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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 points” Select the correct statement/s from the following with respect to the linguistic minorities.
1. The linguistic minorities are identified on a pan-India basis.
2. They are determined by the state government.
3. A linguistic minority is a group of people whose mother tongue is different from that of the majority in the state or part of a state.”Correct
“• The Supreme Court has dismissed a plea seeking guidelines to “identify and define” religious minorities in every State to protect their culture and interests.
• The petition sought to recognise Hindus as minorities in the States where they are low in population.
• Currently, the linguistic minorities are identified on a state-wise basis thus determined by the state government whereas religious minorities are determined by the Central Government.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
• A linguistic minority is a group of people whose mother tongue is different from that of the majority in the state or part of a state.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• However, the Supreme court ruled that languages are restricted state wise but religion is beyond all borders, especially political borders.Thus, religion needs to be considered on a pan-India basis and not state-wise.Tikdam:
Statements 1 and 2 are contradictory. If linguistic minorities are determined by the state government, then they are to be identified on a state-wise basis and not pan-India basis.
So, eliminating option A would have helped you get the right answer.”Incorrect
“• The Supreme Court has dismissed a plea seeking guidelines to “identify and define” religious minorities in every State to protect their culture and interests.
• The petition sought to recognise Hindus as minorities in the States where they are low in population.
• Currently, the linguistic minorities are identified on a state-wise basis thus determined by the state government whereas religious minorities are determined by the Central Government.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
• A linguistic minority is a group of people whose mother tongue is different from that of the majority in the state or part of a state.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• However, the Supreme court ruled that languages are restricted state wise but religion is beyond all borders, especially political borders.Thus, religion needs to be considered on a pan-India basis and not state-wise.Tikdam:
Statements 1 and 2 are contradictory. If linguistic minorities are determined by the state government, then they are to be identified on a state-wise basis and not pan-India basis.
So, eliminating option A would have helped you get the right answer.” -
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements in context to Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
1. The office of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created on the recommendation of the States Reorganisation Commission.
2. He is appointed by the President of India.
3. The Constitution specifies the qualifications for the selection of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Select the correct code from the codes given below.Correct
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
• Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
• Later, the States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this regard.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution.This article contains the following provisions:
• There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by the President of India.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution.
• He would report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct.
• The President should place all such reports before each House of Parliament and send to the governments of the states concerned.
• It must be noted here that the Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.Incorrect
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
• Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
• Later, the States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this regard.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution.This article contains the following provisions:
• There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by the President of India.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution.
• He would report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct.
• The President should place all such reports before each House of Parliament and send to the governments of the states concerned.
• It must be noted here that the Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. -
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 pointsIdentify the correct statement/s with respect to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG).
1. Office of the Accountant General was established in 1858.
2. The Government of India Act 1935 provided for Provincial Auditors General in a federal set-up.
3. The Government of India Act 1919 gave a statutory backing to the position of the Auditor General.Correct
Background
• Office of the Accountant General was established in 1858 (the year the British took over administrative control of India from the East India Company).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In 1860 Sir Edward Drummond was appointed as the first Auditor General.
• Meanwhile after some restructuring the Auditor General of India came to be called the Auditor and Accountant General to the Government of India.
• In 1866, the position was renamed Comptroller General of Accounts, and in 1884, it was re-designated as Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
• Under the Government of India Act 1919, the Auditor General became independent of the government as statutory backing was given for the position.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The Government of India Act 1935 further strengthened the position of the Auditor General by providing for Provincial Auditors General in a federal set-up.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The act also described the appointment and service procedures and gave a brief overview of the duties of the Auditor General of India.
• The Accounts and Audits Order of 1936 provided detailed accounting and auditing functions of the auditor general.
• This arrangement remained unchanged until India’s independence in 1947. After independence, Article 148 of the 1949 Indian Constitution provided for the establishment of a Comptroller and Auditor General to be appointed by the President of India.
• CAG jurisdiction was extended to Jammu and Kashmir in 1958.
• In 1971 the central government enacted the Comptroller and Auditor General (Duties, Powers, and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971. The act made CAG responsible for both accounting and auditing duties for central and state governments.
• In 1976 CAG was relieved from accounting functions.
• CAG has undergone rapid computerization and modernization since the 1990s and pervasive nature of Indian corruption has kept CAG vigilant and it has audited and investigated some of the worst and most controversial corruption scandals in Indian history.Incorrect
Background
• Office of the Accountant General was established in 1858 (the year the British took over administrative control of India from the East India Company).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• In 1860 Sir Edward Drummond was appointed as the first Auditor General.
• Meanwhile after some restructuring the Auditor General of India came to be called the Auditor and Accountant General to the Government of India.
• In 1866, the position was renamed Comptroller General of Accounts, and in 1884, it was re-designated as Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
• Under the Government of India Act 1919, the Auditor General became independent of the government as statutory backing was given for the position.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The Government of India Act 1935 further strengthened the position of the Auditor General by providing for Provincial Auditors General in a federal set-up.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The act also described the appointment and service procedures and gave a brief overview of the duties of the Auditor General of India.
• The Accounts and Audits Order of 1936 provided detailed accounting and auditing functions of the auditor general.
• This arrangement remained unchanged until India’s independence in 1947. After independence, Article 148 of the 1949 Indian Constitution provided for the establishment of a Comptroller and Auditor General to be appointed by the President of India.
• CAG jurisdiction was extended to Jammu and Kashmir in 1958.
• In 1971 the central government enacted the Comptroller and Auditor General (Duties, Powers, and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971. The act made CAG responsible for both accounting and auditing duties for central and state governments.
• In 1976 CAG was relieved from accounting functions.
• CAG has undergone rapid computerization and modernization since the 1990s and pervasive nature of Indian corruption has kept CAG vigilant and it has audited and investigated some of the worst and most controversial corruption scandals in Indian history. -
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following report/s is/are submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India to the Public Accounts Committee.
1. Audit report on appropriation accounts
2. Audit report on finance accounts
3. Audit report on public sector undertakings
4. Audit report on Reserve Bank of IndiaCorrect
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG) and Public Accounts Committee (PAC)
• PAC is a Parliamentary Standing Committee created under GOI Act, 1919.
• CAG audit reports are handed over to the PACs at the centre and at the state.
• Three CAG reports i.e. audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts and audit report on public sector undertakings are examined by PAC.
• At the central level, these reports are submitted by CAG to president, who makes them to be laid in parliament.
• CAG also assists the committee in its deliberations by preparing a list of the most urgent matters which deserve the attention of the PAC.
• He also helps in making the actions of the committee clear to the witnesses and in making the action of the government clear to the committee.
• CAG position is sometimes one of interpreter and translator, explaining the officials’ views to the politicians and vice-versa.
• The responsibility of the CAG does not end here. He has to watch whether the corrective action suggested by him has been taken or not. In cases whether it has not been taken, he reports the matter to the PAC which will take up the matter.Tikdam:
Reserve Bank of India is totally subjected to private audit so there is no point of submiiting a report by CAG since he does not come into the picture at all.Incorrect
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG) and Public Accounts Committee (PAC)
• PAC is a Parliamentary Standing Committee created under GOI Act, 1919.
• CAG audit reports are handed over to the PACs at the centre and at the state.
• Three CAG reports i.e. audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts and audit report on public sector undertakings are examined by PAC.
• At the central level, these reports are submitted by CAG to president, who makes them to be laid in parliament.
• CAG also assists the committee in its deliberations by preparing a list of the most urgent matters which deserve the attention of the PAC.
• He also helps in making the actions of the committee clear to the witnesses and in making the action of the government clear to the committee.
• CAG position is sometimes one of interpreter and translator, explaining the officials’ views to the politicians and vice-versa.
• The responsibility of the CAG does not end here. He has to watch whether the corrective action suggested by him has been taken or not. In cases whether it has not been taken, he reports the matter to the PAC which will take up the matter.Tikdam:
Reserve Bank of India is totally subjected to private audit so there is no point of submiiting a report by CAG since he does not come into the picture at all. -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the Solicitor General of India.
1. He is the second highest law officer in the country.
2. He is subordinate to the Attorney General of India like Deputy speaker is to the Speaker.
3. He advises the government in legal matters.
4. Solicitor general is appointed by Appointment Committee of Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister.
5. Solicitor general has the right to participate in the proceedings of Parliament.
Select the correct code from the codes given below.Correct
Solicitor General of India
• Solicitor General is the second highest law officer in the country.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• He is subordinate to the Attorney General of India, the highest law officer and works under him. (Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• He also advises the government in legal matters.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Solicitor general is appointed for period of three years by Appointment Committee of Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister.
(Office and duties of Attorney General is created by Constitution under Article 76).
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• While, Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor Generals’ office and duties are governed by Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1987 and not by Constitution (thus they are statutory posts and not constitutional).
• Moreover, attorney generals has right to participate in the proceedings of Parliament, but cannot vote.
• Whereas, Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor Generals’ do not have these rights with respect to participation in parliament.
Hence, statement 5 is incorrect.Tikdam:
Reading statement 2 carefully would have helped you eliminate statement 2 since Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker, he is directly responsible to the House.
It was easy to arrive at the answer after elimination of statement 2 since all options except option D include statement 2.Incorrect
Solicitor General of India
• Solicitor General is the second highest law officer in the country.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• He is subordinate to the Attorney General of India, the highest law officer and works under him. (Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• He also advises the government in legal matters.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Solicitor general is appointed for period of three years by Appointment Committee of Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister.
(Office and duties of Attorney General is created by Constitution under Article 76).
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• While, Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor Generals’ office and duties are governed by Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1987 and not by Constitution (thus they are statutory posts and not constitutional).
• Moreover, attorney generals has right to participate in the proceedings of Parliament, but cannot vote.
• Whereas, Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor Generals’ do not have these rights with respect to participation in parliament.
Hence, statement 5 is incorrect.Tikdam:
Reading statement 2 carefully would have helped you eliminate statement 2 since Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker, he is directly responsible to the House.
It was easy to arrive at the answer after elimination of statement 2 since all options except option D include statement 2. -
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 pointsIdentify the correct statement/s with respect to the Delimitation Commission.
1. The President enacts a Delimitation Act after every census.
2. The Delimitation Commission demarcates the boundaries of the Parliamentary Constituencies as per provisions of the Delimitation Act.
3. The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of the 2011 census figures.Correct
Delimitation Commission
• Under Article 82 of the Constitution, the Parliament by law enacts a Delimitation Act after every census.
• After coming into force the commencement of the Act, the Central Government constitutes a Delimitation Commission.
• This Delimitation Commission demarcates the boundaries of the Parliamentary Constituencies as per provisions of the Delimitation Act.
• The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of the 2001 census figures under the provisions of Delimitation Act, 2002.
• Notwithstanding the above, the Constitution of India was specifically amended in 2002 not to have delimitation of constituencies till the first census after 2026. Thus, the present Constituencies carved out on the basis of the 2001 census shall continue to be in operation till the first census after 2026.Tikdam:
Enacting acts is a legislative funvtion and not an executive one. Therefore statement 1 is incorrect since President cannot enact acts.
This was the major catch in this question. Eliminating statement 1 would have helped you reach the right answer at once since all other options except option B include statement 1.Incorrect
Delimitation Commission
• Under Article 82 of the Constitution, the Parliament by law enacts a Delimitation Act after every census.
• After coming into force the commencement of the Act, the Central Government constitutes a Delimitation Commission.
• This Delimitation Commission demarcates the boundaries of the Parliamentary Constituencies as per provisions of the Delimitation Act.
• The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of the 2001 census figures under the provisions of Delimitation Act, 2002.
• Notwithstanding the above, the Constitution of India was specifically amended in 2002 not to have delimitation of constituencies till the first census after 2026. Thus, the present Constituencies carved out on the basis of the 2001 census shall continue to be in operation till the first census after 2026.Tikdam:
Enacting acts is a legislative funvtion and not an executive one. Therefore statement 1 is incorrect since President cannot enact acts.
This was the major catch in this question. Eliminating statement 1 would have helped you reach the right answer at once since all other options except option B include statement 1. -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1950 Schedules?
1. Allocation of seats in the House of the People
2. Total number of seats in the Legislative Assemblies
3. Allocation of seats in the Legislative Councils
4. Local authorities for purposes of elections to Legislative CouncilsCorrect
Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1950 Key Provisions
• Lays down procedures for delimitation of constituencies.
• Provides for the allocation of seats in the House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of States.
• Lays procedure for the preparation of electoral rolls and the manner of filling seats.
• Lays down the qualification of voters.Delimiting Constituencies
• The President of India has been conferred the power to amend orders delimiting constituencies, only after consulting the Election Commission of India (ECI).
• In Lok Sabha, there is a reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
• The ECI has the power to determine the constituencies to be reserved for scheduled tribes in the states of Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura.Allocation of seats
• As far as possible, every state gets representation in the Lok Sabha in proportion to its population as per census figures.Electoral Rolls
• The 1950 Act permits the registration of persons in electoral rolls who are ordinarily resident in a constituency and persons holding:
• Service qualification such as a member of armed forces, member of the armed police force of a state, serving outside the state, or central government employees posted outside India.
• Certain offices in India declared by the President in consultation with ECI.
• The wives of such persons are also deemed to be ordinarily residing in India. There is a proposal for making some provisions gender-neutral by replacing the term ‘wife’ with ‘spouse’.RPA, 1950 Schedules
• The First Schedule: Allocation of seats in the House of the People
• The Second Schedule: Total number of seats in the Legislative Assemblies
• The Third Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Legislative Councils
• The Fourth Schedule: Local authorities for purposes of elections to Legislative CouncilsIncorrect
Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1950 Key Provisions
• Lays down procedures for delimitation of constituencies.
• Provides for the allocation of seats in the House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of States.
• Lays procedure for the preparation of electoral rolls and the manner of filling seats.
• Lays down the qualification of voters.Delimiting Constituencies
• The President of India has been conferred the power to amend orders delimiting constituencies, only after consulting the Election Commission of India (ECI).
• In Lok Sabha, there is a reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
• The ECI has the power to determine the constituencies to be reserved for scheduled tribes in the states of Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura.Allocation of seats
• As far as possible, every state gets representation in the Lok Sabha in proportion to its population as per census figures.Electoral Rolls
• The 1950 Act permits the registration of persons in electoral rolls who are ordinarily resident in a constituency and persons holding:
• Service qualification such as a member of armed forces, member of the armed police force of a state, serving outside the state, or central government employees posted outside India.
• Certain offices in India declared by the President in consultation with ECI.
• The wives of such persons are also deemed to be ordinarily residing in India. There is a proposal for making some provisions gender-neutral by replacing the term ‘wife’ with ‘spouse’.RPA, 1950 Schedules
• The First Schedule: Allocation of seats in the House of the People
• The Second Schedule: Total number of seats in the Legislative Assemblies
• The Third Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Legislative Councils
• The Fourth Schedule: Local authorities for purposes of elections to Legislative Councils -
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsSelect the correct statement/s from the following.
1. In Lok Sabha, there is a reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
2. The Governor has the power to determine the constituencies to be reserved for scheduled tribes in the states of Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura.Correct
Delimiting Constituencies
• The President of India has been conferred the power to amend orders delimiting constituencies, only after consulting the Election Commission of India (ECI).
• In Lok Sabha, there is a reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The ECI has the power to determine the constituencies to be reserved for scheduled tribes in the states of Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.Incorrect
Delimiting Constituencies
• The President of India has been conferred the power to amend orders delimiting constituencies, only after consulting the Election Commission of India (ECI).
• In Lok Sabha, there is a reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The ECI has the power to determine the constituencies to be reserved for scheduled tribes in the states of Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. -
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to Right to Vote.
1. Representation of the People Act (RPA),1951 ensures that every person who is in the electoral roll of that constituency is entitled to vote.
2. One person can vote at one constituency only.
3. A person is not eligible for voting in the case of preventive custody.
4. The Act allows those serving sentences less than 2 years to contest elections from prison.Correct
Right to Vote
• Apart from Article 326 of the Constitution ( that guarantees the right to vote to every citizen above the age of 18 years, unless disqualified by any law), Section 62 of the RPA,1951 also ensures that every person who is in the electoral roll of that constituency is entitled to vote.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• One person can vote at one constituency only and only for one time in a particular election.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• If a person is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation, then he is not eligible for voting, however, in the case of preventive custody, he can vote.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
– In 2014, the ECI had said that the person under preventive custody had the right to vote, but not under-trials and convicts.
– However, the Act allows those serving sentences less than 2 years to contest elections from prison.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.Incorrect
Right to Vote
• Apart from Article 326 of the Constitution ( that guarantees the right to vote to every citizen above the age of 18 years, unless disqualified by any law), Section 62 of the RPA,1951 also ensures that every person who is in the electoral roll of that constituency is entitled to vote.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• One person can vote at one constituency only and only for one time in a particular election.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• If a person is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation, then he is not eligible for voting, however, in the case of preventive custody, he can vote.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
– In 2014, the ECI had said that the person under preventive custody had the right to vote, but not under-trials and convicts.
– However, the Act allows those serving sentences less than 2 years to contest elections from prison.
Hence, statement 4 is correct. -
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the key provisions of the Representation of the People Act (RPA),1951.
1. Actual conduct of by-elections.
2. Registration of political parties.
3. Allocation of seats.
4. Settling doubts and disputes arising out of elections.Correct
The Representation of the People Act (RPA),1951 Key Provisions
• It regulates the actual conduct of elections and by-elections.
• It provides administrative machinery for conducting elections.
• It deals with the registration of political parties.
• It specifies the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of the Houses.
• It provides provisions to curb corrupt practices and other offences.
• It lays down the procedure for settling doubts and disputes arising out of elections.Provision for allocation of seats is under Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1950.
Incorrect
The Representation of the People Act (RPA),1951 Key Provisions
• It regulates the actual conduct of elections and by-elections.
• It provides administrative machinery for conducting elections.
• It deals with the registration of political parties.
• It specifies the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of the Houses.
• It provides provisions to curb corrupt practices and other offences.
• It lays down the procedure for settling doubts and disputes arising out of elections.Provision for allocation of seats is under Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1950.
-
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsPeople’s Union for Civil Liberties vs. Union of India case (2013) is related to: Correct
VVPAT: Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail is an independent system attached with the EVMs that allows voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended. It was introduced in 2013, after the SC allowed the ECI for the ‘requirement of free and fair elections’ in its verdict in the People’s Union for Civil Liberties vs. Union of India case (2013). Incorrect
VVPAT: Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail is an independent system attached with the EVMs that allows voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended. It was introduced in 2013, after the SC allowed the ECI for the ‘requirement of free and fair elections’ in its verdict in the People’s Union for Civil Liberties vs. Union of India case (2013). -
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements in reference to the voluntary contributions made to a political party.
1. A company can donate any amount of money to any political party.
2. There is an obligation of the company to report such donations in its profit and loss account.
3. It is mandatory for the political parties to submit to the Election Commission of India a list of donations they received above Rs. 10,000.
4. Political parties are eligible to accept contributions from foreign companies.
Select the correct code from the codes given below.Correct
Voluntary Contributions
• Voluntary contributions by any person or company within India ( other than a government company) can be accepted by the registered political party.
• A company can donate any amount of money to any political party.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• There is no obligation of the company to report such donations in its profit and loss account.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is mandatory for the political parties to submit to the ECI a list of donations they received above Rs. 2,000.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Political parties cannot receive more than Rs 2000 as cash donations.
• Now, political parties are eligible to accept contributions from foreign companies defined under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.Incorrect
Voluntary Contributions
• Voluntary contributions by any person or company within India ( other than a government company) can be accepted by the registered political party.
• A company can donate any amount of money to any political party.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• There is no obligation of the company to report such donations in its profit and loss account.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is mandatory for the political parties to submit to the ECI a list of donations they received above Rs. 2,000.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Political parties cannot receive more than Rs 2000 as cash donations.
• Now, political parties are eligible to accept contributions from foreign companies defined under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.
Hence, statement 4 is correct. -
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsIdentify the correct statemnet/s with respect to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas (Amendment) Bill, 2016.
1. It enables the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha to be a member of the selection committee in the absence of a recognized Leader of Opposition.
2. It replaced the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013.
3. It removed the period of 30 days for furnishing of details of assets and liabilities of public servants.Correct
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas (Amendment) Bill, 2016
• This Bill was passed by Parliament in July 2016 and amended the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It enables the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha to be a member of the selection committee in the absence of a recognized Leader of Opposition.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It also amended section 44 of the 2013 Act that deals with the provision of furnishing of details of assets and liabilities of public servants within 30 days of joining the government service.
– The Bill replaces the time limit of 30 days, now the public servants will make a declaration of their assets and liabilities in the form and manner as prescribed by the government.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• It also gives an extension of the time given to trustees and board members to declare their assets and those of their spouses in case of these are receiving government funds of more than Rs. 1 crore or foreign funding of more than Rs. 10 lakh.Tikdam:
The name of the Bill (Lokpal and Lokayuktas (Amendment) Bill, 2016) itself clearly tells that it provides for some amendments in an earlier Act and is not a replacement over it.Incorrect
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas (Amendment) Bill, 2016
• This Bill was passed by Parliament in July 2016 and amended the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It enables the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha to be a member of the selection committee in the absence of a recognized Leader of Opposition.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It also amended section 44 of the 2013 Act that deals with the provision of furnishing of details of assets and liabilities of public servants within 30 days of joining the government service.
– The Bill replaces the time limit of 30 days, now the public servants will make a declaration of their assets and liabilities in the form and manner as prescribed by the government.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• It also gives an extension of the time given to trustees and board members to declare their assets and those of their spouses in case of these are receiving government funds of more than Rs. 1 crore or foreign funding of more than Rs. 10 lakh.Tikdam:
The name of the Bill (Lokpal and Lokayuktas (Amendment) Bill, 2016) itself clearly tells that it provides for some amendments in an earlier Act and is not a replacement over it. -
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements in context to the Jurisdiction and Powers of Lokpal.
1. The Lokpal does not have jurisdiction over Ministers and MPs in the matter of anything said in Parliament or a vote given there.
2. It cannot give direction to Central Bureau of Investigation.
3. The Inquiry Wing of the Lokpal has been vested with the powers of a criminal court.
Select the correct code from the codes given below.Correct
Lokpal Jurisdiction and Powers
• Jurisdiction of Lokpal includes Prime Minister, Ministers, members of Parliament, Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials of Central Government.
• Jurisdiction of the Lokpal included the Prime Minister except on allegations of corruption relating to international relations, security, the public order, atomic energy and space.
• The Lokpal does not have jurisdiction over Ministers and MPs in the matter of anything said in Parliament or a vote given there.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Its jurisdiction also includes any person who is or has been in charge (director/ manager/ secretary) of anybody/ society set up by central act or any other body financed/ controlled by central government and any other person involved in act of abetting, bribe giving or bribe taking.
• The Lokpal Act mandates that all public officials should furnish the assets and liabilities of themselves as well as their respective dependents.
• It has the powers to superintendence over, and to give direction to CBI.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
– If Lokpal has referred a case to CBI, the investigating officer in such case cannot be transferred without the approval of Lokpal.
• The Inquiry Wing of the Lokpal has been vested with the powers of a civil court.
Lokpal has powers of confiscation of assets, proceeds, receipts and benefits arisen or procured by means of corruption in special circumstances.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Lokpal has the power to recommend transfer or suspension of public servant connected with allegation of corruption.
• Lokpal has the power to give directions to prevent the destruction of records during the preliminary inquiry.Incorrect
Lokpal Jurisdiction and Powers
• Jurisdiction of Lokpal includes Prime Minister, Ministers, members of Parliament, Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials of Central Government.
• Jurisdiction of the Lokpal included the Prime Minister except on allegations of corruption relating to international relations, security, the public order, atomic energy and space.
• The Lokpal does not have jurisdiction over Ministers and MPs in the matter of anything said in Parliament or a vote given there.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Its jurisdiction also includes any person who is or has been in charge (director/ manager/ secretary) of anybody/ society set up by central act or any other body financed/ controlled by central government and any other person involved in act of abetting, bribe giving or bribe taking.
• The Lokpal Act mandates that all public officials should furnish the assets and liabilities of themselves as well as their respective dependents.
• It has the powers to superintendence over, and to give direction to CBI.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
– If Lokpal has referred a case to CBI, the investigating officer in such case cannot be transferred without the approval of Lokpal.
• The Inquiry Wing of the Lokpal has been vested with the powers of a civil court.
Lokpal has powers of confiscation of assets, proceeds, receipts and benefits arisen or procured by means of corruption in special circumstances.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Lokpal has the power to recommend transfer or suspension of public servant connected with allegation of corruption.
• Lokpal has the power to give directions to prevent the destruction of records during the preliminary inquiry. -
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsIdentify from the following the service matters over which the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) can exercise its original jurisdiction.
1. Members of the all-India services.
2. Persons appointed to any civil service of the Union or civil post under the Union.
3. Members of the defence forces.
4. Employees of PSUs or public sector organizations notified by the government.Correct
Central Administrative Tribunal Jurisdiction
• The CAT exercises original jurisdiction over all service matters concerned with:
1. Members of the all-India services.
2. Persons appointed to any civil service of the Union or civil post under the Union.
3. Civilians appointed to any defence services or posts related to defence.
4. Employees of PSUs or public sector organizations notified by the government.Members of the defence forces, officers, Supreme Court staff, the Parliament’s secretarial staff are not covered under the CAT.
Incorrect
Central Administrative Tribunal Jurisdiction
• The CAT exercises original jurisdiction over all service matters concerned with:
1. Members of the all-India services.
2. Persons appointed to any civil service of the Union or civil post under the Union.
3. Civilians appointed to any defence services or posts related to defence.
4. Employees of PSUs or public sector organizations notified by the government.Members of the defence forces, officers, Supreme Court staff, the Parliament’s secretarial staff are not covered under the CAT.
-
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following matters is/are covered under Article 323B?
1. Taxation
2. Foreign exchange, import and export
3. Ceiling on urban property
4. Elections to Parliament and state legislaturesCorrect
Under Article 323 B, the Parliament and the state legislatures are authorised to provide for the establishment of tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to the following matters:
• Taxation
• Foreign exchange, import and export
• Industrial and labour
• Land reforms
• Ceiling on urban property
• Elections to Parliament and state legislatures
• Food stuff
• Rent and tenancy rightsIncorrect
Under Article 323 B, the Parliament and the state legislatures are authorised to provide for the establishment of tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to the following matters:
• Taxation
• Foreign exchange, import and export
• Industrial and labour
• Land reforms
• Ceiling on urban property
• Elections to Parliament and state legislatures
• Food stuff
• Rent and tenancy rights -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsSelect the correct statements from the following with respect to Public Interest Litigation (PIL).
1. Any citizen can file a petition under Art 32 of the Indian Constitution in the Supreme Court.
2. A Public Interest Litigation can be filed against a State Government as well as any private party.Correct
Who Can File a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) and Against Whom?
• Any citizen can file a public case by filing a petition:
– Under Art 32 of the Indian Constitution, in the Supreme Court. (Hence, statement 1 is correct).
– Under Art 226 of the Indian Constitution, in the High Court.
– Under sec. 133 of the Criminal Procedure Code, in the Court of Magistrate.
• However, the court must be satisfied that the Writ petition fulfils some basic needs for PIL as the letter is addressed by the aggrieved person, public spirited individual and a social action group for the enforcement of legal or Constitutional rights to any person who are not able to approach the court for redress.
• A Public Interest Litigation can be filed against a State/ Central Govt., Municipal Authorities, and not any private party. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect).
The definition of State is the same as given under Article 12 of the Constitution and this includes the Governmental and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.Incorrect
Who Can File a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) and Against Whom?
• Any citizen can file a public case by filing a petition:
– Under Art 32 of the Indian Constitution, in the Supreme Court. (Hence, statement 1 is correct).
– Under Art 226 of the Indian Constitution, in the High Court.
– Under sec. 133 of the Criminal Procedure Code, in the Court of Magistrate.
• However, the court must be satisfied that the Writ petition fulfils some basic needs for PIL as the letter is addressed by the aggrieved person, public spirited individual and a social action group for the enforcement of legal or Constitutional rights to any person who are not able to approach the court for redress.
• A Public Interest Litigation can be filed against a State/ Central Govt., Municipal Authorities, and not any private party. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect).
The definition of State is the same as given under Article 12 of the Constitution and this includes the Governmental and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India. -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following pair/s is/are correctly matched?
1. Habeas Corpus – to direct the release of a person detained unlawfully.
2. Mandamus – to direct a public authority to do its duty.
3. Quo Warranto – power of the higher court to remove a proceeding from a lower court and bring it before itself.
4. Prohibition – to prohibit a lower court from proceeding on a case.
5. Certiorari – to direct a person to vacate an office assumed wrongfully.Correct
The entitlement to constitutional remedies is a fundamental right and can be enforced in the form of writs evolved in common law – • Habeas Corpus – to direct the release of a person detained unlawfully.
• Mandamus – to direct a public authority to do its duty.
• Quo Warranto – to direct a person to vacate an office assumed wrongfully.
• Prohibition – to prohibit a lower court from proceeding on a case.
• Certiorari – power of the higher court to remove a proceeding from a lower court and bring it before itself.Incorrect
The entitlement to constitutional remedies is a fundamental right and can be enforced in the form of writs evolved in common law – • Habeas Corpus – to direct the release of a person detained unlawfully.
• Mandamus – to direct a public authority to do its duty.
• Quo Warranto – to direct a person to vacate an office assumed wrongfully.
• Prohibition – to prohibit a lower court from proceeding on a case.
• Certiorari – power of the higher court to remove a proceeding from a lower court and bring it before itself. -
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following change/s was/were made by 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011?
1. It gave a constitutional status to municipalities.
2. It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution.
3. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of cooperative societies.Correct
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
In this context, it made the following three changes in the Constitution:
1. It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19).
2. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43-B).
3. It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled as “The Cooperative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).Incorrect
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
In this context, it made the following three changes in the Constitution:
1. It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19).
2. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43-B).
3. It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled as “The Cooperative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT). -
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsIdentify from the following the languges that were initially included in the Constitution.
1. Gujarati
2. Kashmiri
3. Konkani
4. Malayalam
5. Manipuri
6. MarathiCorrect
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese
(2) Bengali
(3) Gujarati
(4) Hindi
(5) Kannada
(6) Kashmiri
(7) Konkani
(8) Malayalam
(9) Manipuri
(10) Marathi
(11) Nepali
(12) Oriya
(13) Punjabi
(14) Sanskrit
(15) Sindhi
(16) Tamil
(17) Telugu
(18) Urdu
(19) Bodo
(20) Santhali
(21) Maithili and
(22) Dogri.
• Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution.
• Sindhi language was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967.
• Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were included by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992.
• Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added by 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.Incorrect
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese
(2) Bengali
(3) Gujarati
(4) Hindi
(5) Kannada
(6) Kashmiri
(7) Konkani
(8) Malayalam
(9) Manipuri
(10) Marathi
(11) Nepali
(12) Oriya
(13) Punjabi
(14) Sanskrit
(15) Sindhi
(16) Tamil
(17) Telugu
(18) Urdu
(19) Bodo
(20) Santhali
(21) Maithili and
(22) Dogri.
• Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution.
• Sindhi language was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967.
• Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were included by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992.
• Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added by 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
Leaderboard: 13th Sept 2021 | Environment Test 02
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