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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP):
1. This scheme is a sub component of the Deendayal Antodaya Yojana- National Rural Livelihood Mission.
2. It strives to build the capacity of women in the domain of agro-ecologically sustainable practices.
3. It is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The government has said that under the schemes implemented DA&FW at least 30 percent of the expenditure allocated for agricultural schemes is being incurred for women to bring them into mainstream agriculture.
Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP)
• Launched in 2011, the “Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana” (MKSP) is a sub component of the Deendayal Antodaya Yojana-NRLM (DAY-NRLM). Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
• It seeks to improve the present status of women in Agriculture, and to enhance the opportunities available to empower her.
• It recognizes the identity of “Mahila” as “Kisan” and strives to build the capacity of women in the domain of agro-ecologically sustainable practices. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.
• The focus of MKSP is on Capacitating smallholders to adopt sustainable climate resilient agro-ecology and eventually create a pool of skilled community professionals.
• The Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (DA&FW), Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare is the nodal agency. Hence statement 3 is NOT CORRECT.Incorrect
Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The government has said that under the schemes implemented DA&FW at least 30 percent of the expenditure allocated for agricultural schemes is being incurred for women to bring them into mainstream agriculture.
Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana (MKSP)
• Launched in 2011, the “Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana” (MKSP) is a sub component of the Deendayal Antodaya Yojana-NRLM (DAY-NRLM). Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
• It seeks to improve the present status of women in Agriculture, and to enhance the opportunities available to empower her.
• It recognizes the identity of “Mahila” as “Kisan” and strives to build the capacity of women in the domain of agro-ecologically sustainable practices. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.
• The focus of MKSP is on Capacitating smallholders to adopt sustainable climate resilient agro-ecology and eventually create a pool of skilled community professionals.
• The Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (DA&FW), Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare is the nodal agency. Hence statement 3 is NOT CORRECT. -
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the given statements regarding the Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs) is CORRECT?
Correct
Only Option C is CORRECT.
Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs)
• It is a partnership in which some or all partners have limited liability. It therefore exhibits elements of partnerships and corporations. Hence option (a) is NOT CORRECT.
• It allows for a partnership structure where each partner’s liabilities are limited to the amount they put into the business.
• An LLP is a corporate body and legal entity separate from its partners. It has perpetual succession.
• In an LLP, one partner is not responsible or liable for another partner’s misconduct or negligence.
• Limited liability means that if the partnership fails, then creditors cannot go after a partner’s personal assets or income. Hence option (b) is NOT CORRECT.
• LLPs are common in professional business-like law firms, accounting firms and wealth managers.
• Being the separate legislation (i.e. LLP Act, 2008), the provisions of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 are not applicable to an LLP and it is regulated by the contractual agreement between the partners.Incorrect
Only Option C is CORRECT.
Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs)
• It is a partnership in which some or all partners have limited liability. It therefore exhibits elements of partnerships and corporations. Hence option (a) is NOT CORRECT.
• It allows for a partnership structure where each partner’s liabilities are limited to the amount they put into the business.
• An LLP is a corporate body and legal entity separate from its partners. It has perpetual succession.
• In an LLP, one partner is not responsible or liable for another partner’s misconduct or negligence.
• Limited liability means that if the partnership fails, then creditors cannot go after a partner’s personal assets or income. Hence option (b) is NOT CORRECT.
• LLPs are common in professional business-like law firms, accounting firms and wealth managers.
• Being the separate legislation (i.e. LLP Act, 2008), the provisions of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 are not applicable to an LLP and it is regulated by the contractual agreement between the partners. -
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the PM-DAKSH Yojana:
1. It is a National Action Plan for the marginalized persons of SC, OBC, Economically BC (EBC), Senior Citizens, De- notified Tribes (DNTs), Safai karamcharies including waste pickers, and women.
2. It aims to empower the socially, educationally and economically marginalized sections of the society, by providing skill development training programmes to the eligible target groups.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
PM-DAKSH Yojana
• The Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi (PM-DAKSH) Yojana is being implemented by the MoSJ&E from 2020-21.
• It is a National Action Plan for the marginalized persons of SC, OBC, Economically BC (EBC), Senior Citizens, De- notified Tribes (DNTs), Safai karamcharies including waste pickers, and women.
Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
• Through this scheme, MoSJ&E empowers the socially, educationally and economically marginalized sections of the society, by providing skill development training programmes to the eligible target groups on,
1. Up-skilling/Re-skilling,
2. Short Term and Long Term Training Programmes, and
3. Entrepreneurship Development Program (EDP).
Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
PM-DAKSH Yojana
• The Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi (PM-DAKSH) Yojana is being implemented by the MoSJ&E from 2020-21.
• It is a National Action Plan for the marginalized persons of SC, OBC, Economically BC (EBC), Senior Citizens, De- notified Tribes (DNTs), Safai karamcharies including waste pickers, and women.
Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
• Through this scheme, MoSJ&E empowers the socially, educationally and economically marginalized sections of the society, by providing skill development training programmes to the eligible target groups on,
1. Up-skilling/Re-skilling,
2. Short Term and Long Term Training Programmes, and
3. Entrepreneurship Development Program (EDP).
Hence statement 2 is CORRECT. -
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ‘National Mission on Edible Oil-Oil Palm’ (NMEO-OP):
1. The special emphasis of the scheme for increasing Palm Oil production will be in Southern Indian states due to the conducive weather conditions in the regions.
2. Palm oil is the world’s most consumed vegetable oil.
3. The Yellow Revolution was launched to increase the production of Edible oilseeds in the country.
4. India is the second largest consumer of vegetable oil in the world after China.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
‘National Mission on Edible Oil-Oil Palm’ (NMEO-OP)
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct and statements 1 and 4 are wrong.
• The scheme, called National Edible Oil Mission-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP), for self-reliance in edible oil involves investment of over Rs. 11,000 crore (over a five year period).
• Aims:
o To harness domestic edible oil prices that are dictated by expensive palm oil imports.
o To raise the domestic production of palm oil by three times to 11 lakh MT by 2025-26.
• This will involve raising the area under oil palm cultivation to 10 lakh hectares by 2025-26 and 16.7 lakh hectares by 2029-30.
• The special emphasis of the scheme will be in India’s north-eastern states and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands due to the conducive weather conditions in the regions. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
• Under the scheme, oil palm farmers will be provided financial assistance and will get remuneration under a price and viability formula.
• Reduction in Import dependence: It is expected to incentivize production of palm oil to reduce dependence on imports and help farmers cash in on the huge market.
• India is the largest consumer of vegetable oil in the world. Of this, palm oil imports are almost 55% of its total vegetable oil imports. Hence statement 4 is wrong.
• India produces less than half of the roughly 2.4 crore tonnes of edible oil that it consumes annually. It imports the rest, buying palm oil from Indonesia and Malaysia, soyoil from Brazil and Argentina, and sunflower oil, mainly from Russia and Ukraine.
• In India, 94.1% of its palm oil is used in food products, especially for cooking purposes. This makes palm oil extremely critical to India’s edible oils economy.
• Palm oil is currently the world’s most consumed vegetable oil. It is used extensively in the production of detergents, plastics, cosmetics, and biofuels.
• Top consumers of the commodity are India, China, and the European Union (EU).
• The Yellow Revolution is one of the colour revolutions that was launched to increase the production of Edible oilseeds in the country to meet domestic demand.Incorrect
‘National Mission on Edible Oil-Oil Palm’ (NMEO-OP)
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct and statements 1 and 4 are wrong.
• The scheme, called National Edible Oil Mission-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP), for self-reliance in edible oil involves investment of over Rs. 11,000 crore (over a five year period).
• Aims:
o To harness domestic edible oil prices that are dictated by expensive palm oil imports.
o To raise the domestic production of palm oil by three times to 11 lakh MT by 2025-26.
• This will involve raising the area under oil palm cultivation to 10 lakh hectares by 2025-26 and 16.7 lakh hectares by 2029-30.
• The special emphasis of the scheme will be in India’s north-eastern states and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands due to the conducive weather conditions in the regions. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
• Under the scheme, oil palm farmers will be provided financial assistance and will get remuneration under a price and viability formula.
• Reduction in Import dependence: It is expected to incentivize production of palm oil to reduce dependence on imports and help farmers cash in on the huge market.
• India is the largest consumer of vegetable oil in the world. Of this, palm oil imports are almost 55% of its total vegetable oil imports. Hence statement 4 is wrong.
• India produces less than half of the roughly 2.4 crore tonnes of edible oil that it consumes annually. It imports the rest, buying palm oil from Indonesia and Malaysia, soyoil from Brazil and Argentina, and sunflower oil, mainly from Russia and Ukraine.
• In India, 94.1% of its palm oil is used in food products, especially for cooking purposes. This makes palm oil extremely critical to India’s edible oils economy.
• Palm oil is currently the world’s most consumed vegetable oil. It is used extensively in the production of detergents, plastics, cosmetics, and biofuels.
• Top consumers of the commodity are India, China, and the European Union (EU).
• The Yellow Revolution is one of the colour revolutions that was launched to increase the production of Edible oilseeds in the country to meet domestic demand. -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 pointsThe “Seekho aur Kamao Scheme” sometimes seen in news is an initiative of the:
Correct
Answer: (b)
Seekho aur Kamao Scheme
Union Minister for Minority Affairs has informed Rajya Sabha about progress of the Seekho aur Kamao Scheme.
• Seekho aur Kamao (Learn & Earn)is a scheme implemented by Ministry of Minority Affairs since 2013-14 and is aimed at skill development of minorities.
• It is a Skill development scheme for the youth of the 14 – 35 years age group.
• It aims at providing employment and employment opportunities, improving the employability of existing workers, school dropouts etc.Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Seekho aur Kamao Scheme
Union Minister for Minority Affairs has informed Rajya Sabha about progress of the Seekho aur Kamao Scheme.
• Seekho aur Kamao (Learn & Earn)is a scheme implemented by Ministry of Minority Affairs since 2013-14 and is aimed at skill development of minorities.
• It is a Skill development scheme for the youth of the 14 – 35 years age group.
• It aims at providing employment and employment opportunities, improving the employability of existing workers, school dropouts etc. -
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the given statements about the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is/are NOT correct?
1. ONDC seeks to promote open networks, which are developed using the Open-Source Methodology.
2. It aims to facilitate a platform that can be utilized by all online retailers.
3. It is modelled around the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) project.
Select the correct options from the codes given below:Correct
All statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)
• The Union government is working on setting up an Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) to “democratise e-commerce” and “to provide alternatives to proprietary e-commerce sites”.
• The government wants to change the fundamental structure of the e-commerce market from the current “platform-centric model to an open-network model”.
• The ONDC project is modelled around the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) project that is seen as a success by many.
• The UPI project allows people to send or receive money irrespective of the payments platforms on which they are registered. Similarly, the government wants to ensure that buyers and sellers of goods in the e-commerce market can transact regardless of the platforms on which they are registered.
• So under ONDC, a buyer registered on Amazon, for example, may directly purchase goods from a seller who sells on Flipkart.Incorrect
All statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)
• The Union government is working on setting up an Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) to “democratise e-commerce” and “to provide alternatives to proprietary e-commerce sites”.
• The government wants to change the fundamental structure of the e-commerce market from the current “platform-centric model to an open-network model”.
• The ONDC project is modelled around the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) project that is seen as a success by many.
• The UPI project allows people to send or receive money irrespective of the payments platforms on which they are registered. Similarly, the government wants to ensure that buyers and sellers of goods in the e-commerce market can transact regardless of the platforms on which they are registered.
• So under ONDC, a buyer registered on Amazon, for example, may directly purchase goods from a seller who sells on Flipkart. -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Gene Bank:
1. It was established on the onset of Green Revolution in India.
2. It aims for in-situ germplasm conservation.
3. It stores different crop groups such as cereals, millets, medicinal and aromatic plants as well as narcotics.
4. It is worlds largest gene bank located in Bengaluru.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Only statement 3 is CORRECT.
The Union Agriculture Minister has inaugurated the world’s second-largest refurbished gene bank at the National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources.
National Gene Bank
• The National Gene Bank was established in the year 1996 to preserve the seeds of Plant Genetic Resources (PGR) for future generations. Hence statement 1 is NOT CORRECT.
• It has the capacity to preserve about one million germplasm in the form of seeds.
• Presently it is protecting 4.52 lakh accessions, of which 2.7 lakh are Indian germplasm and the rest have been imported from other countries.
• National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources is meeting the need of in-situ and ex-situ germplasm conservation through Delhi Headquarters and 10 regional stations in the country. Hence statement 2 is NOT CORRECT.
Key facilities provided
• The NGB has four kinds of facilities to cater to long-term as well as medium-term conservation namely:
1. Seed Gene bank (- 18°C),
2. Cryo gene bank (-170°C to -196°C),
3. In-vitro Gene bank (25°C), and
4. Field Gene bank
• It stores different crop groups such as cereals, millets, medicinal and aromatic plants, and narcotics, etc.
Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.
What is the latest update?
• This is the world’s second-largest gene bank located in the national capital. It has the capacity to preserve about one million germplasm in the form of seeds. Hence statement 4 is NOT CORRECT.Incorrect
Only statement 3 is CORRECT.
The Union Agriculture Minister has inaugurated the world’s second-largest refurbished gene bank at the National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources.
National Gene Bank
• The National Gene Bank was established in the year 1996 to preserve the seeds of Plant Genetic Resources (PGR) for future generations. Hence statement 1 is NOT CORRECT.
• It has the capacity to preserve about one million germplasm in the form of seeds.
• Presently it is protecting 4.52 lakh accessions, of which 2.7 lakh are Indian germplasm and the rest have been imported from other countries.
• National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources is meeting the need of in-situ and ex-situ germplasm conservation through Delhi Headquarters and 10 regional stations in the country. Hence statement 2 is NOT CORRECT.
Key facilities provided
• The NGB has four kinds of facilities to cater to long-term as well as medium-term conservation namely:
1. Seed Gene bank (- 18°C),
2. Cryo gene bank (-170°C to -196°C),
3. In-vitro Gene bank (25°C), and
4. Field Gene bank
• It stores different crop groups such as cereals, millets, medicinal and aromatic plants, and narcotics, etc.
Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.
What is the latest update?
• This is the world’s second-largest gene bank located in the national capital. It has the capacity to preserve about one million germplasm in the form of seeds. Hence statement 4 is NOT CORRECT. -
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsBH number series is a newly introduced number series for vehicle registration across India. Consider the following statement with respect to the Bharat series (BH-series) for Vehicles:
1. The BH series will replace the state letters in the number plate denoting the state of vehicle registration, like UP or DL.
2. The vehicle registration facility under the ‘BH’ series will be available only to defence personnel, employees of Central government, state governments, Central/State PSUs.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Both the statements are correct.
Bharat series (BH-series) of Vehicles
• There was a procedure of re-registration of a vehicle while moving to another state.
• A vehicle bearing BH registration mark shall not require assignment of a new registration mark when the owner of the vehicle shifts from one State to another.
• Format of Bharat series (BH-series) Registration Mark –
Registration Mark Format: YY BH #### XX
Who can get this BH series?
• BH-series will be available on voluntary basis to Defense personnel, employees of Central Government/ State Government/ Central/ State PSUs and private sector companies/organizations.
Hence statement 2 is also CORRECT.
• The motor vehicle tax will be levied for two years or in multiple of two.
• This scheme will facilitate free movement of personal vehicles across States/UTs of India upon relocation to a new State/UT.Incorrect
Both the statements are correct.
Bharat series (BH-series) of Vehicles
• There was a procedure of re-registration of a vehicle while moving to another state.
• A vehicle bearing BH registration mark shall not require assignment of a new registration mark when the owner of the vehicle shifts from one State to another.
• Format of Bharat series (BH-series) Registration Mark –
Registration Mark Format: YY BH #### XX
Who can get this BH series?
• BH-series will be available on voluntary basis to Defense personnel, employees of Central Government/ State Government/ Central/ State PSUs and private sector companies/organizations.
Hence statement 2 is also CORRECT.
• The motor vehicle tax will be levied for two years or in multiple of two.
• This scheme will facilitate free movement of personal vehicles across States/UTs of India upon relocation to a new State/UT. -
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsRecently India became the 4th largest forex reserves holder globally. India’s forex reserves cover:
1. Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs)
2. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
3. Gold Reserves
4. Reserve Position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Arrange these in the ascending (increasing) order:Correct
Answer: (a)
• India’s forex reserves cover Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs), Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), Gold Reserves and the country’s reserve position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• The growth in foreign exchange reserves was largely due to an increase in Foreign Currency Assets (FCA). According to RBI’s weekly data, FCAs rose by $463 million to $568.748 billion.
• Gold reserves were up by $377 million to $37.333 billion.
• The country’s reserve position with the IMF declined by $7 million to $5.1 billion during the reporting week, the data showed.
• The Special Drawing Rights (SDR) with the International Monetary Fund (IMF) were up by $1 million at $1.548 billion.
What is Foreign Exchange Reserve?
• Foreign exchange reserves are important assets held by the central bank in foreign currencies as reserves.
• They are commonly used to support the exchange rate and set monetary policy.
• In India’s case, foreign reserves include Gold, Dollars, and the IMF’s quota for Special Drawing Rights.
• Most of the reserves are usually held in US dollars, given the currency’s importance in the international financial and trading system.
• Some central banks keep reserves in Euros, British pounds, Japanese yen, or Chinese yuan, in addition to their US dollar reserves.
Countries with the highest foreign reserves
Currently, China has the largest reserves followed by Japan and Switzerland. India has overtaken Russia to become the fourth largest country with foreign exchange reserves.
1. China – $3,349 Billion
2. Japan – $1,376 Billion
3. Switzerland – $1,074 Billion
4. India – $612.73 Billion
5. Russia – $597.40 BillionIncorrect
Answer: (a)
• India’s forex reserves cover Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs), Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), Gold Reserves and the country’s reserve position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• The growth in foreign exchange reserves was largely due to an increase in Foreign Currency Assets (FCA). According to RBI’s weekly data, FCAs rose by $463 million to $568.748 billion.
• Gold reserves were up by $377 million to $37.333 billion.
• The country’s reserve position with the IMF declined by $7 million to $5.1 billion during the reporting week, the data showed.
• The Special Drawing Rights (SDR) with the International Monetary Fund (IMF) were up by $1 million at $1.548 billion.
What is Foreign Exchange Reserve?
• Foreign exchange reserves are important assets held by the central bank in foreign currencies as reserves.
• They are commonly used to support the exchange rate and set monetary policy.
• In India’s case, foreign reserves include Gold, Dollars, and the IMF’s quota for Special Drawing Rights.
• Most of the reserves are usually held in US dollars, given the currency’s importance in the international financial and trading system.
• Some central banks keep reserves in Euros, British pounds, Japanese yen, or Chinese yuan, in addition to their US dollar reserves.
Countries with the highest foreign reserves
Currently, China has the largest reserves followed by Japan and Switzerland. India has overtaken Russia to become the fourth largest country with foreign exchange reserves.
1. China – $3,349 Billion
2. Japan – $1,376 Billion
3. Switzerland – $1,074 Billion
4. India – $612.73 Billion
5. Russia – $597.40 Billion -
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following banks are insured by the Deposit insurance and credit guarantee corporation (DICGC)?
1. Foreign banks functioning in India
2. Regional rural banks
3. Co-operative banks
4. Local area banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given belowCorrect
About DICGC
• Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is a specialised division of Reserve Bank of India which is under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Finance.
• DICGC insures all bank deposits, such as saving, fixed, current, recurring deposit for up to the limit of Rs. 500,000 of each depositor in a bank.
Which banks are insured by the DICGC?
• All commercial banks including branches of foreign banks functioning in India, local area banks and regional rural banks are insured by the DICGC.
• All State, Central and Primary cooperative banks, also called urban cooperative banks, functioning in States / Union Territories which have amended the local Cooperative Societies Act empowering the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to order the Registrar of Cooperative Societies of the State / Union Territory to wind up a cooperative bank or to supersede its committee of management and requiring the Registrar not to take any action regarding winding up, amalgamation or reconstruction of a co-operative bank without prior sanction in writing from the RBI are covered under the Deposit Insurance Scheme.
• At present all co-operative banks are covered by the DICGC.Incorrect
About DICGC
• Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is a specialised division of Reserve Bank of India which is under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Finance.
• DICGC insures all bank deposits, such as saving, fixed, current, recurring deposit for up to the limit of Rs. 500,000 of each depositor in a bank.
Which banks are insured by the DICGC?
• All commercial banks including branches of foreign banks functioning in India, local area banks and regional rural banks are insured by the DICGC.
• All State, Central and Primary cooperative banks, also called urban cooperative banks, functioning in States / Union Territories which have amended the local Cooperative Societies Act empowering the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to order the Registrar of Cooperative Societies of the State / Union Territory to wind up a cooperative bank or to supersede its committee of management and requiring the Registrar not to take any action regarding winding up, amalgamation or reconstruction of a co-operative bank without prior sanction in writing from the RBI are covered under the Deposit Insurance Scheme.
• At present all co-operative banks are covered by the DICGC. -
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2021:
1. The manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of the identified single-use plastic will be prohibited.
2. The permitted thickness of the plastic bags, currently 50 microns is increased to 500 microns.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Only statement 1 is CORRECT.
Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021
• The manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of the identified single-use plastic will be prohibited with effect from the 1st July, 2022. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
• The ban will not apply to commodities made of compostable plastic.
• For banning other plastic commodities in the future, other than those that have been listed in this notification, the government has given industry ten years from the date of notification for compliance.
• The permitted thickness of the plastic bags, currently 50 microns, will be increased to 75 microns from 30th September, 2021, and to 120 microns from the 31st December, 2022. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.
• The Central Pollution Control Board, along with state pollution bodies, will monitor the ban, identify violations, and impose penalties already prescribed under the Environmental Protection Act, 1986.Incorrect
Only statement 1 is CORRECT.
Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021
• The manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of the identified single-use plastic will be prohibited with effect from the 1st July, 2022. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
• The ban will not apply to commodities made of compostable plastic.
• For banning other plastic commodities in the future, other than those that have been listed in this notification, the government has given industry ten years from the date of notification for compliance.
• The permitted thickness of the plastic bags, currently 50 microns, will be increased to 75 microns from 30th September, 2021, and to 120 microns from the 31st December, 2022. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.
• The Central Pollution Control Board, along with state pollution bodies, will monitor the ban, identify violations, and impose penalties already prescribed under the Environmental Protection Act, 1986. -
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsThe Ubharte Sitaare Fund recently seen in news is related to:
Correct
Ubharte Sitaare Fund
• Ubharte Sitaare fund is a type of Alternative investment fund.
• It is anchored by India Exim Bank together with SIDBI, in the backdrop of the constraints faced by small and mid-sized companies in realizing their export ambitions.
• The Programme identifies Indian companies that have the potential to be future champions in the domestic arena, while catering to global demands.Incorrect
Ubharte Sitaare Fund
• Ubharte Sitaare fund is a type of Alternative investment fund.
• It is anchored by India Exim Bank together with SIDBI, in the backdrop of the constraints faced by small and mid-sized companies in realizing their export ambitions.
• The Programme identifies Indian companies that have the potential to be future champions in the domestic arena, while catering to global demands. -
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Exercise: Host Country
1. Exercise Talisman Sabre: Australia
2. Zayed Talwar: UAE
3. Al-Mohed Al-Hindi: Saudi Arabia
4. Zair-Al-Bahr: Qatar
Select the correct option:Correct
All pairs are CORRECTLY matched.
• Exercise Talisman Sabre is a biennial, multinational military exercise led by Australia and the United States.
• Exercise Zayed Talwar is a bilateral naval exercise between Indian and UAE Navy.
• Exercise Al-Mohed Al-Hindi is a bilateral naval exercise between India and Saudi Arabia.
• Zair-Al-Bahr is the joint naval exercise between the Indian Navy and Qatar Emiri Naval Force (QENF).Incorrect
All pairs are CORRECTLY matched.
• Exercise Talisman Sabre is a biennial, multinational military exercise led by Australia and the United States.
• Exercise Zayed Talwar is a bilateral naval exercise between Indian and UAE Navy.
• Exercise Al-Mohed Al-Hindi is a bilateral naval exercise between India and Saudi Arabia.
• Zair-Al-Bahr is the joint naval exercise between the Indian Navy and Qatar Emiri Naval Force (QENF). -
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the Pangolins:
1. The Indian Pangolin is widely distributed in India and found in all regions.
2. The species is also found in Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal and Sri Lanka.
3. All the seven species of Pangolins are found in India.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
The Pangolins
• Statement 1 and 3 are wrong and statement 2 is correct.
• The Madhya Pradesh forest department, for the first time, has radio-tagged an Indian Pangolin.
• Out of the eight species of pangolin, the Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla) are found in India. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
• Indian Pangolin is a large anteater covered by 11-13 rows of scales on the back. A terminal scale is also present on the lower side of the tail of the Indian Pangolin, which is absent in the Chinese Pangolin.
• Habitat
o Indian Pangolin is widely distributed in India, except the arid region, high Himalayas and the North-East. The species is also found in Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal and Sri Lanka. Hence statement 1 is wrong and statement 2 is correct.
o Chinese Pangolin is found in the Himalayan foothills in Eastern Nepal, Bhutan, Northern India, North-East Bangladesh and through Southern China.
o Threats to Pangolins in India: Hunting and poaching for local consumptive use (e.g. as a protein source and traditional medicine) and international trade for its meat and scales in East and South East Asian countries, particularly China and Vietnam.
• Protection Status
o IUCN Red List
Indian Pangolin: Endangered
Chinese Pangolin: Critically Endangered
o Both these species are listed under Schedule I, Part I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.Incorrect
The Pangolins
• Statement 1 and 3 are wrong and statement 2 is correct.
• The Madhya Pradesh forest department, for the first time, has radio-tagged an Indian Pangolin.
• Out of the eight species of pangolin, the Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla) are found in India. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
• Indian Pangolin is a large anteater covered by 11-13 rows of scales on the back. A terminal scale is also present on the lower side of the tail of the Indian Pangolin, which is absent in the Chinese Pangolin.
• Habitat
o Indian Pangolin is widely distributed in India, except the arid region, high Himalayas and the North-East. The species is also found in Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal and Sri Lanka. Hence statement 1 is wrong and statement 2 is correct.
o Chinese Pangolin is found in the Himalayan foothills in Eastern Nepal, Bhutan, Northern India, North-East Bangladesh and through Southern China.
o Threats to Pangolins in India: Hunting and poaching for local consumptive use (e.g. as a protein source and traditional medicine) and international trade for its meat and scales in East and South East Asian countries, particularly China and Vietnam.
• Protection Status
o IUCN Red List
Indian Pangolin: Endangered
Chinese Pangolin: Critically Endangered
o Both these species are listed under Schedule I, Part I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. -
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsRecently seen in news, consider the following statements regarding International Space Station (ISS):
1. It is a habitable artificial satellite and the single largest man-made structure in low earth orbit.
2. The Russian Space Agency Roscosmos launched its biggest space laboratory named Nauka to the International Space Station (ISS).
3. The ISS programme is a joint project between space agencies of United States, Russia, Japan, ESA (Europe), and China.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
International Space Station (ISS)
• Statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is wrong.
• It is a habitable artificial satellite – the single largest man-made structure in low earth orbit. Its first component was launched into orbit in 1998. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It circles the Earth in roughly 92 minutes and completes 15.5 orbits per day.
• The ISS programme is a joint project between five participating space agencies: NASA (United States), Roscosmos (Russia), JAXA (Japan), ESA (Europe), and CSA (Canada) but its ownership and use has been established by intergovernmental treaties and agreements. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
• It serves as a microgravity and space environment research laboratory in which crew members conduct experiments in biology, human biology, physics, astronomy, meteorology, and other fields.
• Continuous presence at ISS has resulted in the longest continuous human presence in low earth orbit.
• It is expected to operate until 2030.
• Recently, the Russian Space Agency Roscosmos launched its biggest space laboratory named Nauka to the International Space Station (ISS). Hence statement 2 is correct.Incorrect
International Space Station (ISS)
• Statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is wrong.
• It is a habitable artificial satellite – the single largest man-made structure in low earth orbit. Its first component was launched into orbit in 1998. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It circles the Earth in roughly 92 minutes and completes 15.5 orbits per day.
• The ISS programme is a joint project between five participating space agencies: NASA (United States), Roscosmos (Russia), JAXA (Japan), ESA (Europe), and CSA (Canada) but its ownership and use has been established by intergovernmental treaties and agreements. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
• It serves as a microgravity and space environment research laboratory in which crew members conduct experiments in biology, human biology, physics, astronomy, meteorology, and other fields.
• Continuous presence at ISS has resulted in the longest continuous human presence in low earth orbit.
• It is expected to operate until 2030.
• Recently, the Russian Space Agency Roscosmos launched its biggest space laboratory named Nauka to the International Space Station (ISS). Hence statement 2 is correct. -
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to UN Security Council (UNSC):
1. Each member of the Security Council has only one vote.
2. A “No” vote from one of the five permanent members blocks the passage of the resolution.
3. The council has 10 non-permanent members elected every year from different regions of the world for having varies representation in the council.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
UN Security Council (UNSC)
• Statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is wrong.
• The Security Council was established by the UN Charter in 1945. It is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations.
• The other 5 organs of the United Nations are—the General Assembly, the Trusteeship Council, the Economic and Social Council, the International Court of Justice, and the Secretariat.
• Its primary responsibility is to work to maintain international peace and security.
• The council has 15 members: the five permanent members and 10 non-permanent members elected for two-year terms. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
• The five permanent members are the United States, the Russian Federation, France, China and the United Kingdom.
• Each member of the Security Council has one vote. Decisions of the Security Council on matters are made by an affirmative vote of nine members including the concurring votes of the permanent members.
• A “No” vote from one of the five permanent members blocks the passage of the resolution. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.Incorrect
UN Security Council (UNSC)
• Statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is wrong.
• The Security Council was established by the UN Charter in 1945. It is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations.
• The other 5 organs of the United Nations are—the General Assembly, the Trusteeship Council, the Economic and Social Council, the International Court of Justice, and the Secretariat.
• Its primary responsibility is to work to maintain international peace and security.
• The council has 15 members: the five permanent members and 10 non-permanent members elected for two-year terms. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
• The five permanent members are the United States, the Russian Federation, France, China and the United Kingdom.
• Each member of the Security Council has one vote. Decisions of the Security Council on matters are made by an affirmative vote of nine members including the concurring votes of the permanent members.
• A “No” vote from one of the five permanent members blocks the passage of the resolution. Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct. -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to ‘Micronutrient Malnutrition’:
1. Vitamins A deficiency, Iron deficiency anaemia are forms of Micronutrient Malnutrition.
2. India has the highest malnutrition in the world.
3. Malnutrition includes excesses in a person’s intake of nutrients.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
Micronutrient Malnutrition
• Statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is wrong.
• Malnutrition refers to deficiencies, excesses or imbalances in a person’s intake of energy and/or nutrients. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Micronutrient malnutrition refers to diseases caused by a dietary deficiency of vitamins or minerals.
• Vitamin A deficiency, Iron deficiency anaemia and Iodine deficiency disorders are the most common forms of Micronutrient malnutrition. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• India bears the burden of more than a quarter of the world’s vitamin A deficient preschool children and more than 13 million susceptible infants to iodine deficiency.
• According to National Family Health Survey-4 data, among children under five years in India, 38.4 % are stunted, 21 % are wasted and 35.7 % are underweight.
• Democratic Republic of Congo has highest (75%) malnutrition in the world. Hence statement 2 is wrong.Incorrect
Micronutrient Malnutrition
• Statements 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is wrong.
• Malnutrition refers to deficiencies, excesses or imbalances in a person’s intake of energy and/or nutrients. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Micronutrient malnutrition refers to diseases caused by a dietary deficiency of vitamins or minerals.
• Vitamin A deficiency, Iron deficiency anaemia and Iodine deficiency disorders are the most common forms of Micronutrient malnutrition. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• India bears the burden of more than a quarter of the world’s vitamin A deficient preschool children and more than 13 million susceptible infants to iodine deficiency.
• According to National Family Health Survey-4 data, among children under five years in India, 38.4 % are stunted, 21 % are wasted and 35.7 % are underweight.
• Democratic Republic of Congo has highest (75%) malnutrition in the world. Hence statement 2 is wrong. -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsRecently seen in news, Haldibari-Chilahati rail route connects India with which of the following neighboring countries?
Correct
Haldibari-Chilahati rail route
• Recently, Bangladesh and India started regular operation of freight trains through the restored Haldibari-Chilahati rail route after over 50 years, which will strengthen railway connectivity and bilateral trade between the two countries.
• The Haldibari-Chilahati rail link is one such route that was operational till 1965.
• Another rail link, between Agartala-Akhaura, is scheduled to open by the end of 2021.Incorrect
Haldibari-Chilahati rail route
• Recently, Bangladesh and India started regular operation of freight trains through the restored Haldibari-Chilahati rail route after over 50 years, which will strengthen railway connectivity and bilateral trade between the two countries.
• The Haldibari-Chilahati rail link is one such route that was operational till 1965.
• Another rail link, between Agartala-Akhaura, is scheduled to open by the end of 2021. -
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC):
1. It is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament.
2. Project Bamboo Oasis on Lands in Drought (BOLD) is launched by KVIC.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
• Both statements are correct.
• Recently, the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) launched a project named Bamboo Oasis on Lands in Drought (BOLD) from the village NichlaMandwa in Udaipur, Rajasthan. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Under the project 5000 saplings of special bamboo species – BambusaTulda and BambusaPolymorpha from Assam – have been planted over 16 acres of vacant arid Gram Panchayat land of village NichlaMandwa.
• KVIC has thus created a world record of planting the highest number of bamboo saplings on a single day at one location.
• It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act, 1956. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary.
• It functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.Incorrect
Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
• Both statements are correct.
• Recently, the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) launched a project named Bamboo Oasis on Lands in Drought (BOLD) from the village NichlaMandwa in Udaipur, Rajasthan. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Under the project 5000 saplings of special bamboo species – BambusaTulda and BambusaPolymorpha from Assam – have been planted over 16 acres of vacant arid Gram Panchayat land of village NichlaMandwa.
• KVIC has thus created a world record of planting the highest number of bamboo saplings on a single day at one location.
• It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act, 1956. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary.
• It functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. -
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to ‘SAMRIDH’ Scheme:
1. It is launched by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
2. It is aimed at developing startup accelerator ecosystem in India.
3. It helps in matching equity seed funding for the business expansion.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
‘SAMRIDH’ Scheme
• All the statements are correct.
• Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) launched a new scheme, namely “Start-up Accelerators of MeitY for product Innovation, Development and growth (SAMRIDH)”. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• Objectives:
o Support existing and upcoming Accelerators to select and accelerate IT based startups to scale.
o Accelerating the startups by providing customer connect, investor connect, international expansion, and overall business growth in terms of revenue, users, and valuation parameters.
• To be implemented by MeitY Start-up Hub (MSH), the SAMRIDH programme will develop Startup Accelerator ecosystem in India through its two components as:
a. Providing administrative cost to Accelerators for providing acceleration services to startups.
b. Matching equity seed funding provided to startups for scaling their business. Hence statement 3 is correct.Incorrect
‘SAMRIDH’ Scheme
• All the statements are correct.
• Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) launched a new scheme, namely “Start-up Accelerators of MeitY for product Innovation, Development and growth (SAMRIDH)”. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• Objectives:
o Support existing and upcoming Accelerators to select and accelerate IT based startups to scale.
o Accelerating the startups by providing customer connect, investor connect, international expansion, and overall business growth in terms of revenue, users, and valuation parameters.
• To be implemented by MeitY Start-up Hub (MSH), the SAMRIDH programme will develop Startup Accelerator ecosystem in India through its two components as:
a. Providing administrative cost to Accelerators for providing acceleration services to startups.
b. Matching equity seed funding provided to startups for scaling their business. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Leaderboard: 17th March 2022 | Nikaalo Prelims- Current Affairs Test 2: Aug 2021
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