Quiz-summary
0 of 20 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
Information
Dear students,
1. In the comments section, share your score and also let everyone know the logic you’ve used to mark certain answers. This will trigger intelligent discussions benefitting everyone.
2. Completing the test should be your top priority. Focus on accuracy rather than simply attempting more questions. Give enough thought to each question, we have increased the time limit so you can do this.
3. At the end of the test, click on ‘View Questions’ button to check the solutions.
*You can attempt the test multiple times for your own practice but only your first attempt will be counted for rankings.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 20 questions answered correctly.
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points (0).
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
1. Polymerase Chain Reaction can help in detecting the pathogen only when its concentration in the invaded body is very high.
2. Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay test relies on testing the presence of antigens or the antibodies synthesized against the pathogen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) can be used for early diagnosis of presence of an infection as it works by amplifying the small amounts of DNA of the pathogen. Very low concentration of a bacteria or virus (at a time when the symptoms of the disease are not yet visible) can be detected by amplification of their nucleic acid by PCR.
• PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
• It is being used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients too.
• It is a powerful technique to identify many other genetic disorders.
Statement 2 is correct. Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay (ELISA) test is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction. Infection by pathogen can be detected by the presence of antigens (proteins, glycoproteins, etc.) or by detecting the antibodies synthesised against the pathogen.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) can be used for early diagnosis of presence of an infection as it works by amplifying the small amounts of DNA of the pathogen. Very low concentration of a bacteria or virus (at a time when the symptoms of the disease are not yet visible) can be detected by amplification of their nucleic acid by PCR.
• PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
• It is being used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients too.
• It is a powerful technique to identify many other genetic disorders.
Statement 2 is correct. Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay (ELISA) test is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction. Infection by pathogen can be detected by the presence of antigens (proteins, glycoproteins, etc.) or by detecting the antibodies synthesised against the pathogen. -
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
1. Methanogens are bacteria that producemethane by growing aerobically on cellulosicmaterial.
2. Biogas is a mixture of gases predominantlycontaining methane.
3. Methanogens play an important role in thenutrition of cattle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Methanogens are microbes that produce methane by growing anaerobically ( not aerobically) on cellulosic material. In addition to methane, some amounts of Carbon dioxide and Hydrogen gas are also produced. One such microbe is Methanobacterium. Methanogens belong to the domain archaea, which is distinct from bacteria. Both bacteria and Archaea are prokaryotic organisms.
Statement 2 is correct. Biogas is a mixture of gases predominantly containing methane. It is produced by the microbial activity and may be used as fuel.
Statement 3 is correct. Methonogens like Methanobacterium are present in the rumen of (a part of stomach) of cattle. A lot of cellulosic material present in the food of cattle is also present in the rumen. In rumen, these microbes help in the breakdown of cellulose and play an important role in the nutrition of cattle. Thus, the excreta of cattle (dung) is rich in these microbes. Dung can be used for generation of biogas, commonly called gobar gas. These Methanogens are also found in the anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Methanogens are microbes that produce methane by growing anaerobically ( not aerobically) on cellulosic material. In addition to methane, some amounts of Carbon dioxide and Hydrogen gas are also produced. One such microbe is Methanobacterium. Methanogens belong to the domain archaea, which is distinct from bacteria. Both bacteria and Archaea are prokaryotic organisms.
Statement 2 is correct. Biogas is a mixture of gases predominantly containing methane. It is produced by the microbial activity and may be used as fuel.
Statement 3 is correct. Methonogens like Methanobacterium are present in the rumen of (a part of stomach) of cattle. A lot of cellulosic material present in the food of cattle is also present in the rumen. In rumen, these microbes help in the breakdown of cellulose and play an important role in the nutrition of cattle. Thus, the excreta of cattle (dung) is rich in these microbes. Dung can be used for generation of biogas, commonly called gobar gas. These Methanogens are also found in the anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment.
-
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 pointsHow do trans-fats affect health?
1. Trans -fats raise your bad (LDL) cholesterol levels and lower good (HDL) cholesterol levels.
2. Eating Trans-fats increases risk of developing heart disease and stroke.
3. It’s also associated with a higher risk of developing Type 1 diabetes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
What are trans-fats?
There are two broad types of trans fats found in foods
o Naturally-occurring and
o Artificial trans fats.Naturally-occurring trans-fats are produced in the gut of some animals & foods made from these animals may contain small amount of these fats.
Artificial trans fats (or trans fatty acids) are created in an industrial process that adds hydrogen to liquid vegetable oils to make them more solid.
The primary dietary source for trans fats in processed food is ―partially hydrogenated oils.”
How do trans-fats affect health?
Trans -fats raise your bad (LDL) cholesterol levels and lower your good (HDL) cholesterol levels. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Eating Trans-fats increases your risk of developing heart disease and stroke. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It’s also associated with a higher risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.Incorrect
What are trans-fats?
There are two broad types of trans fats found in foods
o Naturally-occurring and
o Artificial trans fats.Naturally-occurring trans-fats are produced in the gut of some animals & foods made from these animals may contain small amount of these fats.
Artificial trans fats (or trans fatty acids) are created in an industrial process that adds hydrogen to liquid vegetable oils to make them more solid.
The primary dietary source for trans fats in processed food is ―partially hydrogenated oils.”
How do trans-fats affect health?
Trans -fats raise your bad (LDL) cholesterol levels and lower your good (HDL) cholesterol levels. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Eating Trans-fats increases your risk of developing heart disease and stroke. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It’s also associated with a higher risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. -
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding WEST NILE FEVER
1. It can cause a fatal neurological disease in humans.
2. Bats are the natural hosts of West Nile virus.
3. Vaccines are available for use in horses but not yet available for people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
What is West Nile Fever?
It is a viral disease.
It is spread by mosquitoes.
There are no vaccines to prevent or medications to treat WNV in people.
West Nile virus can cause a fatal neurological disease in humans. Hence statement 1 is correct.
However, approximately 80% of people who are infected will not show any symptoms.
West Nile virus is mainly transmitted to people through the bites of infected mosquitoes.
The virus can cause severe disease and death in horses.
Vaccines are available for use in horses but not yet available for people.Hence statement 3 is correct.
Birds are the natural hosts of West Nile virus. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.Incorrect
What is West Nile Fever?
It is a viral disease.
It is spread by mosquitoes.
There are no vaccines to prevent or medications to treat WNV in people.
West Nile virus can cause a fatal neurological disease in humans. Hence statement 1 is correct.
However, approximately 80% of people who are infected will not show any symptoms.
West Nile virus is mainly transmitted to people through the bites of infected mosquitoes.
The virus can cause severe disease and death in horses.
Vaccines are available for use in horses but not yet available for people.Hence statement 3 is correct.
Birds are the natural hosts of West Nile virus. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the sources of Arsenic exposure?
1. Using contaminated water in food preparation.
2. Eating contaminated food and smoking tobacco.
3. Irrigation of food crops
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
What are the sources of Arsenic exposure?
People are exposed to elevated levels of inorganic arsenic through:
Drinking contaminated water
Using contaminated water in food preparation and
irrigation of food crops
industrial processes
eating contaminated food and smoking tobacco.
Long-term exposure to inorganic arsenic is mainly through drinkingwater and food.
This can lead to chronic arsenic poisoning.
Skin lesions and skin cancer are the most characteristic effects.
Hence, All statements are correct.Incorrect
What are the sources of Arsenic exposure?
People are exposed to elevated levels of inorganic arsenic through:
Drinking contaminated water
Using contaminated water in food preparation and
irrigation of food crops
industrial processes
eating contaminated food and smoking tobacco.
Long-term exposure to inorganic arsenic is mainly through drinkingwater and food.
This can lead to chronic arsenic poisoning.
Skin lesions and skin cancer are the most characteristic effects.
Hence, All statements are correct. -
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
1. Superconductors are materials that conduct electricity with no resistance.
2. Devices built with room temperature superconductors tend to be extremely efficient and entail large savings in both energy and costs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?Correct
What is superconductivity?
Superconductors are materials that conduct electricity with no resistance. Hence statement 1 is correct.The temperature, at which the metals change from normal conducting state to superconducting state, is called critical temperature/transition temperature.
Advantage of superconductors:
Currently, superconductivity can only be achieved at temperatures far below zero, in processes that are too expensive for wider application.
The devices have low power dissipation, high operating speed, and extreme sensitivity.
Devices built with room temperature superconductors tend to be extremely efficient and entail large savings in both energy and costs. Hence statement 2 is also correct.Application: Superconductors already have drastically changed the world of medicine with the advent of MRI machines, which have meant a reduction in exploratory surgery.
Power utilities, electronics companies, the military, transportation, and theoretical physics have all benefited strongly from the discovery of these materials.Incorrect
What is superconductivity?
Superconductors are materials that conduct electricity with no resistance. Hence statement 1 is correct.The temperature, at which the metals change from normal conducting state to superconducting state, is called critical temperature/transition temperature.
Advantage of superconductors:
Currently, superconductivity can only be achieved at temperatures far below zero, in processes that are too expensive for wider application.
The devices have low power dissipation, high operating speed, and extreme sensitivity.
Devices built with room temperature superconductors tend to be extremely efficient and entail large savings in both energy and costs. Hence statement 2 is also correct.Application: Superconductors already have drastically changed the world of medicine with the advent of MRI machines, which have meant a reduction in exploratory surgery.
Power utilities, electronics companies, the military, transportation, and theoretical physics have all benefited strongly from the discovery of these materials. -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to EMV chip technology used in Debit and Credit cards
1. EMV chip technology is a global standard for card technology developed by Bank of International Settlements.
2. When a person uses EMV card, it generates a unique encrypted code which is specific and unique to that particular transaction only.
3. EMV chip cards are more secure than magnetic stripe cards.
Which of the statements given above are correct?Correct
EMV chip technology is the latest global standard for card payments. EMV is an acronym for Europay Mastercard and Visa, who developed this technology. EMV cards are chip-based payment cards with enhanced safety features that are designed to prevent fraudulent practices such as card skimming and cloning. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Old credit and debit cards store data on the magnetic stripe found on the reverse side of card. This makes it easy for a fraudster to copy data when a person swipe the card. EMV cards, in contrast, store data on a microprocessor chip embedded in the card. This means that the card generates fresh user data every time a person transacts, making it impossible for fraudsters to copy original data from the card.
The other feature of EMV cards is that they use both the card and a secret PIN to complete a transaction. When a person use EMV credit or debit card at a terminal, it generates a unique encrypted code called a token or cryptogram, which is unique and specific only to that transaction. Hence, statements 2 and 3 is correct.
Incorrect
EMV chip technology is the latest global standard for card payments. EMV is an acronym for Europay Mastercard and Visa, who developed this technology. EMV cards are chip-based payment cards with enhanced safety features that are designed to prevent fraudulent practices such as card skimming and cloning. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Old credit and debit cards store data on the magnetic stripe found on the reverse side of card. This makes it easy for a fraudster to copy data when a person swipe the card. EMV cards, in contrast, store data on a microprocessor chip embedded in the card. This means that the card generates fresh user data every time a person transacts, making it impossible for fraudsters to copy original data from the card.
The other feature of EMV cards is that they use both the card and a secret PIN to complete a transaction. When a person use EMV credit or debit card at a terminal, it generates a unique encrypted code called a token or cryptogram, which is unique and specific only to that transaction. Hence, statements 2 and 3 is correct.
-
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is correct with reference to recently launched Application Programming Interface Exchange (APIX)?
Correct
APIX (Application Programming Interface Exchange), is a banking technology platform designed to reach nearly two billion people worldwide who are still without bank accounts.
It was launched in the prestigious Fintech Festival. Designed by software experts based in Hyderabad, Colombo and London, APIX is a sophisticated technology developed by Boston-headquartered Virtusa, especially for smaller banks, Tier 3 and 4, to reach out to people in the remote regions.Incorrect
APIX (Application Programming Interface Exchange), is a banking technology platform designed to reach nearly two billion people worldwide who are still without bank accounts.
It was launched in the prestigious Fintech Festival. Designed by software experts based in Hyderabad, Colombo and London, APIX is a sophisticated technology developed by Boston-headquartered Virtusa, especially for smaller banks, Tier 3 and 4, to reach out to people in the remote regions. -
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following sources of Biofuels
1. Jatropha
2. Sugarbeet
3. Sugarcane
4. Pongamia
Which of the sources given above are Second Generation Biofuels?Correct
Biofuels are often broken into three generations – 1st generation biofuels are also called conventional biofuels. They are made from things like sugar, starch, or vegetable oil. These are all food products. Any biofuel made from a feedstock that can also be consumed as human food is considered a first generation biofuel.
2nd generation biofuels are produced from sustainable feedstock. The sustainability of a feedstock is defined by its availability, its impact on greenhouse gas emissions, its impact on land use, and by its potential to threaten the food supply. No second generation biofuel is also a food crop, though certain food products can become second generation fuels when they are no longer useful for consumption.
Second generation biofuels are often called ―advanced biofuels.‖Though not a traditional category of biofuel, some people refer to any category called 3rd generation biofuels. In general, this term is applied to any biofuel derived from algae. These biofuels are given their own separate class because of their unique production mechanism and their potential to mitigate most of the drawbacks of 1st and 2nd generation biofuels.
Jatropha curcas and Pongamia are non-food crops and are 2nd generation Biofuels. Jatropha is multi purpose non edible oil yielding perennial shrub. This is a hardy and drought tolerant crop can be raised in marginal lands with lesser input. The crop can be maintained for 30 years economically.Pongamia which are non edible oil yielding trees that can be grown to produce biofuel. Karanja (Pongamia) is one of the most suitable trees. It is widely grown in various parts of the country. Hence options 1 and 4 are correct.
Sugarbeet and Sugarcane are food crops and are considered to be 1st generation biofuels. Sugarbeet (Beta vulgaris Var. Saccharifera L.) is a biennial sugar producing tuber crop, grown in temperate countries. Now tropical sugarbeet varieties are gaining momentum in tropical and sub tropical countries, as a promising alternative energy crop for the production of ethanol. Sorghum (S. bicolor) is the most important millet crop occupying largest area among the cereals next to rice. It is mainly grown for its grain and fodder. Alternative uses of sorghum include commercial utilization of grain in food industry and utilization of stalk for the production of value-added products like ethanol, syrup and jaggery and bioenriched bagasse as a fodder and as a base material for cogeneration.
Fourth generation biofuel (FGB) uses genetically modified (GM) algae to enhance biofuel production.
Incorrect
Biofuels are often broken into three generations – 1st generation biofuels are also called conventional biofuels. They are made from things like sugar, starch, or vegetable oil. These are all food products. Any biofuel made from a feedstock that can also be consumed as human food is considered a first generation biofuel.
2nd generation biofuels are produced from sustainable feedstock. The sustainability of a feedstock is defined by its availability, its impact on greenhouse gas emissions, its impact on land use, and by its potential to threaten the food supply. No second generation biofuel is also a food crop, though certain food products can become second generation fuels when they are no longer useful for consumption.
Second generation biofuels are often called ―advanced biofuels.‖Though not a traditional category of biofuel, some people refer to any category called 3rd generation biofuels. In general, this term is applied to any biofuel derived from algae. These biofuels are given their own separate class because of their unique production mechanism and their potential to mitigate most of the drawbacks of 1st and 2nd generation biofuels.
Jatropha curcas and Pongamia are non-food crops and are 2nd generation Biofuels. Jatropha is multi purpose non edible oil yielding perennial shrub. This is a hardy and drought tolerant crop can be raised in marginal lands with lesser input. The crop can be maintained for 30 years economically.Pongamia which are non edible oil yielding trees that can be grown to produce biofuel. Karanja (Pongamia) is one of the most suitable trees. It is widely grown in various parts of the country. Hence options 1 and 4 are correct.
Sugarbeet and Sugarcane are food crops and are considered to be 1st generation biofuels. Sugarbeet (Beta vulgaris Var. Saccharifera L.) is a biennial sugar producing tuber crop, grown in temperate countries. Now tropical sugarbeet varieties are gaining momentum in tropical and sub tropical countries, as a promising alternative energy crop for the production of ethanol. Sorghum (S. bicolor) is the most important millet crop occupying largest area among the cereals next to rice. It is mainly grown for its grain and fodder. Alternative uses of sorghum include commercial utilization of grain in food industry and utilization of stalk for the production of value-added products like ethanol, syrup and jaggery and bioenriched bagasse as a fodder and as a base material for cogeneration.
Fourth generation biofuel (FGB) uses genetically modified (GM) algae to enhance biofuel production.
-
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the Outer Space Treaty
1. It provides that states must not place weapons of mass destruction in Earth orbit or on celestial bodies.
2. Under the treaty, individual states are liable for damage caused by their space objects.
3. It forbids nations from claiming sovereignty over the moon or other celestial bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Outer Space Treaty, formally Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space, Including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies, (1967), is an international treaty binding the parties to use outer space only for peaceful purposes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following principles:
o the exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all mankind;
o outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States;
o outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means;
o States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner;
o the Moon and other celestial bodies shall be used exclusively for peaceful purposes; Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o astronauts shall be regarded as the envoys of mankind;
o States shall be responsible for national space activities whether carried out by governmental or non- governmental entities;
o States shall be liable for damage caused by their space objects; and Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o States shall avoid harmful contamination of space and celestial bodies.Incorrect
Outer Space Treaty, formally Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space, Including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies, (1967), is an international treaty binding the parties to use outer space only for peaceful purposes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following principles:
o the exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all mankind;
o outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States;
o outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means;
o States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner;
o the Moon and other celestial bodies shall be used exclusively for peaceful purposes; Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o astronauts shall be regarded as the envoys of mankind;
o States shall be responsible for national space activities whether carried out by governmental or non- governmental entities;
o States shall be liable for damage caused by their space objects; and Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o States shall avoid harmful contamination of space and celestial bodies. -
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsGene Pyramiding refers to which of the following?
Correct
Gene pyramiding refers to a method aimed at assembling multiple desirable genes from multiple parents into a single genotype. Thus it differs from multiline, where each major gene is incorporated into separate genotype and then resistant genotypes are mixed together. In pyramiding approach all major genes are incorporated in a single cultivar.
Combination of several major genes for specific resistance provides protection against several new races that may develop in the pathogen.
The new varieties can be developed with a contribution of 2, 3 or more major genes. Such varieties have durable resistance. Gene pyramiding approach has been used in oat against crown rust in Canada.Incorrect
Gene pyramiding refers to a method aimed at assembling multiple desirable genes from multiple parents into a single genotype. Thus it differs from multiline, where each major gene is incorporated into separate genotype and then resistant genotypes are mixed together. In pyramiding approach all major genes are incorporated in a single cultivar.
Combination of several major genes for specific resistance provides protection against several new races that may develop in the pathogen.
The new varieties can be developed with a contribution of 2, 3 or more major genes. Such varieties have durable resistance. Gene pyramiding approach has been used in oat against crown rust in Canada. -
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bio-Bricks,
1. The Bagasse from agricultural waste can be used to develop bio-bricks.
2. They can act as carbon sinks as they fix more carbon dioxide than they produce during their lifecycle.
3. While these bricks have a good insulation against heat but they lack good insulation to sound.
Which of the statements given above are correct?Correct
The researchers from IIT Hyderabad and School of Architecture, Bhubaneswar have developed bio-bricks from The Bagasse from agricultural waste .The product serves dual purposes of development of eco-friendly sustainable material and also waste management. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Significance
The bricks are made from agro-waste like wheat straw, paddy straw, sugarcane bagasse and cotton plant.
Bio-bricks are more sustainable than clay bricks.
They also act as carbon sinks as they fix more carbon dioxide than they produce during their lifecycle. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The bricks also provide good insulation to heat and sound. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
They help in maintaining humidity of buildings and make the house more suitable for hot-humid climates.
The bricks will help in building climate change resilient homes. In India as 84 to 141 million tons of agricultural wastes are burnt causing severe air pollution, these steps help in reducing these incidents.Incorrect
The researchers from IIT Hyderabad and School of Architecture, Bhubaneswar have developed bio-bricks from The Bagasse from agricultural waste .The product serves dual purposes of development of eco-friendly sustainable material and also waste management. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Significance
The bricks are made from agro-waste like wheat straw, paddy straw, sugarcane bagasse and cotton plant.
Bio-bricks are more sustainable than clay bricks.
They also act as carbon sinks as they fix more carbon dioxide than they produce during their lifecycle. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The bricks also provide good insulation to heat and sound. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
They help in maintaining humidity of buildings and make the house more suitable for hot-humid climates.
The bricks will help in building climate change resilient homes. In India as 84 to 141 million tons of agricultural wastes are burnt causing severe air pollution, these steps help in reducing these incidents. -
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the by-product/s of the pyrolysis process?
1. Syngas
2. Nitrogen oxides
3. Sulphur dioxide
4. Methane
Chose from the codes given below:Correct
Bio char is found in soils around the world as a result of vegetation fires and historic soil management practices.
Intensive study of bio char-rich dark earths in the Amazon (terra preta), has led to a wider appreciation of bio char’s unique properties as a soil enhancer.
Bio char is charcoal that is used as soil amendment (minor improvement).
It is created using a pyrolysis process (decomposition brought about by high temperatures), heating biomass in a low oxygen environment.
Once the pyrolysis reaction has begun, it is self-sustaining, requiring no outside energy input.
By-products of the process include syngas (H2 + CO), minor quantities of methane (CH4), organic acids and excess heat.
Once it is produced, bio char is spread on agricultural fields and incorporated into the top layer of soil.
The syngas and excess heat can be used directly or employed to produce a variety of biofuels.Incorrect
Bio char is found in soils around the world as a result of vegetation fires and historic soil management practices.
Intensive study of bio char-rich dark earths in the Amazon (terra preta), has led to a wider appreciation of bio char’s unique properties as a soil enhancer.
Bio char is charcoal that is used as soil amendment (minor improvement).
It is created using a pyrolysis process (decomposition brought about by high temperatures), heating biomass in a low oxygen environment.
Once the pyrolysis reaction has begun, it is self-sustaining, requiring no outside energy input.
By-products of the process include syngas (H2 + CO), minor quantities of methane (CH4), organic acids and excess heat.
Once it is produced, bio char is spread on agricultural fields and incorporated into the top layer of soil.
The syngas and excess heat can be used directly or employed to produce a variety of biofuels. -
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsIdentify the correct statement/s with respect to Gynandromorphism.
1. They have both genetically male and female tissues.
2. They can be seen in all class of animals except birds.
Select the correct answer using the codes given belowCorrect
Gynandromorphism
Gynandromorphs are individual animals that have both genetically male and female tissues and often have observable male and female characteristics. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
They may be bilateral, appearing to divide down the middle into male and female sides, or they may be mosaic, with patches characteristic of one sex appearing in a body part characteristic of the other sex.
Gynandromorphs occur in insects, spiders, crustaceans, and other arthropods as well as in birds, but they are extremely rare, and discovering one in the field or in the laboratory is a major event. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Estimating how frequently they occur is difficult because they usually go unnoticed in species where sexual dimorphism is less pronounced.
Gynandromorphs have been reported in mosquitoes, fruit flies, and in other insects, but they are most dramatic in those butterfly species in which the male and female wing colours and patterns are dramatically different.Incorrect
Gynandromorphism
Gynandromorphs are individual animals that have both genetically male and female tissues and often have observable male and female characteristics. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
They may be bilateral, appearing to divide down the middle into male and female sides, or they may be mosaic, with patches characteristic of one sex appearing in a body part characteristic of the other sex.
Gynandromorphs occur in insects, spiders, crustaceans, and other arthropods as well as in birds, but they are extremely rare, and discovering one in the field or in the laboratory is a major event. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Estimating how frequently they occur is difficult because they usually go unnoticed in species where sexual dimorphism is less pronounced.
Gynandromorphs have been reported in mosquitoes, fruit flies, and in other insects, but they are most dramatic in those butterfly species in which the male and female wing colours and patterns are dramatically different. -
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsWhat could be the potential applications of CRISPR-Cas9 system?
1. Improving the genetic makeup of crops
2. Correcting genetic defects in Human embryos
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
CRISPR technology is basically a gene-editing technology that can be used for the purpose of altering genetic expression or changing the genome of an organism. The technology can be used for targeting specific stretches of an entire genetic code or editing the DNA at particular locations.
CRISPR technology is a simple yet powerful tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function.
Its many potential applications include correcting genetic defects, treating and preventing the spread of diseases and improving crops. Hence, All statements are correct.
The clustered, regularly interspaced, short palindromic repeats, or CRISPR/CRISPR-associated protein 9 (Cas9) (CRISPR-Cas9) system has revolutionised genetic manipulations and made gene editing simpler, faster and easily accessible to most laboratories and thus raised a lot of ethical issues as well.Incorrect
CRISPR technology is basically a gene-editing technology that can be used for the purpose of altering genetic expression or changing the genome of an organism. The technology can be used for targeting specific stretches of an entire genetic code or editing the DNA at particular locations.
CRISPR technology is a simple yet powerful tool for editing genomes. It allows researchers to easily alter DNA sequences and modify gene function.
Its many potential applications include correcting genetic defects, treating and preventing the spread of diseases and improving crops. Hence, All statements are correct.
The clustered, regularly interspaced, short palindromic repeats, or CRISPR/CRISPR-associated protein 9 (Cas9) (CRISPR-Cas9) system has revolutionised genetic manipulations and made gene editing simpler, faster and easily accessible to most laboratories and thus raised a lot of ethical issues as well. -
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 pointsFor an Individual, information extracted from his DNA Profiling can be used to
1. Determine the colour of the skin and eyes
2. Establish immigration eligibility based on his family lineage
3. Determine allergies and susceptibility to diseases
Select the correct answer using the codes below.Correct
DNA profiling (also called DNA fingerprinting) is the process of determining an individual’s DNA characteristics, which are as unique as fingerprints. DNA analysis intended to identify a species, rather than an individual, is called DNA barcoding.
Information from DNA samples can reveal not just how a person looks, or what their eye colour or skin colour is, but also more intrusive information like their allergies, or susceptibility to diseases. As a result, there is a greater risk of information from DNA analysis getting misused. Hence, All statements are correct.
DNA profiling is commonly used as a forensic technique in criminal investigations, for example comparing one or more individuals’ profiles to DNA found at a crime scene so as to assess the likelihood of their involvement in the crime.
It is also used in parentage testing, to establish immigration eligibility (based on their family lineage), and in genealogical and medical research. DNA profiling has also been used in the study of animal and plant populations in the fields of zoology, botany, and agriculture.Incorrect
DNA profiling (also called DNA fingerprinting) is the process of determining an individual’s DNA characteristics, which are as unique as fingerprints. DNA analysis intended to identify a species, rather than an individual, is called DNA barcoding.
Information from DNA samples can reveal not just how a person looks, or what their eye colour or skin colour is, but also more intrusive information like their allergies, or susceptibility to diseases. As a result, there is a greater risk of information from DNA analysis getting misused. Hence, All statements are correct.
DNA profiling is commonly used as a forensic technique in criminal investigations, for example comparing one or more individuals’ profiles to DNA found at a crime scene so as to assess the likelihood of their involvement in the crime.
It is also used in parentage testing, to establish immigration eligibility (based on their family lineage), and in genealogical and medical research. DNA profiling has also been used in the study of animal and plant populations in the fields of zoology, botany, and agriculture. -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsWith reference to underground coal gasification in coal seams, consider the following statements:
1. It is a technique of in-situ gasification of coal.
2. This process does not require water.
3. It is not practiced on a large scale because of the danger it poses to miners.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Underground coal gasification (UCG) – is the technique of converting coal into gas while it is still in the seam(in-situ) and then extracting it through wells. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In the UCG process, injection wells are drilled into an unmined coal seam, and either air or oxygen is injected into the seam along with water. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The coal face is ignited, and the high temperatures (about 1,200°C) from the combustion and limited oxygen causes nearby coal to partially oxidize into hydrogen, carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2), and minimal amounts of methane (CH4) and hydrogen sulfide (H2S).
These products flow to the surface through one or more production wells located ahead of the combustion zone.
UCG eliminates the need for mining, and the dangers to miners and environmental degradation that are associated with it. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
It also makes deep or difficult to access coal seams into usable energy assets, as only one-sixth to one-eighth of the world’s coal reserves are economically mineable.Incorrect
Underground coal gasification (UCG) – is the technique of converting coal into gas while it is still in the seam(in-situ) and then extracting it through wells. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In the UCG process, injection wells are drilled into an unmined coal seam, and either air or oxygen is injected into the seam along with water. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The coal face is ignited, and the high temperatures (about 1,200°C) from the combustion and limited oxygen causes nearby coal to partially oxidize into hydrogen, carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (CO2), and minimal amounts of methane (CH4) and hydrogen sulfide (H2S).
These products flow to the surface through one or more production wells located ahead of the combustion zone.
UCG eliminates the need for mining, and the dangers to miners and environmental degradation that are associated with it. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
It also makes deep or difficult to access coal seams into usable energy assets, as only one-sixth to one-eighth of the world’s coal reserves are economically mineable. -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Zoonosis, consider the following statements.
1. A zoonosis is any disease or infection that is naturally transmissible from vertebrate animals to humans.
2. Zoonoses can be caused only by either virus or protozoa.
3. Zoonotic diseases create obstacles to international trade in animal products.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.Correct
Zoonosis is any disease or infection that is naturally transmissible from vertebrate animals to humans. Animals thus play an essential role in maintaining zoonotic infections in nature. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Zoonosis may be bacterial, viral, or parasitic, or may involve unconventional agents. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
As well as being a public health problem, many of the major zoonotic diseases prevent the efficient production of food of animal origin and create obstacles to international trade in animal products. Hence, statement 3 is correct.According to WHO, the Nipah virus infection is a newly emerging zoonosis. Kozhikode and Malappuram districts have been declared free of Nipah virus recently by the Kerala government.
Incorrect
Zoonosis is any disease or infection that is naturally transmissible from vertebrate animals to humans. Animals thus play an essential role in maintaining zoonotic infections in nature. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Zoonosis may be bacterial, viral, or parasitic, or may involve unconventional agents. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
As well as being a public health problem, many of the major zoonotic diseases prevent the efficient production of food of animal origin and create obstacles to international trade in animal products. Hence, statement 3 is correct.According to WHO, the Nipah virus infection is a newly emerging zoonosis. Kozhikode and Malappuram districts have been declared free of Nipah virus recently by the Kerala government.
-
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
1. Hepatitis A and E are typically caused by ingestion of contaminated food or water.
2. Hepatitis B, C and D usually occur as a result of parenteral contact with infected body fluids.
3. Hepatitis A among all Hepatitis types is the most common cause of liver cirrhosis and cancer.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.Correct
There are 5 main hepatitis viruses, referred to as types A, B, C, D and E. These 5 types are of greatest concern because of the burden of illness and death they cause and the potential for outbreaks and epidemic spread.
In particular, types B and C lead to chronic disease in hundreds of millions of people and, together, are the most common cause of liver cirrhosis and cancer. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Hepatitis A and E are typically caused by ingestion of contaminated food or water. Hepatitis B, C and D usually occur as a result of parenteral contact with infected body fluids. Hence, statement 1 and 2 is correct.
Parenteral is defined as something that is put inside the body, but not by swallowing. An example of something parenteral is an injection given into the muscle on the leg, or a subcutaneous injection.
Common modes of transmission for these viruses include receipt of contaminated blood or blood products, invasive medical procedures using contaminated equipment and for hepatitis B transmission from mother to baby at birth, from family member to child, and also by sexual contact.Incorrect
There are 5 main hepatitis viruses, referred to as types A, B, C, D and E. These 5 types are of greatest concern because of the burden of illness and death they cause and the potential for outbreaks and epidemic spread.
In particular, types B and C lead to chronic disease in hundreds of millions of people and, together, are the most common cause of liver cirrhosis and cancer. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Hepatitis A and E are typically caused by ingestion of contaminated food or water. Hepatitis B, C and D usually occur as a result of parenteral contact with infected body fluids. Hence, statement 1 and 2 is correct.
Parenteral is defined as something that is put inside the body, but not by swallowing. An example of something parenteral is an injection given into the muscle on the leg, or a subcutaneous injection.
Common modes of transmission for these viruses include receipt of contaminated blood or blood products, invasive medical procedures using contaminated equipment and for hepatitis B transmission from mother to baby at birth, from family member to child, and also by sexual contact. -
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following about the disease of Sickle Cell Anemia prevalent in the Indian tribals.
1. It is least prevalent in the Dravidians and pre-dravidian tribes.
2. It is more severe in malaria endemic regions.
3. The sickle cell gene is passed from generation to generation in a pattern of inheritance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct: The prevalence of Sickle Cell Anemia is higher in the tribal belt of Central, Western and Southern India; not so much in the tribes of North-East India. It is chiefly confined to dravidians and pre-dravidians tribes inhabiting malaria endemic regions.
Statement 3 is correct. There is a little worthwhile treatment for the disease as of now but with management of disease, severity and complications can be curtailed to improve the quality of life and life span. The sickle cell gene is passed from generation to generation in a pattern of inheritance.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct: The prevalence of Sickle Cell Anemia is higher in the tribal belt of Central, Western and Southern India; not so much in the tribes of North-East India. It is chiefly confined to dravidians and pre-dravidians tribes inhabiting malaria endemic regions.
Statement 3 is correct. There is a little worthwhile treatment for the disease as of now but with management of disease, severity and complications can be curtailed to improve the quality of life and life span. The sickle cell gene is passed from generation to generation in a pattern of inheritance.
Leaderboard: 17th May 2022 | Nikaalo Prelims- Science and Technology Test 3: Non-Conventional Energy; Health Information Technology
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
UPSC 2022 countdown has begun! Get your personal guidance plan now! (Click here)