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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 points“Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to the Nano Urea Liquid:
1. It is a liquid to provide nitrogen to plants as an alternative to the conventional urea.
2. It is developed to reduce consumption of Urea.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
”Correct
“Both Statements-1 and 2 are correct.
Nano Urea Liquid
● Recently, the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) introduced the world’s first Nano Urea Liquid for farmers across the world.
● It is a nutrient (liquid) to provide nitrogen to plants as an alternative to the conventional urea. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● It is developed to replace conventional urea and it can curtail the requirement of the same by at least 50%. Hence statement 2 is correct.
● It contains 40,000 mg/L of nitrogen in a 500 ml bottle which is equivalent to the impact of nitrogen nutrient provided by one bag of conventional urea.
● Conventional urea is effective 30-40% in delivering nitrogen to plants, while the effectiveness of the Nano Urea Liquid is over 80%.
● It has been found effective and efficient for plant nutrition which increases the production with improved nutritional quality.
● It will also have a huge positive impact on the quality of underground water, a very significant reduction in global warming with an impact on climate change and sustainable development.
”Incorrect
“Both Statements-1 and 2 are correct.
Nano Urea Liquid
● Recently, the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO) introduced the world’s first Nano Urea Liquid for farmers across the world.
● It is a nutrient (liquid) to provide nitrogen to plants as an alternative to the conventional urea. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● It is developed to replace conventional urea and it can curtail the requirement of the same by at least 50%. Hence statement 2 is correct.
● It contains 40,000 mg/L of nitrogen in a 500 ml bottle which is equivalent to the impact of nitrogen nutrient provided by one bag of conventional urea.
● Conventional urea is effective 30-40% in delivering nitrogen to plants, while the effectiveness of the Nano Urea Liquid is over 80%.
● It has been found effective and efficient for plant nutrition which increases the production with improved nutritional quality.
● It will also have a huge positive impact on the quality of underground water, a very significant reduction in global warming with an impact on climate change and sustainable development.
” -
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 points“Q.2) Consider the following statements with reference to the FAME-II scheme:
1. Main thrust of FAME is to encourage electric vehicles by providing discounts in raw material to manufacturers.
2. The scheme covers both hybrid & electric technologies.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
”Correct
“Statement -1 is not correct and Statement-2 is correct.
FAME-II scheme
● FAME India is a part of the ‘National Electric Mobility Mission (NEMM) Plan’. Main thrust of FAME is to encourage electric vehicles by providing subsidies. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
● NEMM intends to allow hybrid and electric vehicles to become the first choice for the purchasers so that these vehicles can replace the conventional vehicles and thus reduce liquid fuel consumption.
● Two Phases of the Scheme: „
o Phase I: Started in 2015 and was completed on 31st March, 2019.
o Phase II: Started from April, 2019, will be completed by 31st March, 2022.
● The scheme covers Hybrid & Electric technologies like Mild Hybrid, Strong Hybrid, Plug in Hybrid & Battery Electric Vehicles. Hence statement 2 is correct.
● Monitoring Authority: Department of Heavy Industries, the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises.
● Fame India Scheme has four focus areas:
o Technology development
o Demand Creation
o Pilot Projects
o Charging Infrastructure
● Emphasis on electrification of the public transportation that includes shared transport.
● To encourage advanced technologies, the benefits of incentives will be extended to only those vehicles which are fitted with advanced batteries like a Lithium Ion battery and other new technology batteries.
”Incorrect
“Statement -1 is not correct and Statement-2 is correct.
FAME-II scheme
● FAME India is a part of the ‘National Electric Mobility Mission (NEMM) Plan’. Main thrust of FAME is to encourage electric vehicles by providing subsidies. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
● NEMM intends to allow hybrid and electric vehicles to become the first choice for the purchasers so that these vehicles can replace the conventional vehicles and thus reduce liquid fuel consumption.
● Two Phases of the Scheme: „
o Phase I: Started in 2015 and was completed on 31st March, 2019.
o Phase II: Started from April, 2019, will be completed by 31st March, 2022.
● The scheme covers Hybrid & Electric technologies like Mild Hybrid, Strong Hybrid, Plug in Hybrid & Battery Electric Vehicles. Hence statement 2 is correct.
● Monitoring Authority: Department of Heavy Industries, the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises.
● Fame India Scheme has four focus areas:
o Technology development
o Demand Creation
o Pilot Projects
o Charging Infrastructure
● Emphasis on electrification of the public transportation that includes shared transport.
● To encourage advanced technologies, the benefits of incentives will be extended to only those vehicles which are fitted with advanced batteries like a Lithium Ion battery and other new technology batteries.
” -
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 points“Q.3) Consider the following statements with reference to the Disaster Management Act, 2005:
1. It was invoked for the first time in the country in the wake of the Covid-19 pandemic.
2. The Act designates the Ministry of Home Affairs as the nodal ministry.
3. THe Act provides for the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) headed by the Prime Minister.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
“Correct
“Both Statements-1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Disaster Management Act, 2005
● The DM Act was passed by the government of India in 2005 for the efficient management of disasters and other matters connected to it. However it came into force in January 2006.
● It was invoked for the first time in the country in the wake of the Covid-19 pandemic in the year 2020. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● The Centre, through the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) headed by the Prime Minister, invoked the provisions of the Act to streamline the management of the pandemic. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● Main Features of DM Act 2005:
o Nodal Agency: z The Act designates the Ministry of Home Affairs as the nodal ministry for steering the overall national disaster management. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Institutional Structure: It puts into place a systematic structure of institutions at the national, state and district levels.
o Finance: It contains the provisions for financial mechanisms such as the creation of funds for emergency response, National Disaster Response Fund and similar funds at the state and district levels.
o Civil and Criminal Liabilities: The Act also devotes several sections to various civil and criminal liabilities resulting from violation of provisions of the Act.
● Recently, the former Chief Secretary of West Bengal was served a show cause notice by the Home Ministry under Section 51 of the Disaster Management (DM) Act, 2005 for failing to comply with the Centre’s directions to attend the review meeting on Cyclone Yaas chaired by the Prime Minister.
● Section 51 (b) of the DM Act prescribes “punishment for obstruction” for refusal to comply with any direction given by or on behalf of the Central government or the State government or the National Executive Committee or the State Executive Committee or the District Authority under the Act.
● Anyone refusing to comply with orders is liable for punishment with imprisonment up to one year, or fine, or both. In case this refusal leads to death of people, the person liable shall be punished with imprisonment up to two years.
”Incorrect
“Both Statements-1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Disaster Management Act, 2005
● The DM Act was passed by the government of India in 2005 for the efficient management of disasters and other matters connected to it. However it came into force in January 2006.
● It was invoked for the first time in the country in the wake of the Covid-19 pandemic in the year 2020. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● The Centre, through the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) headed by the Prime Minister, invoked the provisions of the Act to streamline the management of the pandemic. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● Main Features of DM Act 2005:
o Nodal Agency: z The Act designates the Ministry of Home Affairs as the nodal ministry for steering the overall national disaster management. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Institutional Structure: It puts into place a systematic structure of institutions at the national, state and district levels.
o Finance: It contains the provisions for financial mechanisms such as the creation of funds for emergency response, National Disaster Response Fund and similar funds at the state and district levels.
o Civil and Criminal Liabilities: The Act also devotes several sections to various civil and criminal liabilities resulting from violation of provisions of the Act.
● Recently, the former Chief Secretary of West Bengal was served a show cause notice by the Home Ministry under Section 51 of the Disaster Management (DM) Act, 2005 for failing to comply with the Centre’s directions to attend the review meeting on Cyclone Yaas chaired by the Prime Minister.
● Section 51 (b) of the DM Act prescribes “punishment for obstruction” for refusal to comply with any direction given by or on behalf of the Central government or the State government or the National Executive Committee or the State Executive Committee or the District Authority under the Act.
● Anyone refusing to comply with orders is liable for punishment with imprisonment up to one year, or fine, or both. In case this refusal leads to death of people, the person liable shall be punished with imprisonment up to two years.
” -
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 pointsQ.4) Section 304B of Indian Penal Code (IPC) sometimes seen in news is related to: Correct
Section 304B of Indian Penal Code (IPC)
● According to Section 304B, to make out a case of dowry death, a woman should have died of burns or other bodily injuries or “otherwise than under normal circumstances” within seven years of her marriage.
● Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) has widened the scope of section 304B of Indian Penal Code (IPC) by indicating that there is no straitjacket formula to determine the cruelty against women.
● Women should have suffered cruelty or harassment from her husband or in-laws “soon before her death” in connection with demand for dowry.Incorrect
Section 304B of Indian Penal Code (IPC)
● According to Section 304B, to make out a case of dowry death, a woman should have died of burns or other bodily injuries or “otherwise than under normal circumstances” within seven years of her marriage.
● Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) has widened the scope of section 304B of Indian Penal Code (IPC) by indicating that there is no straitjacket formula to determine the cruelty against women.
● Women should have suffered cruelty or harassment from her husband or in-laws “soon before her death” in connection with demand for dowry. -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 pointsQ5) Consider the following statements with reference to the Draft Model Tenancy Act:
1. It is not mandatory to have a written agreement between the property owner and the tenant.
2. It limits the tenant’s advance security deposit to a maximum of six months rent for residential purposes.
3. Jurisdiction of civil courts barred in case of disputes.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Statement 3 is correct and statement 1 and 2 are wrong.
Model Tenancy Act
● The Union Cabinet has approved the Model Tenancy Act to be sent to the States and Union Territories to enact legislation or amend laws on rental properties.
● Written Agreement is Mandatory: Mandatory for there to be a written agreement between the property owner and the tenant. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
● Establishes Independent Authority and Rent Court: Establishes an independent authority in every state and UT for registration of tenancy agreements and even a separate court to take up tenancy related disputes. Jurisdiction of civil courts barred in case of disputes. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● Maximum Limit for Security Deposit: Limit the tenant’s advance security deposit to a maximum of two months rent for residential purposes and to a maximum of six months for non-residential purposes. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
● Describes rights and obligations of both landlord and tenant
● 24-hour Prior Notice by the Landlord: A landowner will have to give 24-hour prior notice before entering the rented premises to carry out repairs or replacement.
● Mechanism for Vacating the Premises: If the tenant fails to vacate the premises on the expiration of the period of tenancy or termination of tenancy, the landlord is entitled to double the monthly rent for two months and four times after that.Incorrect
Statement 3 is correct and statement 1 and 2 are wrong.
Model Tenancy Act
● The Union Cabinet has approved the Model Tenancy Act to be sent to the States and Union Territories to enact legislation or amend laws on rental properties.
● Written Agreement is Mandatory: Mandatory for there to be a written agreement between the property owner and the tenant. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
● Establishes Independent Authority and Rent Court: Establishes an independent authority in every state and UT for registration of tenancy agreements and even a separate court to take up tenancy related disputes. Jurisdiction of civil courts barred in case of disputes. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● Maximum Limit for Security Deposit: Limit the tenant’s advance security deposit to a maximum of two months rent for residential purposes and to a maximum of six months for non-residential purposes. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
● Describes rights and obligations of both landlord and tenant
● 24-hour Prior Notice by the Landlord: A landowner will have to give 24-hour prior notice before entering the rented premises to carry out repairs or replacement.
● Mechanism for Vacating the Premises: If the tenant fails to vacate the premises on the expiration of the period of tenancy or termination of tenancy, the landlord is entitled to double the monthly rent for two months and four times after that. -
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 pointsQ. 6) Consider the following statement with reference to Minimum Support Price(MSP):
1. The MSP is based on a calculation of at least two times the cost of production incurred by the farmers.
2. The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) takes a final decision on the level of MSPs.
3. Recently, the government added raw coffee into the MSP crops list.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are wrong.
Minimum Support Price
● The MSP is the rate at which the government purchases crops from farmers, and is based on a calculation of at least one-and-a-half times the cost of production incurred by the farmers. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
● Crops under MSP: The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane.
● CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
● The mandated crops include 14 crops of the kharif season, 6 rabi crops and 2 other commercial crops. Coffee is not covered under MSP. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
● In addition, the MSPs of toria and de-husked coconut are fixed on the basis of the MSPs of rapeseed/mustard and copra, respectively.
● Factors for Recommending the MSP: The CACP considers various factors while recommending the MSP for a commodity, including cost of cultivation.
● The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) of the Union government takes a final decision on the level of MSPs and other recommendations made by CACP. Hence statement 2 is wrong.Incorrect
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are wrong.
Minimum Support Price
● The MSP is the rate at which the government purchases crops from farmers, and is based on a calculation of at least one-and-a-half times the cost of production incurred by the farmers. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
● Crops under MSP: The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane.
● CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
● The mandated crops include 14 crops of the kharif season, 6 rabi crops and 2 other commercial crops. Coffee is not covered under MSP. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
● In addition, the MSPs of toria and de-husked coconut are fixed on the basis of the MSPs of rapeseed/mustard and copra, respectively.
● Factors for Recommending the MSP: The CACP considers various factors while recommending the MSP for a commodity, including cost of cultivation.
● The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) of the Union government takes a final decision on the level of MSPs and other recommendations made by CACP. Hence statement 2 is wrong. -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsQ.7) Who among the following publishes the World Development Report? Correct
Major Reports published by the World Bank:
● Ease of Doing Business.
● Human Capital Index.
● World Development Report.
● Migration and Development Brief.
● Global Economic Prospects.Incorrect
Major Reports published by the World Bank:
● Ease of Doing Business.
● Human Capital Index.
● World Development Report.
● Migration and Development Brief.
● Global Economic Prospects. -
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsQ.8) Consider the following statements with reference to Generalized System of Preferences(GSP):
1. Generalized System of Preferences(GSP) comprises the bulk of preferential schemes granted by developing countries to poor African countries.
2. It involves reduced Most Favored Nations (MFN) Tariffs or duty-free entry of eligible products exported by beneficiary countries to the markets of donor countries.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is wrong and statement 2 is correct.
Generalized System of Preferences
● Generalized System of Preferences is an umbrella that comprises the bulk of preferential schemes granted by industrialized nations to developing countries. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
● It involves reduced Most Favored Nations (MFN) Tariffs or duty-free entry of eligible products exported by beneficiary countries to the markets of donor countries. Hence statement 2 is correct.
● The idea of granting developing countries preferential tariff rates in the markets of industrialized countries was originally presented at the first United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) conference in 1964.
● The GSP was adopted at UNCTAD in New Delhi in 1968 and was instituted in 1971.
● Countries which Grant Generalized System of Preferences: Australia, Belarus, Canada, EU, Iceland, Japan, Kazakhstan, New Zealand, Norway, Russian Federation, Switzerland, Turkey and the United States of America.
● In 2019, US terminated India’s designation as a beneficiary developing nation under its GSP trade programme.
● This was done after determining that India has not assured the US that it will provide “equitable and reasonable access” to its markets.Incorrect
Statement 1 is wrong and statement 2 is correct.
Generalized System of Preferences
● Generalized System of Preferences is an umbrella that comprises the bulk of preferential schemes granted by industrialized nations to developing countries. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
● It involves reduced Most Favored Nations (MFN) Tariffs or duty-free entry of eligible products exported by beneficiary countries to the markets of donor countries. Hence statement 2 is correct.
● The idea of granting developing countries preferential tariff rates in the markets of industrialized countries was originally presented at the first United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) conference in 1964.
● The GSP was adopted at UNCTAD in New Delhi in 1968 and was instituted in 1971.
● Countries which Grant Generalized System of Preferences: Australia, Belarus, Canada, EU, Iceland, Japan, Kazakhstan, New Zealand, Norway, Russian Federation, Switzerland, Turkey and the United States of America.
● In 2019, US terminated India’s designation as a beneficiary developing nation under its GSP trade programme.
● This was done after determining that India has not assured the US that it will provide “equitable and reasonable access” to its markets. -
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsQ, 9) Consider the following statements with reference to Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO):
1. The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is a permanent body of SCO.
2. India is not a member of SCO.
3. The SCO’s official languages are Russian and Chinese only.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 and 3 are correct and 2 is wrong.
Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
● SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization.
● It’s a Eurasian political, economic and military organization aiming to maintain peace, security and stability in the region. It was created in 2001. The SCO Charter was signed in 2002, and entered into force in 2003.
● Official Language: The SCO’s official languages are Russian and Chinese. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● Members: Eight countries are part of SCO, which are: Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India and Pakistan. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
● SCO has two Permanent Bodies:
o SCO Secretariat in Beijing (China), and
o Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) in Tashkent (Uzbekistan). Hence statement 1 is correct.
● Recently, the Vice President of India has launched the first ever SCO Online Exhibition on Shared Buddhist Heritage.Incorrect
Statement 1 and 3 are correct and 2 is wrong.
Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
● SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization.
● It’s a Eurasian political, economic and military organization aiming to maintain peace, security and stability in the region. It was created in 2001. The SCO Charter was signed in 2002, and entered into force in 2003.
● Official Language: The SCO’s official languages are Russian and Chinese. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● Members: Eight countries are part of SCO, which are: Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India and Pakistan. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
● SCO has two Permanent Bodies:
o SCO Secretariat in Beijing (China), and
o Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) in Tashkent (Uzbekistan). Hence statement 1 is correct.
● Recently, the Vice President of India has launched the first ever SCO Online Exhibition on Shared Buddhist Heritage. -
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsQ. 10) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched:
Island/wetland Place
1. Pantanal Wetland – Brazil
2. Thitu Island – Indonesia
3. Addu atoll – Maldives
4. Crete Island – Gulf of MexicoCorrect
● Pantanal Wetland: It is currently suffering its worst fires in more than two decades with nearly 12% of its vegetation reportedly already lost. It is a natural region encompassing the world’s largest tropical wetland area and the world’s largest flooded grasslands. It is located mostly within Brazil but it extends into portions of Bolivia and Paraguay.
● Thitu Island/Island of Pagasa: Located in the disputed South China Sea. Second largest of the naturally occurring Spratly Islands and the largest of the Philippine administered islands
● Addu Atoll, also known as Seenu Atoll, is the southernmost atoll of the Maldives. Apart from its strategic location in the Indian Ocean, Addu is the second largest city in the archipelago, home to over 30,000 people.
● Crete Island: It is the largest and most populous of the Greek islands. Crete became part of Greece in December 1913. It is located in the southern part of the Aegean Sea separating the Aegean from the Libyan Sea.Incorrect
● Pantanal Wetland: It is currently suffering its worst fires in more than two decades with nearly 12% of its vegetation reportedly already lost. It is a natural region encompassing the world’s largest tropical wetland area and the world’s largest flooded grasslands. It is located mostly within Brazil but it extends into portions of Bolivia and Paraguay.
● Thitu Island/Island of Pagasa: Located in the disputed South China Sea. Second largest of the naturally occurring Spratly Islands and the largest of the Philippine administered islands
● Addu Atoll, also known as Seenu Atoll, is the southernmost atoll of the Maldives. Apart from its strategic location in the Indian Ocean, Addu is the second largest city in the archipelago, home to over 30,000 people.
● Crete Island: It is the largest and most populous of the Greek islands. Crete became part of Greece in December 1913. It is located in the southern part of the Aegean Sea separating the Aegean from the Libyan Sea. -
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsQ.11) Consider the following statements regarding Integrated power development scheme.
1. It aims to ensure 24/7 power supply and reduction of AT&C losses.
2. Power Finance Corporation is a nodal agency under the Ministry of New and Renewable energy.
3. All Discoms are allowed to get financial assistance from the scheme.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?Correct
Statements 1 and 3 are correct and 2 is wrong.
Integrated Power Development Scheme
● Launched in 2014 by the Ministry of Power. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
● Power Finance Corporation (PFC) is the Nodal agency for implementation of the scheme under the Ministry of Power.
● Objectives:
o It aims to ensure 24/7 power supply and reduction of ATC losses. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution in the urban areas
o Metering of distribution transformers, feeders, consumers in the urban areas
o IT enablement of the distribution sector and strengthening of the distribution network under R-APDRP.
● All Discoms are allowed to get financial assistance from the scheme. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● It also aims at establishment of an IT enabled energy accounting / auditing system, improvement in billed energy based on metered consumption and improvement in collection efficiency.Incorrect
Statements 1 and 3 are correct and 2 is wrong.
Integrated Power Development Scheme
● Launched in 2014 by the Ministry of Power. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
● Power Finance Corporation (PFC) is the Nodal agency for implementation of the scheme under the Ministry of Power.
● Objectives:
o It aims to ensure 24/7 power supply and reduction of ATC losses. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution in the urban areas
o Metering of distribution transformers, feeders, consumers in the urban areas
o IT enablement of the distribution sector and strengthening of the distribution network under R-APDRP.
● All Discoms are allowed to get financial assistance from the scheme. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● It also aims at establishment of an IT enabled energy accounting / auditing system, improvement in billed energy based on metered consumption and improvement in collection efficiency. -
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsQ.12) Consider the following statements regarding ‘National AI Portal’.
1. It’s a joint initiative by MeitY, NeGd and NASSCOM.
2. The ‘National AI Portal’ serves as a central hub for all AI related news.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?Correct
Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
National AI Portal
● It is a joint initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), National e-Governance Division (NeGD) and NASSCOM. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● NeGD: In 2009, NeGD was created as an Independent Business Division under the Digital India Corporation (a not-for-profit company set up by MeitY).
● NASSCOM: A not-for-profit industry association is the apex body for the IT and IT enabled products and services sector in India.
● It serves as a central hub for Artificial Intelligence (AI) related news, learning, articles, events and activities etc, in India and beyond. Hence statement 2 is correct.Incorrect
Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
National AI Portal
● It is a joint initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY), National e-Governance Division (NeGD) and NASSCOM. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● NeGD: In 2009, NeGD was created as an Independent Business Division under the Digital India Corporation (a not-for-profit company set up by MeitY).
● NASSCOM: A not-for-profit industry association is the apex body for the IT and IT enabled products and services sector in India.
● It serves as a central hub for Artificial Intelligence (AI) related news, learning, articles, events and activities etc, in India and beyond. Hence statement 2 is correct. -
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsQ.13) Consider the following statements regarding the Mega Food Park Scheme.
1. The Ministry of Food Processing Industries is implementing the scheme.
2. Presently, there are 22 mega food parks in operation in line with Atma Nibhar Bharat and Make in India initiative.
3. Centre provides financial assistance of 500 crore per one mega food park project.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 and 2 are correct and 3 is wrong.
Mega Food Park Scheme
● The Ministry of Food Processing Industries is implementing the Mega Food Park Scheme in the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● Mega Food Parks create modern infrastructure facilities for food processing along the value chain from farm to market with strong forward and backward linkages through a cluster-based approach.
● The central government provides financial assistance of Rs. 50 Crore per Mega Food Park (MFP) project. The MFP project is implemented by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) which is a Body Corporate registered under the Companies Act, 2013. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
● SPV is a subsidiary company that is formed to undertake a specific business purpose or activity.
● Presently, 22 Mega Food Parks are operational. It is in line with the ‘Make in India’ and ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ vision of the Government of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.Incorrect
Statement 1 and 2 are correct and 3 is wrong.
Mega Food Park Scheme
● The Ministry of Food Processing Industries is implementing the Mega Food Park Scheme in the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● Mega Food Parks create modern infrastructure facilities for food processing along the value chain from farm to market with strong forward and backward linkages through a cluster-based approach.
● The central government provides financial assistance of Rs. 50 Crore per Mega Food Park (MFP) project. The MFP project is implemented by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) which is a Body Corporate registered under the Companies Act, 2013. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
● SPV is a subsidiary company that is formed to undertake a specific business purpose or activity.
● Presently, 22 Mega Food Parks are operational. It is in line with the ‘Make in India’ and ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ vision of the Government of India. Hence statement 2 is correct. -
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsQ.14) Codex Alimentarius in news recently, is related to Correct
Codex Alimentarius
● The Codex Alimentarius or “Food Code” is a collection of standards, guidelines and codes of practice adopted by the Codex Alimentarius Commission.
● Food safety has a critical role in assuring that food stays safe at every stage of the food chain – from production to harvest, processing, storage, distribution, all the way to preparation and consumption.
● Food production is responsible for up to 30% of global greenhouse gas emissions contributing to global warming.
● Global food waste accounts for 6.7% of global greenhouse gas emissions, directly leading to climate change.
● The Codex Alimentarius Commission is a joint intergovernmental body of the Food and Agriculture Organization and World Health Organization.Incorrect
Codex Alimentarius
● The Codex Alimentarius or “Food Code” is a collection of standards, guidelines and codes of practice adopted by the Codex Alimentarius Commission.
● Food safety has a critical role in assuring that food stays safe at every stage of the food chain – from production to harvest, processing, storage, distribution, all the way to preparation and consumption.
● Food production is responsible for up to 30% of global greenhouse gas emissions contributing to global warming.
● Global food waste accounts for 6.7% of global greenhouse gas emissions, directly leading to climate change.
● The Codex Alimentarius Commission is a joint intergovernmental body of the Food and Agriculture Organization and World Health Organization. -
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsQ.15) Consider the following statements regarding ‘e- Courts Project’.
1. Main objective is to provide efficient & time-bound citizen-centric services delivery
2. It is based on e- Courts Project Litigant’s Charter.
3. It is a Pan-India Project, monitored and funded by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
4. It is on the basis of the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian Judiciary.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Statements 1, 2, 4 are correct and 3 is wrong.
The e- Courts Project
● The e-Courts project was conceptualized on the basis of the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian with a vision to transform the Indian Judiciary by ICT enablement of Courts. Hence statement 4 is correct.
● The e-Courts Mission Mode Project, is a pan-India project, monitored and funded by the Ministry of Law and Justice for the District Courts across the country. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
● The project envisages: To provide efficient & time-bound citizen-centric services delivery as detailed in e-Court Project Litigant’s Charter. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● To develop, install & implement decision support systems in courts. To automate the processes to provide transparency in the accessibility of information to its stakeholders.
● To enhance judicial productivity, both qualitatively & quantitatively, to make the justice delivery system affordable, accessible, cost-effective, predictable, reliable and transparent.Incorrect
Statements 1, 2, 4 are correct and 3 is wrong.
The e- Courts Project
● The e-Courts project was conceptualized on the basis of the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian with a vision to transform the Indian Judiciary by ICT enablement of Courts. Hence statement 4 is correct.
● The e-Courts Mission Mode Project, is a pan-India project, monitored and funded by the Ministry of Law and Justice for the District Courts across the country. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
● The project envisages: To provide efficient & time-bound citizen-centric services delivery as detailed in e-Court Project Litigant’s Charter. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● To develop, install & implement decision support systems in courts. To automate the processes to provide transparency in the accessibility of information to its stakeholders.
● To enhance judicial productivity, both qualitatively & quantitatively, to make the justice delivery system affordable, accessible, cost-effective, predictable, reliable and transparent. -
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 pointsQ.16) Consider the following statements regarding the Autonomous District council (ADC).
1. The fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of the tribal areas.
2. ADCs are present in five North Eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram and Nagaland.
3. The special provision is provided under Article 244 (2) and Article 275 of the Constitution.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Statement 3 is correct and statements 1, 2 are wrong.
Autonomous District Council (ADC)
● The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Hence statements 1 and 2 are wrong.
● The special provision is provided under Article 244 (2) and Article 275 of the Constitution. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● The tribals have been given freedom to exercise legislative, executive powers through an autonomous regional council and ADCs.
● Composition of Autonomous Councils: Each autonomous district and regional council consists of not more than 30 members, of which four are nominated by the governor and the rest via elections.
● All of them remain in power for a term of five years.
● Despite various degrees of autonomy, the 6th Schedule area does not fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned.
● The governor is empowered to organise and re-organise the Autonomous Districts.Incorrect
Statement 3 is correct and statements 1, 2 are wrong.
Autonomous District Council (ADC)
● The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Hence statements 1 and 2 are wrong.
● The special provision is provided under Article 244 (2) and Article 275 of the Constitution. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● The tribals have been given freedom to exercise legislative, executive powers through an autonomous regional council and ADCs.
● Composition of Autonomous Councils: Each autonomous district and regional council consists of not more than 30 members, of which four are nominated by the governor and the rest via elections.
● All of them remain in power for a term of five years.
● Despite various degrees of autonomy, the 6th Schedule area does not fall outside the executive authority of the state concerned.
● The governor is empowered to organise and re-organise the Autonomous Districts. -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsQ.17) Consider the following statements regarding Rengma Naga Tribe of India:
1. Rengma is a Naga tribe found in Nagaland, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
2. Rengma Nagas stayed originally in Assam’s Karbi Hills (also known as Mikir Hills).
3. The harvest festival of the Rengma’s is called Ngada.
Which of the following statements is /are incorrect?Correct
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Rengma Naga Tribe:
● Rengma Naga is a Naga tribe found in Nagaland, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● The first official recording of the Rengma Nagas staying in Assam’s Karbi Hills (then known as Mikir Hills) was made in 1855 by Major John Butler, a British officer posted in the North-Eastern region. Hence statement 2 is correct.
● Butler recorded that the Rengmas in Karbi Anglong had migrated there from the Naga Hills in the early part of the 18th century.
● They have abandoned many of their tribal customs and married within the local communities.
● The harvest festival of the Rengmas is called Ngada. Hence statement 3 is correct.Incorrect
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Rengma Naga Tribe:
● Rengma Naga is a Naga tribe found in Nagaland, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● The first official recording of the Rengma Nagas staying in Assam’s Karbi Hills (then known as Mikir Hills) was made in 1855 by Major John Butler, a British officer posted in the North-Eastern region. Hence statement 2 is correct.
● Butler recorded that the Rengmas in Karbi Anglong had migrated there from the Naga Hills in the early part of the 18th century.
● They have abandoned many of their tribal customs and married within the local communities.
● The harvest festival of the Rengmas is called Ngada. Hence statement 3 is correct. -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsQ.18) Consider the following statements regarding Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan.
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme for schooling.
2. It subsumes the three Schemes of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) and Teacher Education (TE).
3. The Ministry of Education is the implementing agency of Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan.
Which of the following statements is /are correct?Correct
Statement 2 is correct and statement 1 and 3 are wrong.
Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan
● Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan, is a Centrally Sponsored and Integrated Scheme for school education extending from pre-school to class XII. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
● It aims to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education at all levels of school education.
● It subsumes the three Schemes of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) and Teacher Education (TE). Hence statement 2 is correct.
● The Ministry of Education formerly known as the Ministry of Human Resource and Development is implementing it. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● The fund sharing pattern for the scheme between Centre and States is at present in the ratio of 90:10 for the North-Eastern States and the Himalayan States and 60:40 for all other States and Union Territories with Legislature.
● The scheme also proposes to give flexibility to the States and UTs to plan and prioritize their interventions within the scheme norms and the overall resource envelope available to them.
● The main emphasis of the Scheme is on improving the quality of school education by focussing on the two T’s – Teacher and Technology.Incorrect
Statement 2 is correct and statement 1 and 3 are wrong.
Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan
● Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan, is a Centrally Sponsored and Integrated Scheme for school education extending from pre-school to class XII. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
● It aims to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education at all levels of school education.
● It subsumes the three Schemes of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) and Teacher Education (TE). Hence statement 2 is correct.
● The Ministry of Education formerly known as the Ministry of Human Resource and Development is implementing it. Hence statement 3 is correct.
● The fund sharing pattern for the scheme between Centre and States is at present in the ratio of 90:10 for the North-Eastern States and the Himalayan States and 60:40 for all other States and Union Territories with Legislature.
● The scheme also proposes to give flexibility to the States and UTs to plan and prioritize their interventions within the scheme norms and the overall resource envelope available to them.
● The main emphasis of the Scheme is on improving the quality of school education by focussing on the two T’s – Teacher and Technology. -
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsQ.19) Recently “I-Familia” seen in news is related to: Correct
I-Familia
● Recently, the Interpol has launched a new global database named “I-Familia” to identify missing persons through family DNA and help the police solve cold cases in member countries.
● The first of its kind, I-Familia is a global database for identifying missing persons based on international DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) kinship matching.
● The database seeks to identify missing persons or unidentified human remains when direct comparison is not possible, by using DNA samples from family members instead. Family members must give their consent for their data to be used for international searching.
● It builds on Interpol’s long-standing success in direct DNA matching.Incorrect
I-Familia
● Recently, the Interpol has launched a new global database named “I-Familia” to identify missing persons through family DNA and help the police solve cold cases in member countries.
● The first of its kind, I-Familia is a global database for identifying missing persons based on international DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) kinship matching.
● The database seeks to identify missing persons or unidentified human remains when direct comparison is not possible, by using DNA samples from family members instead. Family members must give their consent for their data to be used for international searching.
● It builds on Interpol’s long-standing success in direct DNA matching. -
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsQ.20) Consider the following statements regarding Horticulture Cluster Development Programme:
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme aimed at growing, developing identified Horticulture Clusters.
2. India is the largest producer of Horticulture crops in the world.
Which of the following statements is /are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct and 2 is wrong.
Horticulture Cluster Development Programme
● The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has launched the Horticulture Cluster Development Programme (CDP) in order to promote the export of horticultural produce.
● It is a Central Sector Programme aimed at growing, developing identified Horticulture Clusters. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● India is the second-largest producer of Horticulture crops globally, accounting for approximately 12% of the world’s production of fruits and vegetables. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
● India is a leader in producing fruits like Mango, Banana, Pomegranate, Sapota.
● Horticulture is the branch of plant agriculture dealing with garden crops, generally fruits, vegetables, and ornamental plants.
● Horticulture cluster is a regional/geographical concentration of targeted horticulture crops Acid Lime and Aonla.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct and 2 is wrong.
Horticulture Cluster Development Programme
● The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has launched the Horticulture Cluster Development Programme (CDP) in order to promote the export of horticultural produce.
● It is a Central Sector Programme aimed at growing, developing identified Horticulture Clusters. Hence statement 1 is correct.
● India is the second-largest producer of Horticulture crops globally, accounting for approximately 12% of the world’s production of fruits and vegetables. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
● India is a leader in producing fruits like Mango, Banana, Pomegranate, Sapota.
● Horticulture is the branch of plant agriculture dealing with garden crops, generally fruits, vegetables, and ornamental plants.
● Horticulture cluster is a regional/geographical concentration of targeted horticulture crops Acid Lime and Aonla.
Leaderboard: 15th Sept 201 | Polity Test 3
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