– Unequal gender representation;
– Tackling the gender pay gap;
– Removing the obstacles faced by women in career development and progression;
– Discriminatory treatment often experienced by trans people;
– Gender balance of committees and zero tolerance for bullying and sexual harassment.Incorrect
Why this question?
One of the focuses of the new Science, Technology and Innovation Policy, currently being drafted by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) is to increase the participation of women in science.GATI
• The DST is incorporating a system of grading institutes depending on the enrolment of women and the advancement of the careers of women faculty and scientists.
• It will be called GATI (Gender Advancement through Transforming Institutions).
• The concept borrows from a programme started by the UK in 2005 called the Athena SWAN (Scientific Women’s Academic Network), which is now being adopted by many countries.
• The DST will soon launch a pilot, which the British Council has helped it develop.What is Athena SWAN?
• The Athena SWAN Charter is an evaluation and accreditation programme in the UK enhancing gender equity in science, technology, engineering, mathematics and medicine (STEMM).
• Participating research organisations and academic institutions are required to analyse data on gender equity and develop action plans for improvement.
• Signatories commit to addressing various issues such as –
– Unequal gender representation;
– Tackling the gender pay gap;
– Removing the obstacles faced by women in career development and progression;
– Discriminatory treatment often experienced by trans people;
– Gender balance of committees and zero tolerance for bullying and sexual harassment. -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statemnt/s is/are correct about bioluminescence?
1. Fungi cannot exhibit this property of bioluminescence.
2. Luminescence is generally higher in deep-living and planktonic organisms than in shallow species.Correct
Bioluminescence
• It is the property of a living organism to produce and emit light.
• Animals, plants, fungi and bacteria show bioluminescence. A remarkable diversity of marine animals and microbes are able to produce their own light.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is found in many marine organisms such as bacteria, algae, jellyfish, worms, crustaceans, sea stars, fish and sharks.
• Luminescence is generally higher in deep-living and planktonic organisms than in shallow species.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.Incorrect
Bioluminescence
• It is the property of a living organism to produce and emit light.
• Animals, plants, fungi and bacteria show bioluminescence. A remarkable diversity of marine animals and microbes are able to produce their own light.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is found in many marine organisms such as bacteria, algae, jellyfish, worms, crustaceans, sea stars, fish and sharks.
• Luminescence is generally higher in deep-living and planktonic organisms than in shallow species.
Hence, statement 2 is correct. -
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 pointsIdentify the correct statement/s from the following in context to the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT).
1. It is an ISRO mission.
2. It is an array of thirty fully steerable parabolic radio telescopes of 45-metre diameter.
3. It is used to observe many different astronomical objects such as HII regions (interstellar atomic hydrogen that is ionized), galaxies, pulsars, supernovae, and Sun and solar winds.Correct
Why in news?
The Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) has been selected as a ‘Milestone’ facility by the U.S.-based Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).About GMRT
• The GMRT located near Pune is an array of thirty fully steerable parabolic radio telescopes of 45-metre diameter, observing at metre wavelengths.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is operated by the National Centre for Radio Astrophysics (NCRA), a part of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, Mumbai.
• It was conceived and built under the direction of Late Prof. Govind Swarup from 1984 to 1996.
• At the time it was built, it was the world’s largest interferometric array offering a baseline of up to 25 kilometres (16 mi).
• Astronomers from all over the world regularly use this telescope to observe many different astronomical objects such as HII regions (interstellar atomic hydrogen that is ionized), galaxies, pulsars, supernovae, and Sun and solar winds.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.GMRT is not an ISRO mission.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.Incorrect
Why in news?
The Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) has been selected as a ‘Milestone’ facility by the U.S.-based Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).About GMRT
• The GMRT located near Pune is an array of thirty fully steerable parabolic radio telescopes of 45-metre diameter, observing at metre wavelengths.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is operated by the National Centre for Radio Astrophysics (NCRA), a part of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, Mumbai.
• It was conceived and built under the direction of Late Prof. Govind Swarup from 1984 to 1996.
• At the time it was built, it was the world’s largest interferometric array offering a baseline of up to 25 kilometres (16 mi).
• Astronomers from all over the world regularly use this telescope to observe many different astronomical objects such as HII regions (interstellar atomic hydrogen that is ionized), galaxies, pulsars, supernovae, and Sun and solar winds.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.GMRT is not an ISRO mission.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsRoshni Act recently seen in news is related to:
Correct
Why in news?
The J&K High Court has declared Roshni Act “illegal, unconstitutional and unsustainable” and a CBI probe has been ordered into the allotment of land under this law.What is the Roshni Act?
• The J&K State Lands (Vesting of Ownership to the Occupants) Act, 2001 is popularly known as the Roshni Act.
• It envisaged the transfer of ownership rights of state land to its occupants, subject to the payment of a cost, as determined by the government.
• It set 1990 as the cutoff for encroachment on state land.
• The government’s target was to earn Rs 25,000 crore by transferring 20 lakh kanals (one-eighth of an acre) of state land to existing occupants against payment at market rates.
• The government said the revenue generated would be spent on commissioning hydroelectric power projects, hence the name “Roshni”.Incorrect
Why in news?
The J&K High Court has declared Roshni Act “illegal, unconstitutional and unsustainable” and a CBI probe has been ordered into the allotment of land under this law.What is the Roshni Act?
• The J&K State Lands (Vesting of Ownership to the Occupants) Act, 2001 is popularly known as the Roshni Act.
• It envisaged the transfer of ownership rights of state land to its occupants, subject to the payment of a cost, as determined by the government.
• It set 1990 as the cutoff for encroachment on state land.
• The government’s target was to earn Rs 25,000 crore by transferring 20 lakh kanals (one-eighth of an acre) of state land to existing occupants against payment at market rates.
• The government said the revenue generated would be spent on commissioning hydroelectric power projects, hence the name “Roshni”. -
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsIdentify from the following the correct statement/s in context to the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI).
1. It is established to facilitate the implementation of the National Solar Mission.
2. It is amongst the two Central Public Sector Undertakings dedicated to the solar energy sector.Correct
Why in news?
India’s solar power tariffs have hit a new record low of ₹2 per unit.Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI)
• It is a company of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India, established to facilitate the implementation of the National Solar Mission (NSM).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is the only Central Public Sector Undertaking dedicated to the solar energy sector.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The company’s mandate has been broadened to cover the entire renewable energy domain and the company will be renamed to Renewable Energy Corporation of India (RECI).
• It is responsible for the implementation of a number of govt. schemes, major ones being the solar park scheme and grid-connected solar rooftop scheme etc.
• It has a power-trading licence and is active in this domain through the trading of solar power from projects set up under the schemes being implemented by it.Incorrect
Why in news?
India’s solar power tariffs have hit a new record low of ₹2 per unit.Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI)
• It is a company of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India, established to facilitate the implementation of the National Solar Mission (NSM).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is the only Central Public Sector Undertaking dedicated to the solar energy sector.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The company’s mandate has been broadened to cover the entire renewable energy domain and the company will be renamed to Renewable Energy Corporation of India (RECI).
• It is responsible for the implementation of a number of govt. schemes, major ones being the solar park scheme and grid-connected solar rooftop scheme etc.
• It has a power-trading licence and is active in this domain through the trading of solar power from projects set up under the schemes being implemented by it. -
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the Electronic Vaccine Intelligence Network.
1. This technology has been taken from United States.
2. It digitizes vaccine stocks and monitors the temperature of the cold chain through a smartphone application.
3. It supports the central government’s Universal Immunization Programme.
Select the correct code from the codes given below.Correct
Why in news?
The government is using eVIN – Electronic Vaccine Intelligence Network in association with the United Nations Development Program (UNDP) to identify primary beneficiaries and vaccine distribution networks.What is eVIN?
• E-VIN is an indigenously developed technology that digitizes vaccine stocks and monitors the temperature of the cold chain through a smartphone application.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
• It was first launched across 12 states in 2015 to support better vaccine logistics management at cold chain points.
• It supports the central government’s Universal Immunization Programme by providing real-time information on vaccine stocks and flows, and storage temperatures across all cold chain points across states and UTs.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.Incorrect
Why in news?
The government is using eVIN – Electronic Vaccine Intelligence Network in association with the United Nations Development Program (UNDP) to identify primary beneficiaries and vaccine distribution networks.What is eVIN?
• E-VIN is an indigenously developed technology that digitizes vaccine stocks and monitors the temperature of the cold chain through a smartphone application.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
• It was first launched across 12 states in 2015 to support better vaccine logistics management at cold chain points.
• It supports the central government’s Universal Immunization Programme by providing real-time information on vaccine stocks and flows, and storage temperatures across all cold chain points across states and UTs.
Hence, statement 3 is correct. -
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsThe El Nino is associated with:
1. Abnormal surface warming observed along the eastern and central regions of the Pacific Ocean.
2. Abnormal surface warming observed along the western regions of the Pacific Ocean.
3. Droughts in Australia.
4. Droughts in Peru.Correct
Why in news?
Rainfall over the Southern peninsular region has been deficient so far due to prevailing La Nina conditions according to the India Meteorological Department (IMD).El Nino and La Nina
• While El Niño (Spanish for ‘little boy’), the more common expression, is the abnormal surface warming observed along the eastern and central regions of the Pacific Ocean (the region between Peru and Papua New Guinea).
Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
• The La Niña (Spanish for ‘little girl’) is an abnormal cooling of these surface waters.
• Together, the El Niño and La Niña phenomena are termed as El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO).
• These are large-scale ocean phenomena which influence the global weather — winds, temperature and rainfall. They have the ability to trigger extreme weather events like droughts, floods, hot and cold conditions, globally.
• Each cycle can last anywhere between 9 to 12 months, at times extendable to 18 months — and re-occur after every three to five years.
• Meteorologists record the sea surface temperatures for four different regions, known as Niño regions, along this equatorial belt.
• Depending on the temperatures, they forecast either as an El Niño, an ENSO neutral phase, or a La Niña.
• Episodic shifts in winds and water currents across the equatorial Pacific can cause floods in the South American desert while stalling and drying up the monsoon in Indonesia, Australia and India.
Hence, statement 3 is correct and statement 4 is incorrect.Incorrect
Why in news?
Rainfall over the Southern peninsular region has been deficient so far due to prevailing La Nina conditions according to the India Meteorological Department (IMD).El Nino and La Nina
• While El Niño (Spanish for ‘little boy’), the more common expression, is the abnormal surface warming observed along the eastern and central regions of the Pacific Ocean (the region between Peru and Papua New Guinea).
Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
• The La Niña (Spanish for ‘little girl’) is an abnormal cooling of these surface waters.
• Together, the El Niño and La Niña phenomena are termed as El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO).
• These are large-scale ocean phenomena which influence the global weather — winds, temperature and rainfall. They have the ability to trigger extreme weather events like droughts, floods, hot and cold conditions, globally.
• Each cycle can last anywhere between 9 to 12 months, at times extendable to 18 months — and re-occur after every three to five years.
• Meteorologists record the sea surface temperatures for four different regions, known as Niño regions, along this equatorial belt.
• Depending on the temperatures, they forecast either as an El Niño, an ENSO neutral phase, or a La Niña.
• Episodic shifts in winds and water currents across the equatorial Pacific can cause floods in the South American desert while stalling and drying up the monsoon in Indonesia, Australia and India.
Hence, statement 3 is correct and statement 4 is incorrect. -
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Miyawaki technique.
1. It is an indigenously developed technique for welfare for forests.
2. Vegetation becomes much denser than conventional plantations using this technique.
3. It helps in restoring degraded habitats.
Select the correct code using the codes given below.Correct
Why in news?
Japan-inspired Miyawaki forests are emerging as a popular solution to restoring degraded habitats in the country.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct.The technique
• The method takes its inspiration directly from processes and diversity in nature: 15 to 30 different species of trees and shrubs are planted together.
• This plant community works very well together and is perfectly adapted to local weather conditions.
• The habitat thus created will get more complex over time and attract much biodiversity.
• Vegetation becomes much denser than conventional plantations, and it has the structure of a mature natural forest. It is a multi-storey structure, where different levels of vegetation appear.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The forest thus structured delivers many benefits in the form of ecosystem services.
• It would take about 200 years to let a forest recover on its own. With the Miyawaki method, a similar result is achieved in 20 years.Incorrect
Why in news?
Japan-inspired Miyawaki forests are emerging as a popular solution to restoring degraded habitats in the country.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct.The technique
• The method takes its inspiration directly from processes and diversity in nature: 15 to 30 different species of trees and shrubs are planted together.
• This plant community works very well together and is perfectly adapted to local weather conditions.
• The habitat thus created will get more complex over time and attract much biodiversity.
• Vegetation becomes much denser than conventional plantations, and it has the structure of a mature natural forest. It is a multi-storey structure, where different levels of vegetation appear.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The forest thus structured delivers many benefits in the form of ecosystem services.
• It would take about 200 years to let a forest recover on its own. With the Miyawaki method, a similar result is achieved in 20 years. -
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsSelect the correct statement/s from the following with reference to the negative-yield bonds.
1. These are debt instruments that offer to pay the investor a maturity amount lower than the purchase price of the bond.
2. In India, these are issued by Securities and Exchange Board of India.
3. The investors pay interest to the borrower to keep their money with them.Correct
Why in news?
China recently sold negative-yield debt for the first time, and this saw high demand from investors across Europe.What are Negative-Yield Bonds?
• These are debt instruments that offer to pay the investor a maturity amount lower than the purchase price of the bond.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• These are generally issued by central banks or governments, and investors pay interest to the borrower to keep their money with them.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct.Incorrect
Why in news?
China recently sold negative-yield debt for the first time, and this saw high demand from investors across Europe.What are Negative-Yield Bonds?
• These are debt instruments that offer to pay the investor a maturity amount lower than the purchase price of the bond.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• These are generally issued by central banks or governments, and investors pay interest to the borrower to keep their money with them.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct. -
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the members of Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)?
1. Bahrain
2. Yemen
3. Kuwait
4. Iran
5. OmanCorrect
Why in news?
External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar’s visit to Bahrain and the United Arab Emirates recently is a good moment to reflect on the structural changes taking place in the Gulf and the region’s growing influence in the Indian Ocean.Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC):
• Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), political and economic alliance of six Middle Eastern countries—Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, the United Arab Emirates, Qatar, Bahrain, and Oman.
• The GCC was established in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, in May 1981. The purpose of the GCC is to achieve unity among its members based on their common objectives and their similar political and cultural identities, which are rooted in Arab and Islamic cultures.
• GCC agreements typically focus on either security or economic coordination.
• Qatar is a major point of contention. On 5 June 2017, Saudi Arabia, the UAE and Bahrain cut diplomatic ties with the tiny emirate.
• Egypt, not part of the GCC, also joined the Saudi-led blockade. Saudi Arabia justified the move by claiming that Qatar was supporting extremist groups such as al-Qaeda and Iranian-sponsored militias in the region.Incorrect
Why in news?
External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar’s visit to Bahrain and the United Arab Emirates recently is a good moment to reflect on the structural changes taking place in the Gulf and the region’s growing influence in the Indian Ocean.Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC):
• Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), political and economic alliance of six Middle Eastern countries—Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, the United Arab Emirates, Qatar, Bahrain, and Oman.
• The GCC was established in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, in May 1981. The purpose of the GCC is to achieve unity among its members based on their common objectives and their similar political and cultural identities, which are rooted in Arab and Islamic cultures.
• GCC agreements typically focus on either security or economic coordination.
• Qatar is a major point of contention. On 5 June 2017, Saudi Arabia, the UAE and Bahrain cut diplomatic ties with the tiny emirate.
• Egypt, not part of the GCC, also joined the Saudi-led blockade. Saudi Arabia justified the move by claiming that Qatar was supporting extremist groups such as al-Qaeda and Iranian-sponsored militias in the region. -
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsSelect the correct statement/s with reference to the concept of “office of profit”.
1. It enforces the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.
2. It is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution of India.
3. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 clearly defines what constitutes an office of profit.Correct
Why in news?
The Joint Parliamentary Committee on Office of Profit has deliberated on whether a Parliamentarian can continue to teach at University and if this draws the provisions of “Office of Profit” rules.The concept of ‘Office of Profit’
• The Constitution of India does not define the Office of Profit. It has only mentioned it under Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• MPs and MLAs, as members of the legislature, hold the government accountable for its work.
• The essence of disqualification is if legislators hold an ‘office of profit’ under the government, they might be susceptible to government influence, and may not discharge their constitutional mandate fairly.
• The intent is that there should be no conflict between the duties and interests of an elected member.
• Hence, the office of profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution- the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.What governs the term?
• At present, the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, bars an MP, MLA or an MLC from holding any office of profit under the central or state government unless it is exempted.
However, it does not clearly define what constitutes an office of profit.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Legislators can face disqualification for holding such positions, which bring them financial or other benefits.
• Under the provisions of Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MP or an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding any office of profit under the Central or State government.Incorrect
Why in news?
The Joint Parliamentary Committee on Office of Profit has deliberated on whether a Parliamentarian can continue to teach at University and if this draws the provisions of “Office of Profit” rules.The concept of ‘Office of Profit’
• The Constitution of India does not define the Office of Profit. It has only mentioned it under Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• MPs and MLAs, as members of the legislature, hold the government accountable for its work.
• The essence of disqualification is if legislators hold an ‘office of profit’ under the government, they might be susceptible to government influence, and may not discharge their constitutional mandate fairly.
• The intent is that there should be no conflict between the duties and interests of an elected member.
• Hence, the office of profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution- the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.What governs the term?
• At present, the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, bars an MP, MLA or an MLC from holding any office of profit under the central or state government unless it is exempted.
However, it does not clearly define what constitutes an office of profit.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Legislators can face disqualification for holding such positions, which bring them financial or other benefits.
• Under the provisions of Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MP or an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding any office of profit under the Central or State government. -
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:
1. IRNSS has three Satellites in geostationary and four satellites the geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Why in news?
The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) has been accepted as a component of the World Wide Radio Navigation System (WWRNS) for operation in the Indian Ocean Region by the International Maritime Organization (IMO).What is IRNSS?
• The IRNSS, with an operational name of NavIC (acronym for Navigation with Indian Constellation) is an Indian regional satellite navigation system that provides accurate real-time positioning and timing services.
• It covers India and a region extending 1,500 km around it, with plans for further extension.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The system currently consists of a constellation of seven satellites, with two additional satellites on ground as stand-by. Three of the satellites in the constellation will be placed in a geostationary orbit and the remaining four in a geosynchronous inclined orbit of 29º relative to the equatorial plane.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The constellation is in orbit as of 2018, and the system was expected to be operational from early 2018 after a system check.
• It will provide two levels of service, the “standard positioning service”, which will be open for civilian use, and a “restricted service” (an encrypted one) for authorised users (including the military).Incorrect
Why in news?
The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) has been accepted as a component of the World Wide Radio Navigation System (WWRNS) for operation in the Indian Ocean Region by the International Maritime Organization (IMO).What is IRNSS?
• The IRNSS, with an operational name of NavIC (acronym for Navigation with Indian Constellation) is an Indian regional satellite navigation system that provides accurate real-time positioning and timing services.
• It covers India and a region extending 1,500 km around it, with plans for further extension.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The system currently consists of a constellation of seven satellites, with two additional satellites on ground as stand-by. Three of the satellites in the constellation will be placed in a geostationary orbit and the remaining four in a geosynchronous inclined orbit of 29º relative to the equatorial plane.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The constellation is in orbit as of 2018, and the system was expected to be operational from early 2018 after a system check.
• It will provide two levels of service, the “standard positioning service”, which will be open for civilian use, and a “restricted service” (an encrypted one) for authorised users (including the military). -
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 pointsIdentify the correct statement/s with respect to the International Maritime Organisation (IMO).
1. It is the specialized agency of United Nations.
2. Its primary purpose is to develop and maintain a comprehensive regulatory framework for shipping.Correct
Why in news?
The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) has been accepted as a component of the World Wide Radio Navigation System (WWRNS) for operation in the Indian Ocean Region by the International Maritime Organization (IMO).International Maritime Organisation (IMO)
• IMO is the UN specialized agency with responsibility for the safety and security of shipping and the prevention of marine pollution by ships.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Its primary purpose is to develop and maintain a comprehensive regulatory framework for shipping and its remit today includes safety, environmental concerns, legal matters, technical co-operation, maritime security and the efficiency of shipping.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• IMO is governed by an assembly of members and is financially administered by a council of members elected from the assembly.Incorrect
Why in news?
The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) has been accepted as a component of the World Wide Radio Navigation System (WWRNS) for operation in the Indian Ocean Region by the International Maritime Organization (IMO).International Maritime Organisation (IMO)
• IMO is the UN specialized agency with responsibility for the safety and security of shipping and the prevention of marine pollution by ships.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Its primary purpose is to develop and maintain a comprehensive regulatory framework for shipping and its remit today includes safety, environmental concerns, legal matters, technical co-operation, maritime security and the efficiency of shipping.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• IMO is governed by an assembly of members and is financially administered by a council of members elected from the assembly. -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. Dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States.Correct
Why in news?
A Supreme Court bench headed by CJI has observed that it is “trying to discourage” individuals from filing petitions under Article 32 of the Constitution.Original Jurisdiction of the SC in India
• Original jurisdiction of a court refers to a matter for which the particular court is approached first.
• In the case of the Supreme Court in India, its original jurisdiction is covered under Article 131. It involves the following cases:
– Any dispute between the Indian Government and one or more States.
– Any dispute between the Indian Government and one or more States on one side and one or more States on the other side.
– Any dispute between two or more States.
• Article 32 of the Constitution provides original jurisdiction to the SC for matters regarding the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• The SC can issue writs, directions, or orders including writs in the nature of mandamus, habeas corpus, quo warranto, prohibition and certiorari.
• The SC also has the power to direct the transfer of a criminal or civil case from the High Court in one State to the High Court in another State.
• It can also transfer cases from one subordinate court to another State High Court
• If the SC deems that cases involving the same questions of law are pending before it and one or more High Courts, and that these are significant questions of law, it can withdraw the cases before the High Court or Courts and dispose off all these cases itself.
• The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 gives SC the authority to initiate international commercial arbitration.Incorrect
Why in news?
A Supreme Court bench headed by CJI has observed that it is “trying to discourage” individuals from filing petitions under Article 32 of the Constitution.Original Jurisdiction of the SC in India
• Original jurisdiction of a court refers to a matter for which the particular court is approached first.
• In the case of the Supreme Court in India, its original jurisdiction is covered under Article 131. It involves the following cases:
– Any dispute between the Indian Government and one or more States.
– Any dispute between the Indian Government and one or more States on one side and one or more States on the other side.
– Any dispute between two or more States.
• Article 32 of the Constitution provides original jurisdiction to the SC for matters regarding the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• The SC can issue writs, directions, or orders including writs in the nature of mandamus, habeas corpus, quo warranto, prohibition and certiorari.
• The SC also has the power to direct the transfer of a criminal or civil case from the High Court in one State to the High Court in another State.
• It can also transfer cases from one subordinate court to another State High Court
• If the SC deems that cases involving the same questions of law are pending before it and one or more High Courts, and that these are significant questions of law, it can withdraw the cases before the High Court or Courts and dispose off all these cases itself.
• The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 gives SC the authority to initiate international commercial arbitration. -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsSelect the correct statement/s from the following in context to the Attorney General of India (AGI).
1. The AGI has the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament.
2. He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
3. He holds office for a term of 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.Correct
Why in news?
Attorney-General gave his consent for the initiation of criminal contempt proceedings against the stand-up comedian for his tweets following a Supreme Court’s decision to grant interim bail to a news anchor.Attorney General of India (AGI)
• The AGI is the Indian government’s chief legal advisor and is a primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
• They can be said to be the advocate from the government’s side.
• They are appointed by the President of India on the advice of Union Cabinet under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• They must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court ( i.e. a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President and must be a citizen of India.).
Hence, statement 2 is correct.Functions and duties
• The AGI is necessary for advising the Government of India on legal matters referred to them.
• They also perform other legal duties assigned to them by the President.
• The AGI has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, though not to vote.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The AGI appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which GoI is concerned.
• They also represent the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
• The AG is assisted by a Solicitor General and four Additional Solicitors General.Incorrect
Why in news?
Attorney-General gave his consent for the initiation of criminal contempt proceedings against the stand-up comedian for his tweets following a Supreme Court’s decision to grant interim bail to a news anchor.Attorney General of India (AGI)
• The AGI is the Indian government’s chief legal advisor and is a primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
• They can be said to be the advocate from the government’s side.
• They are appointed by the President of India on the advice of Union Cabinet under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• They must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court ( i.e. a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President and must be a citizen of India.).
Hence, statement 2 is correct.Functions and duties
• The AGI is necessary for advising the Government of India on legal matters referred to them.
• They also perform other legal duties assigned to them by the President.
• The AGI has the right of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament, though not to vote.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The AGI appears on behalf of Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which GoI is concerned.
• They also represent the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
• The AG is assisted by a Solicitor General and four Additional Solicitors General. -
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement/s is/are correct with reference to the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA), 2010?
1. It is applicable to all associations, groups and NGOs which intend to receive foreign donations.
2. It falls under the purview of Reserve Bank of InCorrect
Why in news?
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has relaxed FCRA norms for farmer, student, religious and other groups who are not directly aligned to any political party to receive foreign funds if the groups are not involved in “active politics”.What is the FCRA?
• The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA), 2010 regulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect the internal security of our country.
• The Act, first enacted in 1976, was amended in the year 2010 when a slew of new measures was taken by the Union Home Ministry to regulate foreign donations. It was again amended in September this year.
• It is applicable to all associations, groups and NGOs which intend to receive foreign donations. It is mandatory for all such NGOs to register themselves under the FCRA.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The registration is initially valid for five years and it can be renewed subsequently if they comply with all norms.
• Since the Act is internal security legislation, despite being a law related to financial legislation, it falls into the purview of Home Ministry and not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.Incorrect
Why in news?
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has relaxed FCRA norms for farmer, student, religious and other groups who are not directly aligned to any political party to receive foreign funds if the groups are not involved in “active politics”.What is the FCRA?
• The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA), 2010 regulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect the internal security of our country.
• The Act, first enacted in 1976, was amended in the year 2010 when a slew of new measures was taken by the Union Home Ministry to regulate foreign donations. It was again amended in September this year.
• It is applicable to all associations, groups and NGOs which intend to receive foreign donations. It is mandatory for all such NGOs to register themselves under the FCRA.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The registration is initially valid for five years and it can be renewed subsequently if they comply with all norms.
• Since the Act is internal security legislation, despite being a law related to financial legislation, it falls into the purview of Home Ministry and not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. -
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the follwoing statements with reference to Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC).
1. It is a permanent, intergovernmental organization.
2. It was created at the Baghdad Conference in 1960.
3. OPEC membership is open only to the middle east countries.
Select the correct code from the codes given below.Correct
Why in news?
Oil prices jumped by close to 10% for its biggest daily gain in almost six months after news of a highly effective vaccine against COVID-19 and Saudi Arabia’s assurance that an OPEC+ oil output deal could be adjusted to balance the market.About OPEC
• OPEC stands for Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries.
• It is a permanent, intergovernmental organization, created at the Baghdad Conference in 1960, by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela.
Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• It aims to manage the supply of oil in an effort to set the price of oil in the world market, in order to avoid fluctuations that might affect the economies of both producing and purchasing countries.
• It is headquartered in Vienna, Austria.
• OPEC membership is open to any country that is a substantial exporter of oil and which shares the ideals of the organization.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Today OPEC is a cartel that includes 14 nations, predominantly from the middle east whose sole responsibility is to control prices and moderate supply.Incorrect
Why in news?
Oil prices jumped by close to 10% for its biggest daily gain in almost six months after news of a highly effective vaccine against COVID-19 and Saudi Arabia’s assurance that an OPEC+ oil output deal could be adjusted to balance the market.About OPEC
• OPEC stands for Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries.
• It is a permanent, intergovernmental organization, created at the Baghdad Conference in 1960, by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela.
Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• It aims to manage the supply of oil in an effort to set the price of oil in the world market, in order to avoid fluctuations that might affect the economies of both producing and purchasing countries.
• It is headquartered in Vienna, Austria.
• OPEC membership is open to any country that is a substantial exporter of oil and which shares the ideals of the organization.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Today OPEC is a cartel that includes 14 nations, predominantly from the middle east whose sole responsibility is to control prices and moderate supply.
Leaderboard: 15 May 2021 | Nikaalo Prelims Quiz- TS 14- Current Affairs Test 5: November 2020
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