Quiz-summary
0 of 20 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
Information
Please make a note of the following
1. Some questions are purposely out of syllabus. Please think hard, try to recall and attempt them. This surprise is nothing compared to what you will experience in the actual exam.
2. While you are attempting the test, keep writing the questions numbers in the comment section in the following format.
100% sure – <list of question numbers>. This will indicate how many questions are you are 100% sure of but eventually got wrong
Could eliminate 2 options – <list of question numbers>. This will indicate the questions where you took calculated risks
Complete guess– <list of question numbers>. This will indicate how many questions you guessed completely.
A sample would be
100% sure-1,2,3
Could eliminate 2 options-4,5
Complete guess-6,7
This will make you more aware of what your attempt. It is very important.
3. Completing the test should be your top priority. Focus on accuracy rather than simply attempting more questions. Give enough thought to each question, we have increased the time limit so you can do this.
4. At the end of the test, click on ‘View Questions’ button to check the solutions.
*You can attempt the test multiple times for your own practice but only your first attempt will be counted for rankings.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 20 questions answered correctly.
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points (0).
| Average score |
|
| Your score |
|
Categories
- Polity 0%
| Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Table is loading | ||||
| No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 20
1. Question
2 pointsThe jurisdiction of Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) extends to who among the following?
1. Group A and B officers of Central Government
2. Officers in Grade D and above in Reserve Bank of India
3. Members of All India Services
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
THEME-STATUTORY BODIES
Statement 1 is incorrect.It only has jurisdiction over Group A officers of Central Government.
SIMILAR QUESTIONS HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.
EXPLANATION-
The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the following:
· Members of All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and Group A
officers of the Central Government.
· Officers of the rank of Scale V and above in the Public Sector Banks.
· Officers in Grade D and above in Reserve Bank of India NABARD and SIDBI.
· Chief Executives and Executives on the Board and other officers of E-8 and above in Schedule ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ Public Sector Undertakings.
· Chief Executives and Executives on the Board and other officers of E-7 and above in Schedule ‗C‘ and ‗D‘ Public Sector Undertakings.
· Managers and above in General Insurance Companies.
· Senior Divisional Managers and above in Life Insurance Corporation.
· Officers drawing salary of `8700/- p.m. and above on Central Government D.A. pattern as on the date of the notification and as may be revised from time to time in Societies and other Local Authorities.
Incorrect
THEME-STATUTORY BODIES
Statement 1 is incorrect.It only has jurisdiction over Group A officers of Central Government.
SIMILAR QUESTIONS HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.
EXPLANATION-
The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the following:
· Members of All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and Group A
officers of the Central Government.
· Officers of the rank of Scale V and above in the Public Sector Banks.
· Officers in Grade D and above in Reserve Bank of India NABARD and SIDBI.
· Chief Executives and Executives on the Board and other officers of E-8 and above in Schedule ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ Public Sector Undertakings.
· Chief Executives and Executives on the Board and other officers of E-7 and above in Schedule ‗C‘ and ‗D‘ Public Sector Undertakings.
· Managers and above in General Insurance Companies.
· Senior Divisional Managers and above in Life Insurance Corporation.
· Officers drawing salary of `8700/- p.m. and above on Central Government D.A. pattern as on the date of the notification and as may be revised from time to time in Societies and other Local Authorities.
-
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
2 pointsWith respect to the judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. The doctrine of ‘procedure established by law’ declares
the fairness and reasonableness of a law.2. The doctrine of ‘due process of law’ examines whether the
law is duly enacted by a competent authority.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
THEME-FRSIMILAR QUESTIONS HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.EXPLANATION.• Due Process of Law: It is the legal requirement that the state must respect all of the legal rights that are owed to a person and laws that states enact must confirm to the laws of the land like – fairness
fundamental rights liberty etc. It also gives the judiciary to access the
fundamental fairness justice and liberty of any legislation.• It can declare laws violative of the rights of the citizens void not only on substantive grounds of being unlawful but also on procedural grounds of being unreasonable. Thus the doctrine of due process is wider as it contains within itself the doctrine of procedure established by law.(Statement 2 is correct).• Procedure Established by Law: It means that a law that is
duly enacted by legislature or the concerned body is valid if it has followed
the correct procedure. Say a law enacted by Indian legislature. Article 21 of
Indian Constitution says that- No person shall bedeprived of his life or
personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. In India
there is no mention of the word Due Process. A strict literal interpretation of
Procedure established by Law give the legislative authority an upper hand and
they may enact laws which may not be fair from a liberal perspective.
(Statement 1 is not correct)• Difference between Due Process and Procedure Established by Law: The difference between due process of law and procedure established by law is that under the American system a law must satisfy the criteria of a liberal democracy. In India procedure established by law on the other hand means a law duly enacted is valid even if its contrary to principles of justice and equity.Incorrect
THEME-FRSIMILAR QUESTIONS HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.EXPLANATION.• Due Process of Law: It is the legal requirement that the
state must respect all of the legal rights that are owed to a person and laws
that states enact must confirm to the laws of the land like – fairness
fundamental rights liberty etc. It also gives the judiciary to access the
fundamental fairness justice and liberty of any legislation.• It can declare laws violative of the rights of the
citizens void not only on substantive grounds of being unlawful but also on
procedural grounds of being unreasonable. Thus the doctrine of due process is
wider as it contains within itself the doctrine of procedure established by
law. (Statement 2 is correct).• Procedure Established by Law: It means that a law that is
duly enacted by legislature or the concerned body is valid if it has followed
the correct procedure. Say a law enacted by Indian legislature. Article 21 of
Indian Constitution says that- No person shall bedeprived of his life or
personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. In India
there is no mention of the word Due Process. A strict literal interpretation of
Procedure established by Law give the legislative authority an upper hand and
they may enact laws which may not be fair from a liberal perspective.
(Statement 1 is not correct)• Difference between Due Process and Procedure Established
by Law: The difference between due process of law and procedure established by
law is that under the American system a law must satisfy the criteria of a
liberal democracy. In India procedure established by law on the other hand
means a law duly enacted is valid even if its contrary to principles of justice
and equity. -
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about ‘Article 244A
of the Indian Constitution’1. It provides for an autonomous state for certain tribal
areas in Assam with its own legislature and council of ministers2. It was inserted by the Twenty-fifth Amendment of the
Constitution of India.Select the correct statement.
Correct
THEME- SCHEDULED AREASIMILAR QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.
STATEMENT 2 IS INCORRECT. The Twenty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India officially known as The Constitution (Twenty-second
Amendment) Act 1969 inserted new article 244AEXPLANTION- The Twenty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India officially known as The Constitution (Twenty-second Amendment) Act 1969 inserted new article 244A in the Constitution to empower Parliament to enact a law for constituting an autonomous State within the State of Assam and also to provide the autonomous State with Legislature or a Council of Ministers or both with such powers and functions as may be defined by that law.Incorrect
THEME- SCHEDULED AREASIMILAR QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.
STATEMENT 2 IS INCORRECT. The Twenty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India officially known as The Constitution (Twenty-second
Amendment) Act 1969 inserted new article 244AEXPLANTION- The Twenty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India officially known as The Constitution (Twenty-second Amendment) Act 1969 inserted new article 244A in the Constitution to empower Parliament to enact a law for constituting an autonomous State within the State of Assam and also to provide the autonomous State with Legislature or a Council of Ministers or both with such powers and functions as may be defined by that law. -
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
2 pointsUnder Article 323 B, the Parliament and the state
legislatures are authorized to provide for the establishment of tribunals for
the adjudication of disputes relating to the following matters:1. Taxation
2. Foreign exchange, import and export
3. Industrial and labour
4. Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries.
Which of the above listed matters is/are correct?
Correct
THEME-Quasi Judicial bodies
SIMILAR QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.
STATEMENT 4 IS INCORRECT. Public health and sanitation;
hospitals and dispensaries is item number 6 in state list.EXPLANATION-Under Article 323 B the Parliament and the state
legislatures are authorized to provide for the establishment of tribunals for
the adjudication of disputes relating to the following matters:· Taxation· Foreign exchange import and export· Industrial and labour· Land reforms· Ceiling on urban property· Elections to Parliament and state legislatures· Food stuffs· Rent and tenancy rightsDo you know?· Under Article 323 A only one tribunal for the Centre
and one for each state or two or more states may be established. There is no
question of hierarchy of tribunals whereas under Article 323 B a hierarchy of
tribunals may be created.Incorrect
THEME-Quasi Judicial bodies
SIMILAR QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.
STATEMENT 4 IS INCORRECT. Public health and sanitation;
hospitals and dispensaries is item number 6 in state list.EXPLANATION-Under Article 323 B the Parliament and the state
legislatures are authorized to provide for the establishment of tribunals for
the adjudication of disputes relating to the following matters:· Taxation· Foreign exchange import and export· Industrial and labour· Land reforms· Ceiling on urban property· Elections to Parliament and state legislatures· Food stuffs· Rent and tenancy rightsDo you know?· Under Article 323 A only one tribunal for the Centre
and one for each state or two or more states may be established. There is no
question of hierarchy of tribunals whereas under Article 323 B a hierarchy of
tribunals may be created. -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the credit rating of urban local bodies, consider the following statements:
1. The ratings are assigned based on infrastructural
amenities available in the city.2. Cities under Smart City mission have been exempted from
the ratings.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- THEME-CURRENT/LOCAL GOV.
- EXPLANATION-Credit ratings are assigned based on assets and liabilities
of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) revenue streams resources available for capital
investments Double Entry Accounting practice and other governance practices. Hence statement 1 is not correct. - Ministry of Urban Development is promoting Credit Rating of
cities as one of the five Transformational Reforms under which about 500 cities and towns. 94 of the 500 cities included in Smart City Mission and Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) have obtained such ratings which are necessary for issuing Municipal Bonds for mobilization of resources. - These ratings ranging from AAA to D will help determine how these cities which are part of the Smart City Mission and Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) raise money and on what terms. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Incorrect
- THEME-CURRENT/LOCAL GOV.
- EXPLANATION-Credit ratings are assigned based on assets and liabilities
of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) revenue streams resources available for capital
investments Double Entry Accounting practice and other governance practices. Hence statement 1 is not correct. - Ministry of Urban Development is promoting Credit Rating of
cities as one of the five Transformational Reforms under which about 500 cities and towns. 94 of the 500 cities included in Smart City Mission and Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) have obtained such ratings which are necessary for issuing Municipal Bonds for mobilization of resources. - These ratings ranging from AAA to D will help determine how these cities which are part of the Smart City Mission and Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) raise money and on what terms. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
-
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
2 pointsWhich of the following statements are NOT correct
regarding the three types questions asked in question hour?1. Starred question – requires a written answer.
2. Unstarred question – requires an oral answer.
3. Short Notice Question – requires an Oral Answer.
Select the code from below:
Correct
THEME-PARLIAMENT
- STATEMENT 1 AND 2 ARE INCORRECT. · A starred question
(distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.· An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and hence supplementary questions cannot follow. - Note: Incorrect questions have been asked.
- EXPLANATION– Question HourThe first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for this. During this time the members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers. The questions are of threekinds namely starred unstarred and short notice.
- · A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.
- · An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a
written answer and hence supplementary questions cannot follow. - · A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of fewer than ten days. It is answered orally.
Incorrect
THEME-PARLIAMENTSTATEMENT 1 AND 2 ARE INCORRECT. · A starred question
(distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary
questions can follow.· An unstarred question on the other hand requires a
written answer and hence supplementary questions cannot follow.Note: Incorrect questions have been asked.EXPLANATION- Question HourThe first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for
this. During this time themembers ask questions and the ministers usually give
answers. The questions are of threekinds namely starred unstarred and short notice.· A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk)
requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.· An unstarred question on the other hand requires a
written answer and hence supplementary questions cannot follow.· A short notice question is one that is asked by
giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered orally. -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
2 pointsWhich among the following take the oath of defending the constitution?
1. President
2. Judges of Supreme Court
3. Governor
4. Judges of the High Court
5. Prime Minister
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
THEME- SCHEDULE of constitution
Similar Question was asked in 2015 upsc prelims.
§ Under the third schedule of the Indian Constitution:President and Governor take the oath of
preserving protecting and defending the Constitution.
§ SC and HC judges take the oath of upholding the constitution.
§ PM takes the oath of bearing true faith and allegiance to the Constitution and abiding by it.
Incorrect
THEME- SCHEDULE of constitution
Similar Question was asked in 2015 upsc prelims.
- Under the third schedule of the Indian Constitution:President and Governor take the oath of preserving protecting and defending the Constitution.
- SC and HC judges take the oath of upholding the constitution.
- PM takes the oath of bearing true faith and allegiance to the Constitution and abiding by it.
-
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
1. In India, the Code of Ethics is laid down for the civil
servants to ensure accountability in civil services.2. The Code of Conduct is laid down in the Central Services
(Conduct) Rules, 1964 for the members of the All India Services only.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
THEME- ALL INDIA SERVICE
BOTH STATEMENTS ARE INCORRECT.
EXPLANATION–Statement 1 is not correct: There is no Code of Ethics
prescribed for civil servants in India although such codes exist in other
countries.-Statement 2 is not correct: The Conduct Rules contained in
the Central Services (Conduct) Rules 1964 and analogous rules applicable to
members of the All India Services or employees of various State Governments.
The code of behaviour as enunciated in the Conduct Rules while containing some general norms like maintaining integrity and absolute devotion to duty and not indulging in conduct unbecoming of a Government servant is generally directed towards cataloguing specific activities deemed undesirable for government servants. These conduct rules do not constitute a code of ethics.Incorrect
THEME- ALL INDIA SERVICEBOTH STATEMENTS ARE INCORRECT.EXPLANATION–Statement 1 is not correct: There is no Code of Ethics
prescribed for civil servants in India although such codes exist in other
countries.-Statement 2 is not correct: The Conduct Rules contained in
the Central Services (Conduct) Rules 1964 and analogous rules applicable to
members of the All India Services or employees of various State Governments.
The code of behaviour as enunciated in the Conduct Rules while containing some
general norms like maintaining integrity and absolute devotion to duty and not
indulging in conduct unbecoming of a government servant is generally directed
towards cataloguing specific activities deemed undesirable for government
servants. These conduct rules do not constitute a code of ethics. -
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
2 pointsThe Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with:
1. Security of a state
2. Foreign affairs
3. Maintenance of public order
4. Maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
THEME- POWERS OF PARLIAMENT UNDER PART III (FR).
Statement (3) and (4) are not correct. The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with – defence foreign affairs and the security of India.
EXPLANATION-
o Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained.
o Detention is of two types: Punitive & Preventive o Punitive: It is to punish a person for an offence committed by him after trial and conviction in a court. Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past offence.
o Preventive: It means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court. Its purpose is to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future. Thus preventive detention is only a precautionary measure.
o The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and the state legislatures.
o The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with – defence foreign affairs and the security of India. Hence only option (2) is correct.
o Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a state the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community.
Incorrect
THEME- POWERS OF PARLIAMENT UNDER PART III (FR).
Statement (3) and (4) are not correct. The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with – defence foreign affairs and the security of India.
EXPLANATION-
o Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained.
o Detention is of two types: Punitive & Preventive o Punitive: It is to punish a person for an offence committed by him after trial and conviction in a court. Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past offence.
o Preventive: It means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court. Its purpose is to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future. Thus preventive detention is only a precautionary measure.
o The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and the state legislatures.
o The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with – defence foreign affairs and the security of India. Hence only option (2) is correct.
o Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a state the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community.
-
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
2 pointsWhich among the below given statement(s) is/are
correct about Panchayat system in India?1. The provisions of Part IX of the constitution relating to
the Panchayats are not applicable to the Fifth Schedule areas and Sixth
Schedule areas.2. PESA was enacted to extend the provisions of Part IX of
the Constitution to Scheduled Areas and Tribal areas.Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
THEME- Local bodies
SIMILAR QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS 2013.
STATEMENT 2 IS INCORRECT. PESA as the name says the
extension is with regard to Scheduled Areas (Fifth Schedule Areas) and not
Tribal areas (under Sixth Schedule).EXPLANATION-The provisions of Part IX of the constitution relating to
the Panchayats are not applicable tothe Fifth Schedule areas. However the Parliament may extend these provisions to such areas subject to such exceptions and modifications as it may specify.PESA as the name says the extension is with regard to Scheduled Areas (Fifth Schedule Areas) and not Tribal areas (under Sixth Schedule)MORE ON PESA 1996Introduction• The Provision of the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act 1996 popularly known as PESA was enacted to bring the Scheduled
Areas in nine States of the country under the purview of national framework of Panchayat.Salient feature of the Panchayats (Extension to the
Scheduled Areas) Act 1996 (PESA)• Legislation on Panchayats shall be in conformity with the customary law social and religious practices and traditional management practices of community resources• Habitation or a group of habitations or a hamlet or a group of hamlets comprising a community and managing its affairs in accordance with traditions and customs; and shall have a separate Gram Sabha.• Every Gram Sabha to safeguard and preserve the traditions
and customs of people their cultural identity community resources and the
customary mode of dispute resolution.• The Gram Sabhas have roles and responsibilities in approving all development works in the village identify beneficiaries issue certificates of utilization of funds• Gram Sabhas or Panchayats at appropriate level shall also
have– Powers to manage minor water bodies– Power of mandatory consultation in matters of land acquisition;– Powers to control institutions and functionaries in all social sectors and local plans.– Resettlement and rehabilitation and prospecting licenses/mining leases for minor minerals– Power to prevent alienation of land and restore alienated land– Regulate and restrict sale/consumption of liquor– Manage village markets control money lending to STs and– Ownership of minor forest produce.Incorrect
THEME- Local bodies
Similar QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS 2013.
STATEMENT 2 IS INCORRECT. PESA as the name says the
extension is with regard to Scheduled Areas (Fifth Schedule Areas) and not
Tribal areas (under Sixth Schedule).EXPLANATION-The provisions of Part IX of the constitution relating to
the Panchayats are not applicable tothe Fifth Schedule areas. However the Parliament may extend
these provisions to such areas subject to such exceptions and modifications as
it may specify.PESA as the name says the extension is with regard to
Scheduled Areas (Fifth Schedule Areas) and not Tribal areas (under Sixth
Schedule)MORE ON PESA 1996Introduction• The Provision of the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled
Areas) Act 1996 popularly known as PESA was enacted to bring the Scheduled
Areas in nine States of the country under the purview of national framework of
Panchayat. Salient feature of the Panchayats (Extension to the
Scheduled Areas) Act 1996 (PESA)• Legislation on Panchayats shall be in conformity with the
customary law social and religious practices and traditional management
practices of community resources• Habitation or a group of habitations or a hamlet or a
group of hamlets comprising a community and managing its affairs in accordance
with traditions and customs; and shall have a separate Gram Sabha.• Every Gram Sabha to safeguard and preserve the traditions
and customs of people their cultural identity community resources and the
customary mode of dispute resolution.• The Gram Sabhas have roles and responsibilities in
approving all development works in the village identify beneficiaries issue
certificates of utilization of funds• Gram Sabhas or Panchayats at appropriate level shall also
have– Powers to manage minor water bodies– Power of mandatory consultation in matters of land
acquisition;– Powers to control institutions and functionaries in all
social sectors and local plans.– Resettlement and rehabilitation and prospecting licenses/mining
leases for minor minerals– Power to prevent alienation of land and restore alienated
land– Regulate and restrict sale/consumption of liquor– Manage village markets control money lending to STs and– Ownership of minor forest produce. -
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
2 pointsWith reference to Protection against arrest and detention under Fundamental rights, which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
1. Safeguard in the case of ordinary law is available to all including an alien whereas in the case of preventive detention safeguard law is available only for citizens and not for aliens.
2. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 has reduced the period of detention without obtaining the opinion of an advisory board from three to two months which is in force now.
3. Apart from India there is no democratic country in the world which has made preventive detention an integral part of the constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
THEME-FR
SIMILAR QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.
STATEMENT 1 AND 2 ARE WRONG. Protection against Arrest and Detention: Safeguard in the case of ordinary law is not
available to an alien whereas in the case of preventive detention law safeguard
is available to both citizens as well as aliens.§ Under Preventive detention laws the detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court.The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 has reduced the period of detention without obtaining the opinion of an advisory board from three to two months. However, this provision has not yet been brought into force hence the original period of three months still continues.
It is unfortunate to know that no democratic country in the world has made preventive detention as an integral part of the Constitution as has been done in India. It is unknown in USA. STATEMENT 3 IS CORRECT.
Incorrect
THEME-FRSIMILAR QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.STATEMENT 1 AND 2 ARE WRONG.Protection against Arrest and Detention:§ Safeguard in the case of ordinary law is not
available to an alien whereas in the case of preventive detention law safeguard
is available to both citizens as well as aliens.§ Under Preventive detention laws the detention of a
person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient
cause for extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high
court.§ The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 has reduced the
period of detention without obtaining the opinion of an advisory board from
three to two months. However this provision has not yet been brought into force
hence the original period of three months still continues.§ It is unfortunate to know that no democratic
country in the world has made preventive detention as an integral part of the
Constitution as has been done in India. It is unknown in USA. STATEMENT 3 IS
CORRECT. -
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
2 pointsWith reference to the Consultative committees,
consider the following statements:1. It consists of members of both the houses of Parliament.
2. They are constituted by the Ministry of Parliamentary
Affairs.3. A minister is not eligible to be a member of a Consultative
Committee.Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
THEME-PARLIAMENTARY COMMITTEESSIMILAR QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.EXPLANATION-Consultative committees are attached to various
ministries/departments of the central government. They consist of members of
both the Houses of Parliament. Hence statement 1 is correct.• These committees are constituted by the Ministry of
Parliamentary Affairs. The guidelines regarding the composition functions and
procedures of these committees are formulated by this Ministry. Hence statement
2 is correct.• The Minister / Minister of State in charge of the Ministry
concerned acts as the chairman of the consultative committee of that
ministry.It is Departmental Standing Committee in which a minister is not
eligible to be nominated as a member. Hence statement 3 is not correct.Incorrect
THEME-PARLIAMENTARY COMMITTEES
SIMILAR QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.
EXPLANATION-Consultative committees are attached to various
ministries/departments of the central government. They consist of members of both the Houses of Parliament. Hence statement 1 is correct.• These committees are constituted by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. The guidelines regarding the composition functions and procedures of these committees are formulated by this Ministry. Hence statement
2 is correct.• The Minister / Minister of State in charge of the Ministry concerned acts as the chairman of the consultative committee of that ministry. It is Departmental Standing Committee in which a minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
-
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
2 pointsConsider the following Statements:
1. The history of the Directive Principles in the Indian polity exists in the form of the Instructions issued to the Governor General of India under the Government of India Act, 1935.
2. Directive principles are Constitutionally proclaimed to be Fundamental to the governance of the country.
3. The Constitution has a directive to the State to promote the professional management of the Cooperative societies in Part IV.
4. Article 38 imposes a duty on the state to give due consideration to the Directive Principles in legislation.
Which of the above are correct?
Correct
THEME-DPSP
SIMILAR QUESTIONS HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.
STATEMENT 4 IS INCORRECT. Article 37 imposes a duty on the state to give due consideration to the Directive Principles in legislation.
(AND NOT ART 38).EXPLANATION-Part IV of Indian Constitution deals with Directive Principles of our State Policy (DPSP). The provisions contained in this Part cannot be enforced by any court but these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from the Irish Constitution. While most of the Fundamental Rights are negative obligations on the state DPSPs are positive obligations on the state though not enforceable in a court of law. Article 36: DefinitionIn this Part unless the context otherwise requires “the
State” has the same meaning as in Part III. Article 37: Application of the principles contained in this PartThe provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforced by any court but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.Incorrect
THEME-DPSPSIMILAR QUESTINS HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.STATEMENT 4 IS INCORRECT. Article 37 imposes a duty on the
state to give due consideration to the Directive Principles in legislation.
(AND NOT ART 38).EXPLANATION-Part IV of Indian Constitution deals with Directive
Principles of our State Policy (DPSP). The provisions contained in this Part
cannot be enforced by any court but these principles are fundamental in the
governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these
principles in making laws. The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was
borrowed from the Irish Constitution. While most of the Fundamental Rights are
negative obligations on the state DPSPs are positive obligations on the state
though not enforceable in a court of law. Article 36: DefinitionIn this Part unless the context otherwise requires “the
State” has the same meaning as in Part III. Article 37: Application of the principles contained in this
PartThe provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforced
by any court but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental
in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply
these principles in making laws. -
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to
Tribes Advisory Council:1. They are established in each State having Scheduled Area.
2. Governor is the Chairman of the council.
3. Its recommendations are binding on the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
THEME-5TH SCHEDULE
SIMILAR QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.
EXPLANATION-The Constitution under the Fifth schedule provides that
Tribes Advisory Councils shall be established in each State having Scheduled
Areas therein and if the President so directs also in any State having
Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas therein. Tribes Advisory Councils
(TAC) have been constituted in Scheduled Area States of Andhra Pradesh
Chhattisgarh Gujarat Jharkhand Himachal Pradesh Madhya Pradesh Maharashtra Odisha Rajasthan and Telangana. Though Tamil Nadu Uttarakhand and West Bengal do not have any scheduled area they have also constituted TAC. Hence statement 1 is correct.Chief Minister is the Chairman of the Council. Tribes Advisory Council consisting of not more than twenty members of whom as nearly as may be three-fourths shall be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the State. The Tribes Advisory Council consists of 20 members including the Chairman (Chief Minister). Hence statement 2 is not correct.The Council is advisory in nature by convention but its
recommendation are by and large accepted by the Government or dropped by the Council itself after the deliberation. Apart from advising onmatter referred to it it oversees implementation of the tribal sub-plan in the State. Hence statement 3 is not correct.Incorrect
THEME-5TH SCHEDULE
SIMILAR QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.
EXPLANATION-The Constitution under the Fifth schedule provides that
Tribes Advisory Councils shall be established in each State having Scheduled
Areas therein and if the President so directs also in any State having
Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas therein. Tribes Advisory Councils
(TAC) have been constituted in Scheduled Area States of Andhra Pradesh
Chhattisgarh Gujarat Jharkhand Himachal Pradesh Madhya Pradesh Maharashtra Odisha Rajasthan and Telangana. Though Tamil Nadu Uttarakhand and West Bengal do not have any scheduled area they have also constituted TAC. Hence statement 1 is correct.Chief Minister is the Chairman of the Council. Tribes
Advisory Council consisting of not more than twenty members of whom as nearly as may be three-fourths shall be the representatives of the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of the State. The Tribes Advisory Council consists of 20 members including the Chairman (Chief Minister). Hence statement 2 is not correct.The Council is advisory in nature by convention but its
recommendation are by and large accepted by the Government or dropped by the Council itself after the deliberation. Apart from advising on the matter referred to it oversees the implementation of the tribal sub-plan in the State. Hence statement 3 is not correct. -
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
2 pointsThe Leader of Opposition is included in the selection panel
of1. Director of Central Bureau of Investigation
2. Members of Central Vigilance Commission.
3. Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission
4. Lokpal
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
THEME- LEADER OF OPPOSITION ALL STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT.EXPLANATION-The amended Delhi Special Police Establishment Act empowers
a committee to appoint the Director of CBI. The committee consists the
following people:· Prime Minister – chairperson· Leader of Opposition – member· Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge
recommended by the Chief Justice – member.The Chairperson and members of the
NHRC are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a
committee consisting of:· The Prime Minister (Chairperson)· The Home Minister· The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (Lower
House)· The Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha
(Upper House)· The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (Lower House)· The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Upper
House)CVC members are appointed by President on the recommendation
by a selection panel consisting of PM Leader of Opposition in LS and Minister
of Home Affairs.Appointment of Lokpal depends on the law which provides for
a five-member panel to select the anticorruption ombudsman comprising the Prime
Minister the Lok Sabha Speaker the Leader of the Opposition the Chief Justice
of India and an eminent jurist.Incorrect
THEME- LEADER OF OPPOSITION
ALL STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT.
EXPLANATION-The amended Delhi Special Police Establishment Act empowers
a committee to appoint the Director of CBI. The committee consists the
following people:· Prime Minister – chairperson· Leader of Opposition – member· Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge
recommended by the Chief Justice – member.The Chairperson and members of the
NHRC are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a
committee consisting of:· The Prime Minister (Chairperson)· The Home Minister· The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (Lower
House)· The Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha
(Upper House)· The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (Lower House)· The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Upper House)CVC members are appointed by President on the recommendation by a selection panel consisting of PM Leader of Opposition in LS and Minister of Home Affairs.Appointment of Lokpal depends on the law which provides for a five-member panel to select the anticorruption ombudsman comprising the Prime Minister the Lok Sabha Speaker the Leader of the Opposition the Chief Justice of India and an eminent jurist.
-
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
2 pointsWhich among the following qualifications for a person
to be chosen a member of the Parliament is laid down by the Constitution of
India?1. He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of
the Rajya Sabha and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the Lok Sabha.2. He must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary
constituency. This is same in the case of both, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok
Sabha.3. He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the election commission for this purpose, according to the form prescribed in the Fourth Schedule.
Choose the appropriate code:
Correct
THEME-PARLIAMENTSTATEMENT 2 IS INCORRECT. THEY HAVE BEEN MENTIONED IN
RPA1951.STATEMENT 3 IS INCORRECT.He must make and subscribe to an
oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the election commission for
this purpose according to the form prescribed in the Third Schedule (not
fourth)EXPLANATION-· He must be not less than 30 years of age in the
case of the Rajya Sabha and not less than25 years of age in the case of the Lok Sabha. This
qualification is laid down by the Constitution.· He must be registered as an elector for a
parliamentary constituency. This is same in thecase of both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. (This
statement is incorrect because the Constitution does not lay down this
qualification it is provided in the Representationof People Act (1951))· He must make and subscribe to an oath or
affirmation before the person authorised bythe election commission for this purpose according to the
form prescribed in the ThirdSchedule (not fourth)Incorrect
THEME-PARLIAMENTSTATEMENT 2 IS INCORRECT. THEY HAVE BEEN MENTIONED IN
RPA1951.STATEMENT 3 IS INCORRECT.He must make and subscribe to an
oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the election commission for
this purpose according to the form prescribed in the Third Schedule (not
fourth)EXPLANATION-· He must be not less than 30 years of age in the
case of the Rajya Sabha and not less than25 years of age in the case of the Lok Sabha. This
qualification is laid down by the Constitution.· He must be registered as an elector for a
parliamentary constituency. This is same in thecase of both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. (This
statement is incorrect because the Constitution does not lay down this
qualification it is provided in the Representationof People Act (1951))· He must make and subscribe to an oath or
affirmation before the person authorised bythe election commission for this purpose according to the
form prescribed in the ThirdSchedule (not fourth) -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
1. The principle of natural justice ensures that no person
shall be punished without a fair hearing.2. The expression ‘natural justice’ is not mentioned in the
Constitution of India.3. Article 32 of the Indian Constitution provides constitutional remedies against the violation of the principle of natural justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
THEME-FR/ NATURAL JUSTICEEXPLANATION-o Natural justice is the concept of common law which implies
fairness reasonableness equality and equity. The principle of Audi Alteram
Partemis the basic concept of the principle of natural justice. This doctrine
states the no one shall be condemned unheard. This ensures a fair hearing and
fair justice to both the parties. Under this doctrine both the parties have the right to
speak. No decision can be declared without hearing both the parties. The aim of
this principle is to give an opportunity to both the parties to defend
themselves. Hence statement 1 is correct. o In the Constitution of India nowhere the expression
Natural Justice is used. According to the Supreme court they are not
incorporated but inherent principles of the Constitution. Hence statement 2 is
correct. o In India the principles of natural justice are reflected
in many constitutional provisions like Article 14 15 17 19 21 etc. Article 22
of the Indian Constitution guarantees natural justice and provides fair hearing
to the arrested persons. On violation of this Article a aggrieved person can seek
constitutional remedies under Article 32 and 226 from Supreme Court and High Court
respectively. Hence statement 3 is correct.Incorrect
THEME-FR/ NATURAL JUSTICEEXPLANATION-o Natural justice is the concept of common law which implies
fairness reasonableness equality and equity. The principle of Audi Alteram
Partemis the basic concept of the principle of natural justice. This doctrine
states the no one shall be condemned unheard. This ensures a fair hearing and
fair justice to both the parties. Under this doctrine both the parties have the right to
speak. No decision can be declared without hearing both the parties. The aim of
this principle is to give an opportunity to both the parties to defend
themselves. Hence statement 1 is correct. o In the Constitution of India nowhere the expression
Natural Justice is used. According to the Supreme court they are not
incorporated but inherent principles of the Constitution. Hence statement 2 is
correct. o In India the principles of natural justice are reflected
in many constitutional provisions like Article 14 15 17 19 21 etc. Article 22
of the Indian Constitution guarantees natural justice and provides fair hearing
to the arrested persons. On violation of this Article a aggrieved person can seek
constitutional remedies under Article 32 and 226 from Supreme Court and High Court
respectively. Hence statement 3 is correct. -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements:
1. The subject of ‘Local Government’ is mentioned in the State List under the Eleventh and Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution.
2.One of the DPSP is that State has to take steps to organize Panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
Choose the correct one/s from the code given below:
Correct
THEME- CONCURRENT LISTSTATEMENT 1 IS INCORRECT.The subject of ‘Local Government’
is mentioned in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
(not in Eleventh and Twelfth Schedule).EXPLANATION- The subject of ‘Local Government’ is mentioned
in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. Article 40 of the Constitution under Directive Principles
(DPSP) says that the state shalltake steps to organize Panchayats and endow them with such
powers and authority as maybe necessary to enable them to function as units of self
government. Hence statement 2 iscorrect.Incorrect
THEME- CONCURRENT LISTSTATEMENT 1 IS INCORRECT.The subject of ‘Local Government’
is mentioned in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
(not in Eleventh and Twelfth Schedule).EXPLANATION- The subject of ‘Local Government’ is mentioned
in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. Article 40 of the Constitution under Directive Principles
(DPSP) says that the state shalltake steps to organize Panchayats and endow them with such
powers and authority as maybe necessary to enable them to function as units of self
government. Hence statement 2 iscorrect. -
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
2 pointsWith reference to reasonable restrictions in the context
Freedom of Speech and Expression guaranteed under Indian constitution, consider the following statements:1. Reasonable Restrictions were made justiciable through First
Amendment Act, 1951.2. The Parliament has been authorised to make laws regarding reasonable restrictions.
3. Reasonable restrictions cover both public interest and
private interest.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
THEME-FRALL STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT.EXPLANATION- First Amendment Act 1951 added three more
grounds of restriction on Freedom of Speech and Expression – public order
friendly relations with foreign states incitement to an offence. Also it made
restrictions reasonable and thus justiciable in nature.o The Parliament has been authorised by law to make laws
regarding reasonable restrictions under Freedom of Speech and Expression.o Freedom of speech and expression is not absolute. These
restrictions were:§ Security of the state§ Friendly relations with foreign states§ Public Order§ Decency or morality§ Contempt of Court§ Incitement to offence§ Sovereignty and integrity of India.§ Defamationo Defamation can be of two types- criminal defamation
(public and private interest) and civil defamation (private interest).Incorrect
THEME-FRALL STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT.EXPLANATION- First Amendment Act 1951 added three more
grounds of restriction on Freedom of Speech and Expression – public order
friendly relations with foreign states incitement to an offence. Also it made
restrictions reasonable and thus justiciable in nature.o The Parliament has been authorised by law to make laws
regarding reasonable restrictions under Freedom of Speech and Expression.o Freedom of speech and expression is not absolute. These
restrictions were:§ Security of the state§ Friendly relations with foreign states§ Public Order§ Decency or morality§ Contempt of Court§ Incitement to offence§ Sovereignty and integrity of India.§ Defamationo Defamation can be of two types- criminal defamation
(public and private interest) and civil defamation (private interest). -
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
2 pointsWith respect to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, consider the following statements:
1. The members of the Commission are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
2. The Chairperson of the Commission is accorded the rank of a Union Cabinet Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
THEME-CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES
SIMILAR QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.
EXPLANATION-
· NCST was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act 2003. By this amendment the erstwhile National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was replaced by two separate Commissions namely- (i) the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and (ii) the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) w.e.f. February 19 2004.
· The term of office of Chairperson Vice-Chairperson and each member is three years from the date of assumption of charge. They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Hence statement 1 is correct.
· The Chairperson has been given the rank of a Union Cabinet Minister and the Vice-Chairperson that of a Minister of State and other Members have the ranks of a Secretary to the Government of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
· NCST is empowered to investigate and monitor matters relating to safeguards provided for STs under the Constitution or under other laws or under Govt. order.
The Commission is also authorized to inquire into specific complaints relating to rights and safeguards of STs and to participate and advise in the Planning Process relating to socio-economic development of STs and to evaluate the progress of their development under the Union and States.
Incorrect
THEME-CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES
SIMILAR QUESTION HAS BEEN ASKED IN PRELIMS.
EXPLANATION-
· NCST was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act 2003. By this amendment the erstwhile National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was replaced by two separate Commissions namely- (i) the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and (ii) the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) w.e.f. February 19 2004.
· The term of office of Chairperson Vice-Chairperson and each member is three years from the date of assumption of charge. They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Hence statement 1 is correct.
· The Chairperson has been given the rank of a Union Cabinet Minister and the Vice-Chairperson that of a Minister of State and other Members have the ranks of a Secretary to the Government of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
· NCST is empowered to investigate and monitor matters relating to safeguards provided for STs under the Constitution or under other laws or under Govt. order.
The Commission is also authorized to inquire into specific complaints relating to rights and safeguards of STs and to participate and advise in the Planning Process relating to socio-economic development of STs and to evaluate the progress of their development under the Union and States.
highest quality questions i find here .
Thanks Ravija
From where to get PDFs of this tests