At Civilsdaily, we have been able to decode many of the repeating themes and trends of the actual UPSC exam. These have become best practices that we incorporate while making questions for our Test Series and Open Tests.
Despite that, we cannot stress enough on the importance of attempting the actual UPSC exam paper in exam settings. There are 3 things you will gain out of it.
- Some questions get repeated directly from previous year papers. More often than not, they are not the easy ones and are almost impossible to solve if one has not attempted them before.
- Practice the Tikdam Technique that our test series would have helped you develop.
- There are many questions from offbeat topics that are impossible for any test series to predict. The themes of these topics become important.
We see a change in pattern from the 2017 Prelims exam onwards. Hence, the 2017 & 2018 papers become very important. At least 2014-2016 papers are a must end to end.
Here we present the 2015 Prelims Paper.
*Please note – Our Test Series has far more detailed explanations and remarks. These solutions were prepared on the same day the exam happened. Hence they are not detailed to appeal to a layman.
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 pointsThe ‘Fortaleza Declaration’, recently in the news, is related to the affairs of
Correct
Fortaleza declaration was part of 6th BRICS summit which resulted in the official inauguration of the New Development Bank.Tikdam: was in news
Fortaleza is in brazil so ASEAN and OECD is anyway ruled outIncorrect
Fortaleza declaration was part of 6th BRICS summit which resulted in the official inauguration of the New Development Bank.Tikdam: was in news
Fortaleza is in brazil so ASEAN and OECD is anyway ruled out -
Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 pointsIndira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was given to which one
of the following?Correct
The Indira Gandhi Prize or the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize or the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development is the prestigious award accorded annually by India to individuals or organizations in recognition of creative efforts toward promoting international peace, development and a new international economic order; ensuring that scientific discoveries are used for the larger good of humanity, and enlarging the scope of freedom.
The prize carries a cash award of 2.5 million Indian rupees and a citation. The recipients are chosen from a pool of national and international nominees.
Angel Merkel (2013) and ISRO (2014) were the recipients of the award.Tikdam:Incorrect
The Indira Gandhi Prize or the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize or the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development is the prestigious award accorded annually by India to individuals or organizations in recognition of creative efforts toward promoting international peace, development and a new international economic order; ensuring that scientific discoveries are used for the larger good of humanity, and enlarging the scope of freedom.
The prize carries a cash award of 2.5 million Indian rupees and a citation. The recipients are chosen from a pool of national and international nominees.
Angel Merkel (2013) and ISRO (2014) were the recipients of the award.Tikdam: -
Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 pointsIn India, the steel production industry requires the import of
Correct
Saltpetre (Potassium nitrate) is not used in the production of steel. It is instead used in fertilizers, tree stump removal, rocket propellants and fireworks. It is one of the major constituents of gunpowder (blackpowder) and has been used since the Middle Ages as a food preservative.
India definitely imports coking coal. So, the answer has to be C.
It requires 0.8 tonnes coking coal to produce one tonne of steel. The government had recently imposed a 2.5 per cent duty on coking coal import.Tikdam: India is abundant in coal but it’s common knowledge that India imports coking coal.Incorrect
Saltpetre (Potassium nitrate) is not used in the production of steel. It is instead used in fertilizers, tree stump removal, rocket propellants and fireworks. It is one of the major constituents of gunpowder (blackpowder) and has been used since the Middle Ages as a food preservative.
India definitely imports coking coal. So, the answer has to be C.
It requires 0.8 tonnes coking coal to produce one tonne of steel. The government had recently imposed a 2.5 per cent duty on coking coal import.Tikdam: India is abundant in coal but it’s common knowledge that India imports coking coal. -
Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following was given classical language status recently?
Correct
Odia (Odiya) language on 20 February 2014 became the sixth language of the country to get classical language’ status after the Union Cabinet approved it. Odia is billed as the first language from the Indo-Aryan linguistic group and the case for making it a classical language was also premised on the fact that it has no resemblance to Hindi, Sanskrit, Bengali and Telugu. With this, Odia came into the same league as Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada and Malayalam, which have already been conferred the classical language status.Tikdam:
Incorrect
Odia (Odiya) language on 20 February 2014 became the sixth language of the country to get classical language’ status after the Union Cabinet approved it. Odia is billed as the first language from the Indo-Aryan linguistic group and the case for making it a classical language was also premised on the fact that it has no resemblance to Hindi, Sanskrit, Bengali and Telugu. With this, Odia came into the same league as Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada and Malayalam, which have already been conferred the classical language status.Tikdam:
-
Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following countries :
(1) China
(2) France
(3) India
(4) Israel
(5) Pakistan
Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the NonProliferaion
of Nuclear weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?Correct
The treaty recognizes five states as nuclear-weapon states: the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France, and China (also the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council).
Four other states are known or believed to possess nuclear weapons: India, Pakistan and North Korea have openly tested and declared that they possess nuclear weapons, while Israel has had a policy of opacity regarding its nuclear weapons program.
So, you can conclude that Israel can never be a part of the answer which directly points out to option A as the answer.Tikdam:Incorrect
The treaty recognizes five states as nuclear-weapon states: the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France, and China (also the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council).
Four other states are known or believed to possess nuclear weapons: India, Pakistan and North Korea have openly tested and declared that they possess nuclear weapons, while Israel has had a policy of opacity regarding its nuclear weapons program.
So, you can conclude that Israel can never be a part of the answer which directly points out to option A as the answer.Tikdam: -
Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that
supports a rich biodiversity?Correct
It is the only floating park in the world, located in Manipur, North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake.
The national park is characterized by many floating decomposed plant materials locally called phumdis.
The park is a swamp established by Mann Sharma with floating mass of vegetation (created by accrual of organic garbage and biomass with soil particles that has been thickened into a solid form called phumdis, at the south–eastern side of the Loktak Lake, which has been declared a Ramsar site. Two third’s to three fourth’s of the total park area is formed by phumdis.Tikdam: Floating vegetation, Floating national Park, Loktak, Manipur
Option b seems like that in manipurIncorrect
It is the only floating park in the world, located in Manipur, North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake.
The national park is characterized by many floating decomposed plant materials locally called phumdis.
The park is a swamp established by Mann Sharma with floating mass of vegetation (created by accrual of organic garbage and biomass with soil particles that has been thickened into a solid form called phumdis, at the south–eastern side of the Loktak Lake, which has been declared a Ramsar site. Two third’s to three fourth’s of the total park area is formed by phumdis.Tikdam: Floating vegetation, Floating national Park, Loktak, Manipur
Option b seems like that in manipur -
Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 pointsWhat can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture?
(1) Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms is soil can occur.
(2) Increase in the acidity of soil can take palce.
(3) Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur.Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Statement 1 is absurd. Increasing the amount of nitrogen based fertilizer does not lead to more micro-organisms in the field. If it did, just one dose of fertilizer would make a farm nitrogen rich for years together.
Statement 2: Excessive use of nitrogen fertilizers resulting in soil acidity is a well-known fact.
Statement 3: Nitorgen fertilizers break down into nitrates and travel easily through the soil. Because it is water-soluble and can remain in groundwater for decades, the addition of more nitrogen over the years has an accumulative effect.Tikdam: Statement 1 is absurd, it it were true, there would be no need of fertilizer any more. Soil bacterai will fix the nitrigen perpetualyLeaching of urea- formation of nitric acid, even 3rd statement points that out
Incorrect
Statement 1 is absurd. Increasing the amount of nitrogen based fertilizer does not lead to more micro-organisms in the field. If it did, just one dose of fertilizer would make a farm nitrogen rich for years together.
Statement 2: Excessive use of nitrogen fertilizers resulting in soil acidity is a well-known fact.
Statement 3: Nitorgen fertilizers break down into nitrates and travel easily through the soil. Because it is water-soluble and can remain in groundwater for decades, the addition of more nitrogen over the years has an accumulative effect.Tikdam: Statement 1 is absurd, it it were true, there would be no need of fertilizer any more. Soil bacterai will fix the nitrigen perpetualyLeaching of urea- formation of nitric acid, even 3rd statement points that out
-
Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between
governments.
(2) IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural
environments.
(3) CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take
the place of national laws.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
IUCN is a voluntary organization, not an agency of United Nations. Even if you knew this much, you could eliminate all other options to select B. Some facts about IUCN:
• Founded in 1948 as the world’s first global environmental organisation
• Today the largest professional global conservation network
• A leading authority on the environment and sustainable development
• More than 1,200 member organizations including 200 government and 900 non-government organizations
• A neutral forum for governments, NGOs, scientists, business and local communities to find practical solutions to conservation and development challenges
• Thousands of field projects and activities around the world
CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). States (countries) adhere voluntarily to the agreement.
States that have agreed to be bound by the Convention (‘joined’ CITES) are known as Parties.
Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws. Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level.Tikdam: IUCN is volunatry organizationIncorrect
IUCN is a voluntary organization, not an agency of United Nations. Even if you knew this much, you could eliminate all other options to select B. Some facts about IUCN:
• Founded in 1948 as the world’s first global environmental organisation
• Today the largest professional global conservation network
• A leading authority on the environment and sustainable development
• More than 1,200 member organizations including 200 government and 900 non-government organizations
• A neutral forum for governments, NGOs, scientists, business and local communities to find practical solutions to conservation and development challenges
• Thousands of field projects and activities around the world
CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). States (countries) adhere voluntarily to the agreement.
States that have agreed to be bound by the Convention (‘joined’ CITES) are known as Parties.
Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws. Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level.Tikdam: IUCN is volunatry organization -
Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
(1) Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction.
(2) Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete.
(3) Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic
elements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
Fly ash from coal-fired thermal power stations is an excellent potential raw material for the manufacture of construction material like blended cement, fly ash bricks, mosaic tiles and hollow blocks. It also has other, high volume applications and can be used for paving roads, building embankments, and mine fills.
Fly ash contains trace concentrations of heavy metals and other substances that are known to be detrimental to health in sufficient quantities. Potentially toxic trace elements in coal include arsenic, beryllium, cadmium, barium, chromium, copper, lead, mercury, molybdenum, nickel, radium, selenium, thorium, uranium, vanadium, and zinc.\Tikdam: 3rd staement – two red flags, only and not any toxic. But we all knwo fly ash is not good for the health plus everything contains impuritiesIncorrect
Fly ash from coal-fired thermal power stations is an excellent potential raw material for the manufacture of construction material like blended cement, fly ash bricks, mosaic tiles and hollow blocks. It also has other, high volume applications and can be used for paving roads, building embankments, and mine fills.
Fly ash contains trace concentrations of heavy metals and other substances that are known to be detrimental to health in sufficient quantities. Potentially toxic trace elements in coal include arsenic, beryllium, cadmium, barium, chromium, copper, lead, mercury, molybdenum, nickel, radium, selenium, thorium, uranium, vanadium, and zinc.\Tikdam: 3rd staement – two red flags, only and not any toxic. But we all knwo fly ash is not good for the health plus everything contains impurities -
Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘dugong’ a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
(1) It is a herbivorous marine animal.
(2) It is found along the entire coast of India.
(3) It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
The dugong is the only living representative of the once-diverse family Dugongidae; its closest modern relative, Steller’s sea cow (Hydrodamalis gigas), was hunted to extinction in the 18th century. The dugong is the only strictly marine herbivorous mammal, as all species of manatee use fresh water to some degree.
In India, it is found off the Gujarat Coast (Gulf of Kutch), Tamil Nadu coast (Gulf of Mannar), Palk Bay and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.Tikdam: if it;s along the entire coast, it would be so ubiquitous as not to require protectionIncorrect
The dugong is the only living representative of the once-diverse family Dugongidae; its closest modern relative, Steller’s sea cow (Hydrodamalis gigas), was hunted to extinction in the 18th century. The dugong is the only strictly marine herbivorous mammal, as all species of manatee use fresh water to some degree.
In India, it is found off the Gujarat Coast (Gulf of Kutch), Tamil Nadu coast (Gulf of Mannar), Palk Bay and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.Tikdam: if it;s along the entire coast, it would be so ubiquitous as not to require protection -
Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
Correct
River Dolphin is the National Aquatic Animal of India. This mammal is also said to represent the purity of the holy Ganga as it can only survive in pure and fresh water.
They are locally known as susu, because of the noise it makes while breathing. This species inhabits parts of the Ganges, Meghna and Brahmaputra rivers in India, Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh, and the Karnaphuli River in Bangladesh.
River dolphin is a critically endangered species in India and therefore, has been included in the Schedule I for the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The main reasons for decline in population of the species are poaching and habitat degradation due to declining flow, heavy siltation, construction of barrages causing physical barrier for this migratory species.Tikdam: easyIncorrect
River Dolphin is the National Aquatic Animal of India. This mammal is also said to represent the purity of the holy Ganga as it can only survive in pure and fresh water.
They are locally known as susu, because of the noise it makes while breathing. This species inhabits parts of the Ganges, Meghna and Brahmaputra rivers in India, Nepal, Bhutan and Bangladesh, and the Karnaphuli River in Bangladesh.
River dolphin is a critically endangered species in India and therefore, has been included in the Schedule I for the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The main reasons for decline in population of the species are poaching and habitat degradation due to declining flow, heavy siltation, construction of barrages causing physical barrier for this migratory species.Tikdam: easy -
Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of
ozone-depleting substances?Correct
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (a protocol to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer) is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.
Bretton Woods conference relates to IMF and World Bank.
Kyoto Protocol is about cutting emissions of greenhouse gases.
Nagoya protocol is about benefit sharing from the gains by genetic resources.Tikdam:Incorrect
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (a protocol to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer) is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.
Bretton Woods conference relates to IMF and World Bank.
Kyoto Protocol is about cutting emissions of greenhouse gases.
Nagoya protocol is about benefit sharing from the gains by genetic resources.Tikdam: -
Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 pointsWhat is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?
Correct
The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD), also known as Rio 2012, Rio 20, or Earth Summit 2012 was the third international conference on sustainable development aimed at reconciling the economic and environmental goals of the global community. Hosted by Brazil in Rio de Janeiro from 13 to 22 June 2012, Rio 20 was a 20-year follow-up to the 1992 Earth Summit / United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED).Tikdam: Rio was Eatrth summit 1992, UNCED,
b is abusrd – not related to envoronment, IPCC is a seprate body which prepares climate report, CBD was outcome of earth summitIncorrect
The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (UNCSD), also known as Rio 2012, Rio 20, or Earth Summit 2012 was the third international conference on sustainable development aimed at reconciling the economic and environmental goals of the global community. Hosted by Brazil in Rio de Janeiro from 13 to 22 June 2012, Rio 20 was a 20-year follow-up to the 1992 Earth Summit / United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED).Tikdam: Rio was Eatrth summit 1992, UNCED,
b is abusrd – not related to envoronment, IPCC is a seprate body which prepares climate report, CBD was outcome of earth summit -
Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 pointsThe term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of
Correct
In astronomy and astrobiology, the circumstellar habitable zone (CHZ), or simply the habitable zone (Goldilocks Zone), is the region around a star within which planetary-mass objects with sufficient atmospheric pressure can support liquid water at their surfaces.
Researchers are finding that life can thrive in some unexpected places.Tikdam: Goldilock story/principle – just the right amount, obviously A where just the right amount of everything possible for habitation is presentIncorrect
In astronomy and astrobiology, the circumstellar habitable zone (CHZ), or simply the habitable zone (Goldilocks Zone), is the region around a star within which planetary-mass objects with sufficient atmospheric pressure can support liquid water at their surfaces.
Researchers are finding that life can thrive in some unexpected places.Tikdam: Goldilock story/principle – just the right amount, obviously A where just the right amount of everything possible for habitation is present -
Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
(1) It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to
counter climate change.
(2) It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a fund within the framework of the UNFCCC founded as a mechanism to redistribute money from the developed to the developing world, in order to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
The Green Climate Fund was designated as an operating entity of the financial mechanism of the UNFCCC, in accordance with Article 11 of the Convention. Arrangements will be concluded between the Conference of the Parties (COP) and the Fund to ensure that it is accountable to, and functions under the guidance of, the COP.
The Fund is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and that receives the guidance of the COP.Tikdam: it is under kyoto protocol so UNFCC. And what would ADB be doing in this. It’s a global fundIncorrect
The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a fund within the framework of the UNFCCC founded as a mechanism to redistribute money from the developed to the developing world, in order to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
The Green Climate Fund was designated as an operating entity of the financial mechanism of the UNFCCC, in accordance with Article 11 of the Convention. Arrangements will be concluded between the Conference of the Parties (COP) and the Fund to ensure that it is accountable to, and functions under the guidance of, the COP.
The Fund is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and that receives the guidance of the COP.Tikdam: it is under kyoto protocol so UNFCC. And what would ADB be doing in this. It’s a global fund -
Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical,
temperate and arctic?Correct
Both Khangchendzonga and Nandadevi National park do not have tropical vegetation.
Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India.
The area is also known for extensive Dipterocarp forests, comprising the northwestern parts of the ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rain forests.
The habitat changes with increasing altitude from tropical moist forests to Montane forests, temperate forests and at the higher elevations, to Alpine meadows and perennial snow. The park has extensive bamboo forests and secondary forests in addition to the primary forests.Tikdam:Incorrect
Both Khangchendzonga and Nandadevi National park do not have tropical vegetation.
Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India.
The area is also known for extensive Dipterocarp forests, comprising the northwestern parts of the ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rain forests.
The habitat changes with increasing altitude from tropical moist forests to Montane forests, temperate forests and at the higher elevations, to Alpine meadows and perennial snow. The park has extensive bamboo forests and secondary forests in addition to the primary forests.Tikdam: -
Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 pointsBioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
Correct
The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank. It seeks to promote reduced greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD ), and from sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.Tikdam: It’s a global inititive so ADB ruled out, IMF is not invloved in such activities anyway. So choose b/ w the remaining two options
Incorrect
The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank. It seeks to promote reduced greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD ), and from sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.Tikdam: It’s a global inititive so ADB ruled out, IMF is not invloved in such activities anyway. So choose b/ w the remaining two options
-
Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 pointsThe Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the
Correct
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body constituted in the Ministry of Environment and Forests under ‘Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989’, under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
It is the apex body to accord notified under Rules 1989, for approval of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recom¬binants in research and industrial production from the environ¬mental angle. The GEAC is also responsible for ap¬proval of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment, including experimen¬tal field trials (Biosafety Research Level trial-I and II known as BRL-I and BRL-II).Tikdam: genetic engineering – GM crops environmental implications – EPA 1986Incorrect
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body constituted in the Ministry of Environment and Forests under ‘Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989’, under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
It is the apex body to accord notified under Rules 1989, for approval of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recom¬binants in research and industrial production from the environ¬mental angle. The GEAC is also responsible for ap¬proval of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered organisms and products into the environment, including experimen¬tal field trials (Biosafety Research Level trial-I and II known as BRL-I and BRL-II).Tikdam: genetic engineering – GM crops environmental implications – EPA 1986 -
Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 pointsIn a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living trees into robust bridges
across the streams. As the time passes, these bridges become stronger. These unique ‘living
root bridges’ are found inCorrect
Meghalaya’s double-decker and single-decker root bridges are unique in the world and are a sight to behold. The bridges are tangles of massive thick roots, which have been intermingled to form a bridge that can hold several people at a time. Khasi people have been trained to grow these bridges across the raised banks of streams to form a solid bridge, made from roots. The living bridges are made from the roots of the Ficus elastic tree, which produces a series of secondary roots that are perched atop huge boulders along the streams or the riverbanks to form bridges.
The root bridges, some of which are over a hundred feet long, take ten to fifteen years to become fully functional, but they’re extraordinarily strong – strong enough that some of them can support the weight of fifty or more people at a time. The bridges are alive and still growing and gain strength over time.Tikdam: living root bridges of meghalaya are very famousIncorrect
Meghalaya’s double-decker and single-decker root bridges are unique in the world and are a sight to behold. The bridges are tangles of massive thick roots, which have been intermingled to form a bridge that can hold several people at a time. Khasi people have been trained to grow these bridges across the raised banks of streams to form a solid bridge, made from roots. The living bridges are made from the roots of the Ficus elastic tree, which produces a series of secondary roots that are perched atop huge boulders along the streams or the riverbanks to form bridges.
The root bridges, some of which are over a hundred feet long, take ten to fifteen years to become fully functional, but they’re extraordinarily strong – strong enough that some of them can support the weight of fifty or more people at a time. The bridges are alive and still growing and gain strength over time.Tikdam: living root bridges of meghalaya are very famous -
Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
(1) It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples.
(2) It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in
scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for
sustainable forest management.
(3) It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reduing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest
Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
Option B was framed to deviate you from the right answer.
The facility has been formed under REDD . Go to the link to read the four objectives of FCPF. This is implemented at country level, not al universities or individual levels.Tikdam:Incorrect
Option B was framed to deviate you from the right answer.
The facility has been formed under REDD . Go to the link to read the four objectives of FCPF. This is implemented at country level, not al universities or individual levels.Tikdam: -
Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 pointsWith reference to an organization known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
(1) It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
(2) The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization.
(3) It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
BirdLife international is a global partnership of conservation organisations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity, working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources. It is the World’s largest partnership of conservation organisations, with over 120 partner organizations 120 partner organizations. Together the BirdLife Partnership forms the leading authority on the status of birds, their habitats and the issues and problems affecting bird life.
BirdLife’s Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) Programme aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for the conservation of the world’s birds and other wildlife.Tikdam: hotspot concept was given by Norman myers plus it’s mainly related to endemic vasuclar plant speciesIncorrect
BirdLife international is a global partnership of conservation organisations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity, working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources. It is the World’s largest partnership of conservation organisations, with over 120 partner organizations 120 partner organizations. Together the BirdLife Partnership forms the leading authority on the status of birds, their habitats and the issues and problems affecting bird life.
BirdLife’s Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) Programme aims to identify, monitor and protect a global network of IBAs for the conservation of the world’s birds and other wildlife.Tikdam: hotspot concept was given by Norman myers plus it’s mainly related to endemic vasuclar plant species -
Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’?
Correct
An ecosystem is a community of living organisms in conjunction with the non-living components of their environment, interacting as a system. These biotic and abiotic components are regarded as linked together through nutrient cycles and energy flows.Tikdam: organism + environment + their interaction
Incorrect
An ecosystem is a community of living organisms in conjunction with the non-living components of their environment, interacting as a system. These biotic and abiotic components are regarded as linked together through nutrient cycles and energy flows.Tikdam: organism + environment + their interaction
-
Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 pointsPradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana’ has been launched for
Correct
Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, Banking/ SavingsTikdam: Easy. for opening bank accounts etc
Incorrect
Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, Banking/ SavingsTikdam: Easy. for opening bank accounts etc
-
Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
(1) It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42
percent
(2) It has made recommondations concerning sector-specific grants
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
The commission has recommended states’ share in net proceeds of tax revenues be 42 per cent, a huge jump from the 32 per cent recommend by the 13th Finance Commission, the largest change ever in the percentage of devolution. As compared to total devolutions in 2014-15, total devolution of states in 2015-16 will increase by over 45 per cent.
No sector specific grant recommendations were made. Please read the link below for detailed recommendations.Tikdam:Incorrect
The commission has recommended states’ share in net proceeds of tax revenues be 42 per cent, a huge jump from the 32 per cent recommend by the 13th Finance Commission, the largest change ever in the percentage of devolution. As compared to total devolutions in 2014-15, total devolution of states in 2015-16 will increase by over 45 per cent.
No sector specific grant recommendations were made. Please read the link below for detailed recommendations.Tikdam: -
Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 pointsA decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?
(1) Slowing economic growth rate
(2) Less equitable distribution of national income
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
Slowing economic growth rates may result in lower tax collection.Tikdam: Controversial question
it depends on tax buoyancy but geneally as economy slows, tax to GDP ratio also declinesStatment 2 can also be proved to be both true and false in different scenraios
Incorrect
Slowing economic growth rates may result in lower tax collection.Tikdam: Controversial question
it depends on tax buoyancy but geneally as economy slows, tax to GDP ratio also declinesStatment 2 can also be proved to be both true and false in different scenraios
-
Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 pointsIn the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries, which one of the following is given the highest weight?
Correct
Electricity has 10.32% weightage; steel 4.9%; coal 4.38%; fertilizers 1.25%.Tikdam: weight is according to importance in GDP
In 8, weight of refinery products is maximum followed by electricity
least is that of fertilizersIncorrect
Electricity has 10.32% weightage; steel 4.9%; coal 4.38%; fertilizers 1.25%.Tikdam: weight is according to importance in GDP
In 8, weight of refinery products is maximum followed by electricity
least is that of fertilizers -
Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation FoundationIndia
(NIF)?
(1) NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central
Government.
(2) NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India’s premier
scientific institution in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
National Innovation Foundation – India (NIF) is an autonomous body under the Department of Science and Technology (India), Government of India. It was set up in February 2000 at Ahmedabad, Gujarat, India to provide institutional support for scouting, spawning, sustaining and scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country.
NIF conducts a biennial national competition for grassroots green technologies (not highly advanced) developed by farmers, mechanics, artisans and others through their own genius without any recourse to professional help. NIF validates these innovations with the help of experts, and, ascertains the novelty in these innovations by doing prior art search. If the innovation is deemed novel, NIF files a patent on behalf of the innovator. NIF also funds value addition initiatives in these innovations to upscale them and make them more useful for a larger segment of people.Tikdam: statement 2 has clear signs of exaggeration – highly advanced reserach, highly advanced scientific institution. Pause and think, of course inverse is true. It’s for grass root innovationIncorrect
National Innovation Foundation – India (NIF) is an autonomous body under the Department of Science and Technology (India), Government of India. It was set up in February 2000 at Ahmedabad, Gujarat, India to provide institutional support for scouting, spawning, sustaining and scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country.
NIF conducts a biennial national competition for grassroots green technologies (not highly advanced) developed by farmers, mechanics, artisans and others through their own genius without any recourse to professional help. NIF validates these innovations with the help of experts, and, ascertains the novelty in these innovations by doing prior art search. If the innovation is deemed novel, NIF files a patent on behalf of the innovator. NIF also funds value addition initiatives in these innovations to upscale them and make them more useful for a larger segment of people.Tikdam: statement 2 has clear signs of exaggeration – highly advanced reserach, highly advanced scientific institution. Pause and think, of course inverse is true. It’s for grass root innovation -
Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 pointsThe Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the
Correct
CACP recommends the fair and remunerative prices based on inter-crop price parity, inflation considerations, fair return to farmers and a host of other factors.
It is the cabinet Committee on Economic affairs that finally approves it.Tikdam: APMC are market committes and manage markets not prices, inspectors would insectCACP recommends but approval can only be done by govt/cabinet/cabinet committee
Incorrect
CACP recommends the fair and remunerative prices based on inter-crop price parity, inflation considerations, fair return to farmers and a host of other factors.
It is the cabinet Committee on Economic affairs that finally approves it.Tikdam: APMC are market committes and manage markets not prices, inspectors would insectCACP recommends but approval can only be done by govt/cabinet/cabinet committee
-
Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically?
Correct
The World Bank issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically.Tikdam: Global prospects would be published by a global body. World bank the only global body in the options
Incorrect
The World Bank issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically.Tikdam: Global prospects would be published by a global body. World bank the only global body in the options
-
Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 pointsWhen the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which
of the following is likely to happen?Correct
If SLR is reduced, banks have to park lesser money with RBI in form of securities, cash etc. So, they have more money to lend and the return on lending is also greater than what they get in SLR. Hence, the scheduled commercial banks may cut their lending rates.Tikdam: SLR reduced, mmore funds with the bank so lending rates reduced.
1st and 4th statement – drastic redflag pause and think – obviously wrongIncorrect
If SLR is reduced, banks have to park lesser money with RBI in form of securities, cash etc. So, they have more money to lend and the return on lending is also greater than what they get in SLR. Hence, the scheduled commercial banks may cut their lending rates.Tikdam: SLR reduced, mmore funds with the bank so lending rates reduced.
1st and 4th statement – drastic redflag pause and think – obviously wrong -
Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 pointsIn India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the
Correct
Agricultural Markets in most parts of the Country are established and regulated under the State APMC Acts. The whole geographical area in the State is divided and declared as a market area wherein the markets are managed by the Market Committees constituted by the State Governments. Once a particular area is declared a market area and falls under the jurisdiction of a Market Committee, no person or agency is allowed freely to carry on wholesale marketing activities.Tikdam: Markets would obvioulsy be regulated by a market committee
Incorrect
Agricultural Markets in most parts of the Country are established and regulated under the State APMC Acts. The whole geographical area in the State is divided and declared as a market area wherein the markets are managed by the Market Committees constituted by the State Governments. Once a particular area is declared a market area and falls under the jurisdiction of a Market Committee, no person or agency is allowed freely to carry on wholesale marketing activities.Tikdam: Markets would obvioulsy be regulated by a market committee
-
Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial workers’?
Correct
The CPI-IW series on scientific lines was first introduced with base 1960=100 which was based on the results of Family Living Survey conducted in 1958-59 at 50 industrially important centres. The series was then, updated on base 1982=100 and a revision in 1999-2000 has further updated the base on 2001=100. The current series of CPI-IW with base year 2001=100 covers 78 industrially important centers spread across the country.
It reflects the consumption pattern of the working class population.Tikdam: Industrial workers – labour – Labour bureauIncorrect
The CPI-IW series on scientific lines was first introduced with base 1960=100 which was based on the results of Family Living Survey conducted in 1958-59 at 50 industrially important centres. The series was then, updated on base 1982=100 and a revision in 1999-2000 has further updated the base on 2001=100. The current series of CPI-IW with base year 2001=100 covers 78 industrially important centers spread across the country.
It reflects the consumption pattern of the working class population.Tikdam: Industrial workers – labour – Labour bureau -
Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 pointsThe terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the application of Sanitary and
Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the
affairs of theCorrect
Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ are related to World Trade Organisation.Tikdam: Easy, WTO
Incorrect
Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ are related to World Trade Organisation.Tikdam: Easy, WTO
-
Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 pointsCovertability of rupee implies
Correct
Rupee convertibility means the system where any amount of rupee can be converted into any other currency without any question asked about the purpose for which the foreign exchange is to be used.
Non-convertibility can generally be defined with reference to transaction for which foreign exchange cannot be legally purchased (e.g. import of consumer goods etc), or transactions which are controlled and approved on a case by case basis (like regulated imports etc). A move towards free convertibility implies a reduction in the number / volume of the above types of transaction.Tikdam:Incorrect
Rupee convertibility means the system where any amount of rupee can be converted into any other currency without any question asked about the purpose for which the foreign exchange is to be used.
Non-convertibility can generally be defined with reference to transaction for which foreign exchange cannot be legally purchased (e.g. import of consumer goods etc), or transactions which are controlled and approved on a case by case basis (like regulated imports etc). A move towards free convertibility implies a reduction in the number / volume of the above types of transaction.Tikdam: -
Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 pointsAmnesty International is
Correct
As per the website of Amnesty International, “Amnesty International is a global movement of more than 7 million people who take injustice personally. We are campaigning for a world where human rights are enjoyed by all.”Tikdam: amnesty means pardon for convicts/offences.C and D and A all wrong.
It’s for human rights and complaince to internatioanl lawsIncorrect
As per the website of Amnesty International, “Amnesty International is a global movement of more than 7 million people who take injustice personally. We are campaigning for a world where human rights are enjoyed by all.”Tikdam: amnesty means pardon for convicts/offences.C and D and A all wrong.
It’s for human rights and complaince to internatioanl laws -
Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 pointsIndia is a member of which among the following?
(1) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
(2) Association of South-East Asian Nations
(3) East Asia SummitSelect the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
India is a member of East Asia Summit. India is a member of ASEAN 6, not ASEANTikdam: India is not a member of ASEAN but on eof 6 dialogue partners who take part in EAS.
Incorrect
India is a member of East Asia Summit. India is a member of ASEAN 6, not ASEANTikdam: India is not a member of ASEAN but on eof 6 dialogue partners who take part in EAS.
-
Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements :
(1) The department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is
presented to the Parliament.
(2) No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization
from the Parliamnet of India.
(3) All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the
Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?Correct
The constitution establishes three types of funds – Consolidated Fund of India; Public Account; Contingency Fund.
Prior authorization is required for withdrawing from Consolidated Fund of India. For Contingency fund of India, withdrawal can be authorized by the Parliament afterwards too. For Public Account, no such authorization is needed.
Assessing the revenues from different central taxes is the primary function of the Department of Revenue and the expenditure estimates for the current and the next year for various expenditure heads are assessed by the Department of Expenditure. The Department of Expenditure also assesses the resources of the public sector undertakings (PSUs).
The Budget division is a part of the Department of Economic Affairs. The Finance Secretary coordinates the overall Budget-making processTikdam: Public account is with central govt, no parliamentary approvalIncorrect
The constitution establishes three types of funds – Consolidated Fund of India; Public Account; Contingency Fund.
Prior authorization is required for withdrawing from Consolidated Fund of India. For Contingency fund of India, withdrawal can be authorized by the Parliament afterwards too. For Public Account, no such authorization is needed.
Assessing the revenues from different central taxes is the primary function of the Department of Revenue and the expenditure estimates for the current and the next year for various expenditure heads are assessed by the Department of Expenditure. The Department of Expenditure also assesses the resources of the public sector undertakings (PSUs).
The Budget division is a part of the Department of Economic Affairs. The Finance Secretary coordinates the overall Budget-making processTikdam: Public account is with central govt, no parliamentary approval -
Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements :
(1) The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996-97 to provide
loan assistance to poor farmers.
(2) The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974-75 for the development
of water-use efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The government of India launched Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Program (AIBP) in 1996-97. This program was launched to give loan assistance to the states to help them a few major irrigation projects which were in advanced stage of completion.
The Command Area Development Programme was launched as a Centrally-sponsored scheme in 1974-75 with the main objectives of improving utilization of irrigation potential and optimizing agricultural productivity and production from the irrigated areas by integrating all functions related with irrigated agriculture.Tikdam: as the name suggests objective was to expand irrigation network not giving lones to poor farmersIncorrect
The government of India launched Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Program (AIBP) in 1996-97. This program was launched to give loan assistance to the states to help them a few major irrigation projects which were in advanced stage of completion.
The Command Area Development Programme was launched as a Centrally-sponsored scheme in 1974-75 with the main objectives of improving utilization of irrigation potential and optimizing agricultural productivity and production from the irrigated areas by integrating all functions related with irrigated agriculture.Tikdam: as the name suggests objective was to expand irrigation network not giving lones to poor farmers -
Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 pointsIn the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are
not a participant/participants?
(1) Bangladesh
(2) Cambodia
(3) China
(4) Mayanmar
(5) Thailand
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
The Mekong–Ganga Cooperation (MGC) was established on November 10, 2000 at Vientiane at the First MGC Ministerial Meeting. It comprises six member countries, namely India, Thailand, Myanmar, Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam. They emphasised four areas of cooperation, which are tourism, culture, education, and transportation linkage in order to be solid foundation for future trade and investment cooperation in the regionTikdam: India plus MCLV countries and Thailand
Incorrect
The Mekong–Ganga Cooperation (MGC) was established on November 10, 2000 at Vientiane at the First MGC Ministerial Meeting. It comprises six member countries, namely India, Thailand, Myanmar, Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam. They emphasised four areas of cooperation, which are tourism, culture, education, and transportation linkage in order to be solid foundation for future trade and investment cooperation in the regionTikdam: India plus MCLV countries and Thailand
-
Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 pointsBasel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’ often seen in the news, seeks to
Correct
Basel III (or the Third Basel Accord) is a global, voluntary regulatory framework on bank capital adequacy, stress testing and market liquidity risk. It was agreed upon by the members of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in 2010–11, and was scheduled to be introduced from 2013 until 2015Tikdam: bank of international settleement, baning regulation, option b
Incorrect
Basel III (or the Third Basel Accord) is a global, voluntary regulatory framework on bank capital adequacy, stress testing and market liquidity risk. It was agreed upon by the members of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in 2010–11, and was scheduled to be introduced from 2013 until 2015Tikdam: bank of international settleement, baning regulation, option b
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’ consider
the following statements :
(1) It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.
(2) It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The organization was first established as Indian Ocean Rim Initiative in Mauritius on March 1995 and formally launched on 6–7 March 1997. It is an international organization consisting of coastal states bordering the Indian Ocean.
Priority areas are to promote the sustained growth and balanced development of the region and of the Member States, and to create common ground for regional economic co-operation. Six priority areas were identified at the 11th Council of Ministers, in Bengaluru are:
o Maritime SafetyTikdam: it is mainly for trade, growth and development so security not the focus. Statement 1 also wrong on similar accountIncorrect
The organization was first established as Indian Ocean Rim Initiative in Mauritius on March 1995 and formally launched on 6–7 March 1997. It is an international organization consisting of coastal states bordering the Indian Ocean.
Priority areas are to promote the sustained growth and balanced development of the region and of the Member States, and to create common ground for regional economic co-operation. Six priority areas were identified at the 11th Council of Ministers, in Bengaluru are:
o Maritime SafetyTikdam: it is mainly for trade, growth and development so security not the focus. Statement 1 also wrong on similar account -
Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 pointsBeijing Declaration and Platform for Action’, often seen in the news, is
Correct
The Platform for Action is an agenda for women’s empowerment. It aims at accelerating the implementation of the Nairobi Forward-looking Strategies for the Advancement of Women and at removing all the obstacles to women’s active participation in all spheres of public and private life through a full and equal share in economic, social, cultural and political decision-making.Tikdam:
Incorrect
The Platform for Action is an agenda for women’s empowerment. It aims at accelerating the implementation of the Nairobi Forward-looking Strategies for the Advancement of Women and at removing all the obstacles to women’s active participation in all spheres of public and private life through a full and equal share in economic, social, cultural and political decision-making.Tikdam:
-
Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements :
(1) The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic product has steadily increased in the last decade.
(2) The Gross Domestic product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last
decade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Due to recession in 2008, the growth rate of the Indian economy had declined for the next few years from 8-9% to 5-6%. So, statement 1 is wrong.
Even though the growth rate declined, it never became negative. So, the GDP at market prices has always increased year on year since last one decade.Tikdam: Rate of real GDP can’ increase steadily for 10 years. There was financial crisis in 2008. Again slowdown in 2013.GDP even at real price would increase steadily if there is no recession so no question of not growing at market price
Incorrect
Due to recession in 2008, the growth rate of the Indian economy had declined for the next few years from 8-9% to 5-6%. So, statement 1 is wrong.
Even though the growth rate declined, it never became negative. So, the GDP at market prices has always increased year on year since last one decade.Tikdam: Rate of real GDP can’ increase steadily for 10 years. There was financial crisis in 2008. Again slowdown in 2013.GDP even at real price would increase steadily if there is no recession so no question of not growing at market price
-
Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Indian economy, consider the following :
(1) Bank rate
(2) Open market operations
(3) Public debt
(4) Public revenue
Which of the above is/are component/components of Monetary Policy?Correct
Public debt and Public revenue are matters falling under Fiscal policy. The Ministry of Finance handles these subjects.
Bank rate and OMOs fall within the jurisdiction of RBI’s monetary policy.Tikdam: what govt does is fiscal policy – so public debt and public revenue are part of fiscal policybank rate and OMOs done by RBI i.e Monetary authority hence monetray policy
Incorrect
Public debt and Public revenue are matters falling under Fiscal policy. The Ministry of Finance handles these subjects.
Bank rate and OMOs fall within the jurisdiction of RBI’s monetary policy.Tikdam: what govt does is fiscal policy – so public debt and public revenue are part of fiscal policybank rate and OMOs done by RBI i.e Monetary authority hence monetray policy
-
Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 pointsWith reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct?
Correct
Decreased money circulation leads to lesser money in hands of people to spend. Hence, lower demand (given the same supply) leads to falling prices fall and reduced inflation.Tikdam: it’s joint responsibility as both fiscal and monetary policy affects inflation
statement 3 and 4 are contradictory; one has to be true.
Incorrect
Decreased money circulation leads to lesser money in hands of people to spend. Hence, lower demand (given the same supply) leads to falling prices fall and reduced inflation.Tikdam: it’s joint responsibility as both fiscal and monetary policy affects inflation
statement 3 and 4 are contradictory; one has to be true.
-
Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 pointsThe substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of
Correct
“Capital” in an economic context means machinery or capital goods which can be employed to produce other goods.
Substitution of steel can be considered as the substitution of a lesser machine by a better machine. This encourages steel production. Hence it is a capital-augmenting technological progress.Tikdam: clearly labour reducing so capital augmentingIncorrect
“Capital” in an economic context means machinery or capital goods which can be employed to produce other goods.
Substitution of steel can be considered as the substitution of a lesser machine by a better machine. This encourages steel production. Hence it is a capital-augmenting technological progress.Tikdam: clearly labour reducing so capital augmenting -
Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 pointsThe problem of international liquidity is related to the non-availability of
Correct
The concept of international liquidity is associated with international payments. These payments arise out of international trade in goods and services and also in connection with capital movements between one country and another. International liquidity refers to the generally accepted official means of settling imbalances in international payments which is basically dollars and hard currencies.Tikdam: liquidity is cash. currency
Incorrect
The concept of international liquidity is associated with international payments. These payments arise out of international trade in goods and services and also in connection with capital movements between one country and another. International liquidity refers to the generally accepted official means of settling imbalances in international payments which is basically dollars and hard currencies.Tikdam: liquidity is cash. currency
-
Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following best describes the main objective of Seed Village Concept?
Correct
A village, wherein trained group of fanners are involved (generally in a self-help group) in production of seeds of various crops and cater to the needs of themselves, fellow fanners of the village and fanners of neighboring villages in appropriate time and at affordable cost is called “a seed village”.Tikdam: 1st is wrong as seeds should be replaced periodically so that quality is maintained
c is absurd. how can a village be earmarked exclsively for anything
So choose b/w b and d
Incorrect
A village, wherein trained group of fanners are involved (generally in a self-help group) in production of seeds of various crops and cater to the needs of themselves, fellow fanners of the village and fanners of neighboring villages in appropriate time and at affordable cost is called “a seed village”.Tikdam: 1st is wrong as seeds should be replaced periodically so that quality is maintained
c is absurd. how can a village be earmarked exclsively for anything
So choose b/w b and d
-
Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 pointsThere has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be
taken by the government to reduce the deficit?
(1) Reducing revenue expenditure
(2) Introducing new welfare schemes
(3) Rationalizing subsidies
(4) Expanding industries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
Introducing new welfare scheme will further inflate the budget.
Expanding industries by budgetary support will not add anything in the short-run to the tax revenues of the government, and thus will increase the budget deficit.
Rationalizing subsidies and reducing revenue expenditure are two direct ways of reducing the fiscal burden of the government of India.Tikdam:Incorrect
Introducing new welfare scheme will further inflate the budget.
Expanding industries by budgetary support will not add anything in the short-run to the tax revenues of the government, and thus will increase the budget deficit.
Rationalizing subsidies and reducing revenue expenditure are two direct ways of reducing the fiscal burden of the government of India.Tikdam: -
Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 pointsQUESTION 99.
Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geograhical Indication’ status?
(1) Banaras Brocades and Sarees
(2) Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
(3) Tirupathi Laddu
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
Banaras Brocades and Sarees (Logo) has been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status. A geographical indication (GI) is a name or sign used on certain products which corresponds to a specific geographical location or origin (e.g. a town, region, or country). India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 which has come into force from 15 September 2003.Tikdam:
Incorrect
Banaras Brocades and Sarees (Logo) has been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status. A geographical indication (GI) is a name or sign used on certain products which corresponds to a specific geographical location or origin (e.g. a town, region, or country). India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 which has come into force from 15 September 2003.Tikdam:
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of
the following statements is/are correct?
(1) It is a Public Limited Government Company.
(2) It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
IREDA has been awarded “Mini Ratna” (Category -I) status in 2015 by Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). IREDA is a Public Limited Government Company established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987 under the administrative control of MNRE to promote, develop and extend financial assistance for renewable energy and energy efficiency /conservation projects with the motto: “ENERGY FOR EVER”.Tikdam: it’s not a bank but provides financial assistance for renewable energy so it’s NBFC.
Incorrect
IREDA has been awarded “Mini Ratna” (Category -I) status in 2015 by Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). IREDA is a Public Limited Government Company established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987 under the administrative control of MNRE to promote, develop and extend financial assistance for renewable energy and energy efficiency /conservation projects with the motto: “ENERGY FOR EVER”.Tikdam: it’s not a bank but provides financial assistance for renewable energy so it’s NBFC.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 pointsIn the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not
originate What is the reason?Correct
Even though UPSC has given B as correct, the right answer is A.
Option C is wrong. Coriolis force is weak only in the region around 0-5 degrees North or South latitudes.
Option B is also wrong. ITCZ formation is not essential to the formation of cyclones. Cyclones are formed in regions where ITCZ does not form, for e.g. in North Atlantic.
Option D is absurd as absence of land boosts cyclones. Presence of land cuts off moisture from the cyclone. So, the most appropriate answer should be A.
For cyclone formation, a sea temperature of at least 26 degree Celsius is needed. In the South-eastern pacific and South Atlantic region cold currents are found. This leads to lower sea temperatures. Hence, cyclones don’t form there.Tikdam: Controversial questionIncorrect
Even though UPSC has given B as correct, the right answer is A.
Option C is wrong. Coriolis force is weak only in the region around 0-5 degrees North or South latitudes.
Option B is also wrong. ITCZ formation is not essential to the formation of cyclones. Cyclones are formed in regions where ITCZ does not form, for e.g. in North Atlantic.
Option D is absurd as absence of land boosts cyclones. Presence of land cuts off moisture from the cyclone. So, the most appropriate answer should be A.
For cyclone formation, a sea temperature of at least 26 degree Celsius is needed. In the South-eastern pacific and South Atlantic region cold currents are found. This leads to lower sea temperatures. Hence, cyclones don’t form there.Tikdam: Controversial question -
Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost
State?Correct
Standard NCERT question! In the diagram, west of the line falls in Gujarat, while the east falls in Arunachal Pradesh.Tikdam: Standard map
Incorrect
Standard NCERT question! In the diagram, west of the line falls in Gujarat, while the east falls in Arunachal Pradesh.Tikdam: Standard map
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 pointsWhat explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?
Correct
The equatorial countercurrents are driven by a distinct surface wind pattern in the tropics. Strong westward trade winds result in westward surface flow in most of the tropical Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. However, several hundred mi. (km.) north of the equator the winds are much weaker, in comparison.
The stronger winds to the south pile up water where the winds are weak. As a result, the surface of the ocean can be up to 6 in. (15 cm.) higher and the thermocline (region of strongest decrease of temperature with increasing depth) as much as 328 ft. (100 m.) deeper than it is directly to the north. The excess water flows eastward under the influence of the Earth’s rotation, giving rise to the equatorial countercurrentsTikdam:Incorrect
The equatorial countercurrents are driven by a distinct surface wind pattern in the tropics. Strong westward trade winds result in westward surface flow in most of the tropical Atlantic and Pacific Oceans. However, several hundred mi. (km.) north of the equator the winds are much weaker, in comparison.
The stronger winds to the south pile up water where the winds are weak. As a result, the surface of the ocean can be up to 6 in. (15 cm.) higher and the thermocline (region of strongest decrease of temperature with increasing depth) as much as 328 ft. (100 m.) deeper than it is directly to the north. The excess water flows eastward under the influence of the Earth’s rotation, giving rise to the equatorial countercurrentsTikdam: -
Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs :
Place of Pilgrimage : Location
(1) Srisailam : Nallamala Hills
(2) Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
(3) Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?Correct
The town (as well as the mandal) of Srisailam is reputed for the shrine of Lord Mallikarjuna on the flat top of Nallamala Hills.
Omkareshwar is situated on the Mandhata hills in Madhya Pradesh, known in ancient times as Shivpuri. The temple dates back to the Krita Yuga. River Narmada flows here around the Mandhata hill in the form of an Om (Omkaram).
The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central India. But, Pushkar lies in Ajmer, Rajasthan.Tikdam: Pushkar is in Ajmer, rajasthan and there is only aravalli in rajasthan.
Eliminate 3, you get the answerIncorrect
The town (as well as the mandal) of Srisailam is reputed for the shrine of Lord Mallikarjuna on the flat top of Nallamala Hills.
Omkareshwar is situated on the Mandhata hills in Madhya Pradesh, known in ancient times as Shivpuri. The temple dates back to the Krita Yuga. River Narmada flows here around the Mandhata hill in the form of an Om (Omkaram).
The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central India. But, Pushkar lies in Ajmer, Rajasthan.Tikdam: Pushkar is in Ajmer, rajasthan and there is only aravalli in rajasthan.
Eliminate 3, you get the answer -
Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 pointsAmong the following, which were frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola
virus recently?Correct
Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia were in news for the outbreak of Ebola virus recently.Tikdam: Even if you remembered that it was in Africa. Jordan in Asia, 3rd in pacific, 4th carribean
Incorrect
Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia were in news for the outbreak of Ebola virus recently.Tikdam: Even if you remembered that it was in Africa. Jordan in Asia, 3rd in pacific, 4th carribean
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 pointsThe area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events
related toCorrect
Golan Heights are located in Syria. However, the two-thirds of the western region are currently occupied by Israel, whereas the one-third of eastern region is controlled by Syria.
Tikdam: in news due to syria – middle eastIncorrect
Golan Heights are located in Syria. However, the two-thirds of the western region are currently occupied by Israel, whereas the one-third of eastern region is controlled by Syria.
Tikdam: in news due to syria – middle east -
Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 pointsConsider the following rivers :
(1) Vamsadhara
(2) Indravati
(3) Pranahita
(4) Pennar
Which of the above are tributes of Godavari?Correct
Left tributaries: Purna, Pranahita, Indravati, Sabari, Taliperu, Wainganga, Penganga, Wardha, Dudhana
Right tributaries: Pravara, Manjira, Pedda Vagu, Manair, KinnerasaniTikdam:Incorrect
Left tributaries: Purna, Pranahita, Indravati, Sabari, Taliperu, Wainganga, Penganga, Wardha, Dudhana
Right tributaries: Pravara, Manjira, Pedda Vagu, Manair, KinnerasaniTikdam: -
Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen
forest and deiduous forest?Correct
The South Andaman forests have a profuse growth of epiphytic vegetation, mostly ferns and orchids. The Middle Andamans harbours mostly moist deciduous forests. North Andamans is characterized by the wet evergreen type, with plenty of woody climbers. The North Nicobar Islands (including Car Nicobar and Battimalv) are marked by the complete absence of evergreen forests, while such forests form the dominant vegetation in the central and southern islands of the Nicobar group. Grasslands occur only in the Nicobars, and while deciduous forests are common in the Andamans, they are almost absent in the Nicobars. The present forest coverage is claimed to be 86.2% of the total land area.Tikdam: Only Andaman and Nicobar can have evergreen forest among the options
Incorrect
The South Andaman forests have a profuse growth of epiphytic vegetation, mostly ferns and orchids. The Middle Andamans harbours mostly moist deciduous forests. North Andamans is characterized by the wet evergreen type, with plenty of woody climbers. The North Nicobar Islands (including Car Nicobar and Battimalv) are marked by the complete absence of evergreen forests, while such forests form the dominant vegetation in the central and southern islands of the Nicobar group. Grasslands occur only in the Nicobars, and while deciduous forests are common in the Andamans, they are almost absent in the Nicobars. The present forest coverage is claimed to be 86.2% of the total land area.Tikdam: Only Andaman and Nicobar can have evergreen forest among the options
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 points(1) The winds which blow between 30° N and 60° S latitudes throughout the year are known as
westerlies.
(2) The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of
westerlies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Westerlies flow between latitudes 30-60 degrees North and 30-60 degrees South. The statement mentions 30N-60S. So it is wrong.
The western cyclonic disturbances are weather phenomena of the winter months brought in by the westerly flow from the Mediterranean region. They usually influence the weather of the north and north-western regions of India. They are a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the Westerlies. Tikdam: read clearly – n to n , s to s noth N to S,Incorrect
Westerlies flow between latitudes 30-60 degrees North and 30-60 degrees South. The statement mentions 30N-60S. So it is wrong.
The western cyclonic disturbances are weather phenomena of the winter months brought in by the westerly flow from the Mediterranean region. They usually influence the weather of the north and north-western regions of India. They are a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the Westerlies. Tikdam: read clearly – n to n , s to s noth N to S, -
Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 pointsTides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among the following?
(1) Gravitational force of the Sun
(2) Gravitational force of the Moon
(3) Centrifugal force of the Earth
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of gravitational forces exerted by the Moon, Sun, and rotation of the Earth.
The times and amplitude of tides at a locale are influenced by the alignment of the Sun and Moon, by the pattern of tides in the deep ocean, by the amphidromic systems of the oceans, and the shape of the coastline and near-shore bathymetry.Tikdam: Simple, if gravitational force of Sun is correct, by logic that of moon would also be correct, Centrifugal force is outcome of gravitational force only,
Incorrect
Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of gravitational forces exerted by the Moon, Sun, and rotation of the Earth.
The times and amplitude of tides at a locale are influenced by the alignment of the Sun and Moon, by the pattern of tides in the deep ocean, by the amphidromic systems of the oceans, and the shape of the coastline and near-shore bathymetry.Tikdam: Simple, if gravitational force of Sun is correct, by logic that of moon would also be correct, Centrifugal force is outcome of gravitational force only,
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 pointsConsider the following States :
(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Mizoram
In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?Correct
These are typical rain forests which grow in those areas where the annual rainfall exceeds 250 cm, the annual temperature is about 25°-27°C the average annual humidity exceeds 77 per cent and the dry season is distinctly short.
The true evergreen forests are found along the western side of the Western Ghats (between 500 to 1370 metres above sea level) south of Mumbai, in a strip running from northeast to south-west direction across Arunachal Pradesh, Upper Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram and Tripura upto a height of 1070 metres and in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.Tikdam: It does not rain that much in Himachal. ONly North east, andamamans and Western ghats have tropical wet evergreen.Incorrect
These are typical rain forests which grow in those areas where the annual rainfall exceeds 250 cm, the annual temperature is about 25°-27°C the average annual humidity exceeds 77 per cent and the dry season is distinctly short.
The true evergreen forests are found along the western side of the Western Ghats (between 500 to 1370 metres above sea level) south of Mumbai, in a strip running from northeast to south-west direction across Arunachal Pradesh, Upper Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram and Tripura upto a height of 1070 metres and in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.Tikdam: It does not rain that much in Himachal. ONly North east, andamamans and Western ghats have tropical wet evergreen. -
Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean
Sea?Correct
Israel has common borders with Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt.Tikdam: Jordan is a landlocked country except for a small stretch where it opens into red sea
Incorrect
Israel has common borders with Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt.Tikdam: Jordan is a landlocked country except for a small stretch where it opens into red sea
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 pointsIn India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?
Correct
Tropical moist deciduous forests exist mostly in the eastern part of the country – northeastern states, along the foothills of the Himalayas, Jharkhand, West Orissa and Chhattisgarh, and on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.
Teak is the most dominant species of this forest. Bamboos, sal, shisham, sandalwood, khair, kusum, arjun, mulberry are other commercially important species.Tikdam:Incorrect
Tropical moist deciduous forests exist mostly in the eastern part of the country – northeastern states, along the foothills of the Himalayas, Jharkhand, West Orissa and Chhattisgarh, and on the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.
Teak is the most dominant species of this forest. Bamboos, sal, shisham, sandalwood, khair, kusum, arjun, mulberry are other commercially important species.Tikdam: -
Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 pointsEach day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun
climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder and
lightning. But rain is soon over.
Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?Correct
Equatorial climate is characterized by consistently high temperatures (around 30 °C), with plentiful precipitation (150–1,000 cm), heavy cloud cover, and high humidity, with very little annual temperature variation. Wet equatorial regions lie within about 12° latitude of the Equator.Tikdam: classical equatorial climate – no season (each day same), afternoon thudestrorm
Incorrect
Equatorial climate is characterized by consistently high temperatures (around 30 °C), with plentiful precipitation (150–1,000 cm), heavy cloud cover, and high humidity, with very little annual temperature variation. Wet equatorial regions lie within about 12° latitude of the Equator.Tikdam: classical equatorial climate – no season (each day same), afternoon thudestrorm
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’.
(2) In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize the Home Rule League.
(3) Demonstrations against the arrival of Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt
Satyagraha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
The Rowlatt committee was a Sedition Committee appointed in 1918 by the British Indian Government with Mr Justice Rowlatt, an English judge, as its president. The purpose of the committee was to evaluate political terrorism in India, especially Bengal and Punjab. In organizing his satyagraha Gandhi tried to utilize three types of political networks – The Home Rule Leagues, Certain pan islamist groups and a satyagraha sabha which he himself started in Bombay on 24 February.Tikdam: Rowlatt act was in 1919 and Simon commission came in 1928. 3rd is easily wrong
Home rule movement lasted mainly from 1916 to 1918. around the same time as Rowlatt, so statement 2 makes sense.
Incorrect
The Rowlatt committee was a Sedition Committee appointed in 1918 by the British Indian Government with Mr Justice Rowlatt, an English judge, as its president. The purpose of the committee was to evaluate political terrorism in India, especially Bengal and Punjab. In organizing his satyagraha Gandhi tried to utilize three types of political networks – The Home Rule Leagues, Certain pan islamist groups and a satyagraha sabha which he himself started in Bombay on 24 February.Tikdam: Rowlatt act was in 1919 and Simon commission came in 1928. 3rd is easily wrong
Home rule movement lasted mainly from 1916 to 1918. around the same time as Rowlatt, so statement 2 makes sense.
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 pointsWho of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India?
(1) Dadabhai Naoroji
(2) G. Subramania Iyer
(3) R. C. Dutt
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
Dadabhai Naoroji, R. C. Dutt, Ranade, Gokhale, G. Subramania Iyer, were among those who grounded Indian nationalism firmly on the foundation of anti-imperialism by fashioning the world’s first economic critique of colonialism, before Hobson and Lenin.
The drain theory was established by Dadabhai Naoroji. Increased poverty and lower wages were among the indirect products of colonial rule according to Dutt.Tikdam:Incorrect
Dadabhai Naoroji, R. C. Dutt, Ranade, Gokhale, G. Subramania Iyer, were among those who grounded Indian nationalism firmly on the foundation of anti-imperialism by fashioning the world’s first economic critique of colonialism, before Hobson and Lenin.
The drain theory was established by Dadabhai Naoroji. Increased poverty and lower wages were among the indirect products of colonial rule according to Dutt.Tikdam: -
Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements :
(1) It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
(2) It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat.
(3) It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The CSP advocated decentralized socialism in which co-operatives, trade unions, independent farmers, and local authorities would hold a substantial share of the economic power. As secularists, they hoped to transcend communal divisions through class solidarity. Some, such as Narendra Deva or Basawon Singh (Sinha), advocated a democratic socialism distinct from both Marxism and reformist social democracy.Tikdam: 2nd is wrong as communists want that not socialists
Separate electorate were demanded by muslim league and later ambedkar not CSPIncorrect
The CSP advocated decentralized socialism in which co-operatives, trade unions, independent farmers, and local authorities would hold a substantial share of the economic power. As secularists, they hoped to transcend communal divisions through class solidarity. Some, such as Narendra Deva or Basawon Singh (Sinha), advocated a democratic socialism distinct from both Marxism and reformist social democracy.Tikdam: 2nd is wrong as communists want that not socialists
Separate electorate were demanded by muslim league and later ambedkar not CSP -
Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 pointsThe Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined
Correct
It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. The central and provincial legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective list of subjects. However, the structure of government continued to be centralised and unitary.
It further divided the provincial subjects into two parts—transferred and reserved which is what we know as diarchy.Tikdam:Incorrect
It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. The central and provincial legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective list of subjects. However, the structure of government continued to be centralised and unitary.
It further divided the provincial subjects into two parts—transferred and reserved which is what we know as diarchy.Tikdam: -
Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs :
Medieval Indian State : Present Region
(1) Champaka : Central India
(2) Durgara : Jammu
(3) Kuluta : Malabar
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?Correct
The ninth century saw the rise of a number of hill states in the Himalayas, some of which maintained their identity until recent years, despite their wars with each other and the frequent raids from the men of the plains. States such as Champaka (Chamba – Himachal Pradesh), Durgara (Jammu), Trigarta (jalandhar), Kuluta (Kulu – Himachal pradesh), Kumaon and Garhwal managed to remain outside the main areas of conflict in the northern plains.Tikdam:
Incorrect
The ninth century saw the rise of a number of hill states in the Himalayas, some of which maintained their identity until recent years, despite their wars with each other and the frequent raids from the men of the plains. States such as Champaka (Chamba – Himachal Pradesh), Durgara (Jammu), Trigarta (jalandhar), Kuluta (Kulu – Himachal pradesh), Kumaon and Garhwal managed to remain outside the main areas of conflict in the northern plains.Tikdam:
-
Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?
(1) Avanti
(2) Gandhara
(3) Kosala
(4) Magadha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
Magadha, Kosala, Vaishali, Vajji etc were the kingdoms and regions that the wandering Buddha covered relentlessly.
Jetavana (Jeta garden) was perhaps the best known amongst the beautiful gardens provided to Buddha’s entourage and it was close to Sravasthi, capital of the Kosala kingdom.
Perhaps the second-most important monastic resort of Buddha was the “bamboo grove” in Rajgriha, capital of Magadha, provided by king Bimbisara.Tikdam: repeat questionIncorrect
Magadha, Kosala, Vaishali, Vajji etc were the kingdoms and regions that the wandering Buddha covered relentlessly.
Jetavana (Jeta garden) was perhaps the best known amongst the beautiful gardens provided to Buddha’s entourage and it was close to Sravasthi, capital of the Kosala kingdom.
Perhaps the second-most important monastic resort of Buddha was the “bamboo grove” in Rajgriha, capital of Magadha, provided by king Bimbisara.Tikdam: repeat question -
Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 pointsConsider the following :
The arrival of Babur into India led to the
(1) introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent
(2) introduction of the arch and dome in the region’s architecture
(3) establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
Statement 1: Chinese gunpowder technology is believed to have arrived in India by the mid-14th century, but could have been introduced much earlier by the Mongols, who had conquered both China and some borderlands of India, perhaps as early as the mid-13th century. The unification of a large single Mongol Empire resulted in the free transmission of previously top-secret Chinese technology into Mongol conquered parts of India. Regardless, it is believed that the Mongols used Chinese gunpowder weapons during their invasions of India.
If statement 1 is wrong, the only possible option is BTikdam:Incorrect
Statement 1: Chinese gunpowder technology is believed to have arrived in India by the mid-14th century, but could have been introduced much earlier by the Mongols, who had conquered both China and some borderlands of India, perhaps as early as the mid-13th century. The unification of a large single Mongol Empire resulted in the free transmission of previously top-secret Chinese technology into Mongol conquered parts of India. Regardless, it is believed that the Mongols used Chinese gunpowder weapons during their invasions of India.
If statement 1 is wrong, the only possible option is BTikdam: -
Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 pointsWho of the following organized a march on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April
1930?Correct
C. Rajagopalachari was arrested in April 1930 for leading a salt march from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore coast.Tikdam:
Incorrect
C. Rajagopalachari was arrested in April 1930 for leading a salt march from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore coast.Tikdam:
-
Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 pointsWho of the following founded a new city on the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and
undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a diety to whom all the land south of the
river Krishna was supposed to belong?Correct
Harihara I was the founder of Vijayanagar Empire.
His initial military exploits established his control over the valley of Tungabhadra River (a tributary of Krishna), and gradually he expanded his control to certain regions of Konkan and Malabar Coast. By that time Hoysalas had lost its last ruler Veera Ballala III who died fighting the Sultan of Madurai, and the vacuum so created facilitated Harihara I to emerge as a sovereign power. The entire Hoysala territories came under his rule directly.Tikdam:Incorrect
Harihara I was the founder of Vijayanagar Empire.
His initial military exploits established his control over the valley of Tungabhadra River (a tributary of Krishna), and gradually he expanded his control to certain regions of Konkan and Malabar Coast. By that time Hoysalas had lost its last ruler Veera Ballala III who died fighting the Sultan of Madurai, and the vacuum so created facilitated Harihara I to emerge as a sovereign power. The entire Hoysala territories came under his rule directly.Tikdam: -
Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements :
(1) The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
(2) The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?Correct
First woman President of INC was Annie Besant.
First male President was W.C. Banerjee. First Muslim male President was Badruddin Tyabji.Tikdam:Incorrect
First woman President of INC was Annie Besant.
First male President was W.C. Banerjee. First Muslim male President was Badruddin Tyabji.Tikdam: -
Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) It recommended a federal government
(2) It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
(3) It provided for more Indians in the ICS.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
The cabinet mission plan of 1946 proposed that there shall be a Union of India which was to be empowered to deal with the defense, foreign affairs and communications.
• The Union Government and its legislature were to have limited powers, dealing with Finance, Foreign Affairs and Communications. The union would have powers necessary to raise the finances to manage the subjects.
• All subjects other than the Union Subjects and all the residuary powers would be vested in the provinces.
• Thus, the Cabinet Mission plan proposed a weak Centre with Provincial autonomy – essentially proposing a federal structure of government.Tikdam: More indians in ICS, more power to Indian courts were thing of 19th century or at the very least pre Gandhian. in 1946, we would be talking of indepndence and form of government.Incorrect
The cabinet mission plan of 1946 proposed that there shall be a Union of India which was to be empowered to deal with the defense, foreign affairs and communications.
• The Union Government and its legislature were to have limited powers, dealing with Finance, Foreign Affairs and Communications. The union would have powers necessary to raise the finances to manage the subjects.
• All subjects other than the Union Subjects and all the residuary powers would be vested in the provinces.
• Thus, the Cabinet Mission plan proposed a weak Centre with Provincial autonomy – essentially proposing a federal structure of government.Tikdam: More indians in ICS, more power to Indian courts were thing of 19th century or at the very least pre Gandhian. in 1946, we would be talking of indepndence and form of government. -
Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following
was made earliest?Correct
Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar was created in 11th AD. Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram are 7th century AD creation. At Udayagiri, it is 5th century AD creation.
Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli was created during Ashoka’s reign (272-231 BC). This is the oldest among the four.Tikdam:Incorrect
Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar was created in 11th AD. Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram are 7th century AD creation. At Udayagiri, it is 5th century AD creation.
Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli was created during Ashoka’s reign (272-231 BC). This is the oldest among the four.Tikdam: -
Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Indian History, which of the following is/are the essential element/elements of
the feudal system?
(1) A very strong centralized political authority and a very weak provincial or local political
authority
(2) Emergence of administrative structure based on control and possession of land
(3) Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and his overlord
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
he terms feudalism and feudal system were generally applied to the early and central Middle Ages—the period from the 5th century, when central political authority in the Western empire disappeared, to the 12th century, when kingdoms began to emerge as effective centralized units of government (the period is claimed as 9th-15th century by Wikipedia).
Broadly defined, it was a way of structuring society around relationships derived from the holding of land in exchange for service or labour (lord-vassal relationship).
Use of the term feudalism to describe India applies a concept of medieval European origin, according to which the landed nobility held lands from the Crown in exchange for military service, and vassals were in turn tenants of the nobles, while the peasants (villeins or serfs) were obliged to live on their lord’s land and give him homage, labor, and a share of the produce, notionally in exchange for military protection. The term Indian feudalism is an attempt to classify Indian history according to a European model.
Feudalism, in its various forms, usually emerged as a result of the decentralization of an empire: especially in the Carolingian empires which both lacked the bureaucratic infrastructure necessary to support cavalry without the ability to allocate land to these mounted troops.Tikdam: feudal means existence of many hereditary landlorsd so obviously central authority would be weak
Lord Vassal relationship is logical conclusion of this system.Incorrect
he terms feudalism and feudal system were generally applied to the early and central Middle Ages—the period from the 5th century, when central political authority in the Western empire disappeared, to the 12th century, when kingdoms began to emerge as effective centralized units of government (the period is claimed as 9th-15th century by Wikipedia).
Broadly defined, it was a way of structuring society around relationships derived from the holding of land in exchange for service or labour (lord-vassal relationship).
Use of the term feudalism to describe India applies a concept of medieval European origin, according to which the landed nobility held lands from the Crown in exchange for military service, and vassals were in turn tenants of the nobles, while the peasants (villeins or serfs) were obliged to live on their lord’s land and give him homage, labor, and a share of the produce, notionally in exchange for military protection. The term Indian feudalism is an attempt to classify Indian history according to a European model.
Feudalism, in its various forms, usually emerged as a result of the decentralization of an empire: especially in the Carolingian empires which both lacked the bureaucratic infrastructure necessary to support cavalry without the ability to allocate land to these mounted troops.Tikdam: feudal means existence of many hereditary landlorsd so obviously central authority would be weak
Lord Vassal relationship is logical conclusion of this system. -
Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in the emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?
Correct
Surat split was due to disagreements between Moderates and extremists regarding the methods for protest against the partition of Bengal (in the Swadeshi Movement).
Answer cannot be B, C or D, because moderates and extremists re-united in the Lucknow session, 1916 which was before Non-cooperation/Quit India/Civil Disobedience Movements.Tikdam:Incorrect
Surat split was due to disagreements between Moderates and extremists regarding the methods for protest against the partition of Bengal (in the Swadeshi Movement).
Answer cannot be B, C or D, because moderates and extremists re-united in the Lucknow session, 1916 which was before Non-cooperation/Quit India/Civil Disobedience Movements.Tikdam: -
Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 pointsKalamkari painting refers to
Correct
Kalamkari painting is a type of Indian folk textile art that involves free hand drawing and painting or printing on cloth, mostly cotton. Derived from the Persian language meaning ‘drawing or crafting with pen’, Kalamkari is an ancient form of painting that developed in India over a period of 3,000 years.
Kalahasti and Machilipatnam in Andhra Pradesh, the nerve centres of this art continue to be beehives of Kalamkari activity.Tikdam: kalam means pen – drawing with the pen but it does not help in arriving at the answerIncorrect
Kalamkari painting is a type of Indian folk textile art that involves free hand drawing and painting or printing on cloth, mostly cotton. Derived from the Persian language meaning ‘drawing or crafting with pen’, Kalamkari is an ancient form of painting that developed in India over a period of 3,000 years.
Kalahasti and Machilipatnam in Andhra Pradesh, the nerve centres of this art continue to be beehives of Kalamkari activity.Tikdam: kalam means pen – drawing with the pen but it does not help in arriving at the answer -
Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:
(1) The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country
(2) The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Socio-economic democracy is spelt out because it provides for the idea of a welfare state. For e.g. consider Article 39 (b) and (c) which provide for minimizing inequalities in income and wealth; and ensuring that the wealth is not concentrated in the hands of few. While other article provide for the health of children, rights of working women etc.
DPSP is not enforceable by courts. Only Fundamental rights can be enforced by the courts.Tikdam: Statement 2 any court is red flag but think of course they can’t be enfoorced in court of law meaning in any courtSo don’t mark a statement wrong just by seeing any
Incorrect
Socio-economic democracy is spelt out because it provides for the idea of a welfare state. For e.g. consider Article 39 (b) and (c) which provide for minimizing inequalities in income and wealth; and ensuring that the wealth is not concentrated in the hands of few. While other article provide for the health of children, rights of working women etc.
DPSP is not enforceable by courts. Only Fundamental rights can be enforced by the courts.Tikdam: Statement 2 any court is red flag but think of course they can’t be enfoorced in court of law meaning in any courtSo don’t mark a statement wrong just by seeing any
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements :
(1) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
(2) The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
(3) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Only the Lok Sabha can vote on the demand for grants.
Rajya Sabha can only keep a money bill for not more than 14 days, before which the bill should be either returned to Lok Sabha with recommendations, or passed by the Rajya Sabha. In case of a disagreement between both the houses, the bill is deemed passed in the form it was passed by Lok Sabha.
Every year the budget (annual financial statement as mentioned in the constitution) is discussed by the Rajya Sabha.Tikdam: can discuss but can’t vote so can;t amend or rejectIncorrect
Only the Lok Sabha can vote on the demand for grants.
Rajya Sabha can only keep a money bill for not more than 14 days, before which the bill should be either returned to Lok Sabha with recommendations, or passed by the Rajya Sabha. In case of a disagreement between both the houses, the bill is deemed passed in the form it was passed by Lok Sabha.
Every year the budget (annual financial statement as mentioned in the constitution) is discussed by the Rajya Sabha.Tikdam: can discuss but can’t vote so can;t amend or reject -
Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 pointsWhen a bill is reffered to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by
Correct
In India, if a bill has been rej ected by any house of the parliament and if more than six months have elapsed, the President may summon a joint session for purpose of passing the bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority of a joint sitting.Such a sitting is summoned by the President to settle a deadlock between the two Houses on a bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority i.e. majority of the number of members present and votingTikdam: simple majority. that’s why a bill is referred so that LS can pass the bill on account of its superior stregth
Incorrect
In India, if a bill has been rej ected by any house of the parliament and if more than six months have elapsed, the President may summon a joint session for purpose of passing the bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority of a joint sitting.Such a sitting is summoned by the President to settle a deadlock between the two Houses on a bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority i.e. majority of the number of members present and votingTikdam: simple majority. that’s why a bill is referred so that LS can pass the bill on account of its superior stregth
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 pointsThe Government of India has established NITI Aayoga to replace the
Correct
The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the Planning Commission. The Union Government of India announced formation of NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015 and the first meeting of NITI Aayog was held on 8 February 2015.Tikdam: Other 3 are still present
Incorrect
The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the Planning Commission. The Union Government of India announced formation of NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015 and the first meeting of NITI Aayog was held on 8 February 2015.Tikdam: Other 3 are still present
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements :
(1) The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
(2) The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Executive power of the Union of India is vested in the President of India.
Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India.Tikdam: Vested in presdident,PM has real power
Civil services board – cabinet secretaryIncorrect
Executive power of the Union of India is vested in the President of India.
Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board, the Cabinet Secretariat, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India.Tikdam: Vested in presdident,PM has real power
Civil services board – cabinet secretary -
Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 pointsThe provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in
order toCorrect
Option C is incorrect because it excludes the fifth and sixth schedule areas from the application of the Panchayati Raj system. This is to ensure that the local tribal practices, customs, religious laws, social and political institutions are not tampered with.
Instead, the act known as PESA, 1996 extends the panchayati raj system to the tribal areas.Tikdam: easy – for schedule areas and schedule tribesIncorrect
Option C is incorrect because it excludes the fifth and sixth schedule areas from the application of the Panchayati Raj system. This is to ensure that the local tribal practices, customs, religious laws, social and political institutions are not tampered with.
Instead, the act known as PESA, 1996 extends the panchayati raj system to the tribal areas.Tikdam: easy – for schedule areas and schedule tribes -
Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 pointsWho/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
Correct
The Supreme Court of India is the apex court in India. As stated by the Indian Constitution, the function of the Supreme Court of India is that of a custodian of the Constitution, a court established by the authority of a federal government, and the uppermost court of appeal.Tikdam:
Incorrect
The Supreme Court of India is the apex court in India. As stated by the Indian Constitution, the function of the Supreme Court of India is that of a custodian of the Constitution, a court established by the authority of a federal government, and the uppermost court of appeal.Tikdam:
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements :
(1) The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative
Assembly of that particular State.
(2) The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular
State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40 (with some exceptions).
The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.Tikdam: if it can be larger than half, it can be of any size so obviously constitution would limit the size and that is limited to 1/3
chairpserosns of all assemblies/ councils are elected from withinIncorrect
The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40 (with some exceptions).
The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.Tikdam: if it can be larger than half, it can be of any size so obviously constitution would limit the size and that is limited to 1/3
chairpserosns of all assemblies/ councils are elected from within -
Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 pointsTo uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India is a provision made in the
Correct
The idea behind incorporation of fundamental duties was to remind the citizens of the country that they have certain obligations towards the country and society. The fundamental duties were added to the constitution on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. There were ten fundamental duties at the time of incorporation but the eleventh was inserted by the 86th Amendment in 2002. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is one of them.Tikdam: it’s clearly not a right or directive. it’s duty so fundamnetal duty
Incorrect
The idea behind incorporation of fundamental duties was to remind the citizens of the country that they have certain obligations towards the country and society. The fundamental duties were added to the constitution on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. There were ten fundamental duties at the time of incorporation but the eleventh was inserted by the 86th Amendment in 2002. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is one of them.Tikdam: it’s clearly not a right or directive. it’s duty so fundamnetal duty
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 pointsThe fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
(1) People’s participation in development
(2) Political accountability
(3) Democratic decentralization
(4) Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
The fundamental object to Panchayati Raj system is to ensure people’s participation in development, political accountability and democratic decentralization.Tikdam: Financial mobilization is not possible by PRIs,statement 4 wrong
Political accountability can be one of the objective but it can not be the fundamental objectiveIncorrect
The fundamental object to Panchayati Raj system is to ensure people’s participation in development, political accountability and democratic decentralization.Tikdam: Financial mobilization is not possible by PRIs,statement 4 wrong
Political accountability can be one of the objective but it can not be the fundamental objective -
Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 pointsThe ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
Correct
In a welfare State, the functions of the State are not only the defence of the country or administration of justice or maintaining law and order but it extends to regulating and controlling the activities of the people in almost every sphere—educational, commercial, social, economic, political and even marital.
DPSP thus promotes the ideal of a welfare state as it guides the state in making policies for the socio-economic well being of the people of India.
Preamble, option A, will NOT be the answer because it simply lists the socio-economic objectives of Indian society. It does not tell us who will design or execute policies based on the objectives.Tikdam: DPSP – welfare state, social and economic democracyIncorrect
In a welfare State, the functions of the State are not only the defence of the country or administration of justice or maintaining law and order but it extends to regulating and controlling the activities of the people in almost every sphere—educational, commercial, social, economic, political and even marital.
DPSP thus promotes the ideal of a welfare state as it guides the state in making policies for the socio-economic well being of the people of India.
Preamble, option A, will NOT be the answer because it simply lists the socio-economic objectives of Indian society. It does not tell us who will design or execute policies based on the objectives.Tikdam: DPSP – welfare state, social and economic democracy -
Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 pointsThere is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
Correct
Option A points to a democratic system. It does not necessarily mean a Parliamentary Democratic system. For e.g. in USA the Congress is also elected, but it is a Presidential Democracy.
Option D is correct because “Collective responsibility” of the council of ministers to the Lok Sabha (Article 75) lies at the heart of a Parliamentary democracy.Tikdam: Parliamntary stystem meaning executive part of legislature and accountable to it as opposed to presidential where Executive is not part of legislatureIncorrect
Option A points to a democratic system. It does not necessarily mean a Parliamentary Democratic system. For e.g. in USA the Congress is also elected, but it is a Presidential Democracy.
Option D is correct because “Collective responsibility” of the council of ministers to the Lok Sabha (Article 75) lies at the heart of a Parliamentary democracy.Tikdam: Parliamntary stystem meaning executive part of legislature and accountable to it as opposed to presidential where Executive is not part of legislature -
Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the use of nano-technology in health sector, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
(1) Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology.
(2) Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
Nanosystems have significantly different biological properties from large-sized systems (e.g. implants or microparticles) that could be used effectively to overcome problems in drug and gene therapy. In drug therapy, we face the problems of inefficacy or nonspecific effects; hence, nanosystems are being developed for targeted drug therapy.
In gene therapy using non-viral systems, the main issues are relatively transient gene expression and lower efficiency than viral vectors. Research efforts have focused on understanding the barriers in gene delivery so that non-viral systems can be developed that are as effective as viral systems in gene transfection.Tikdam: Makes sense both statements.
nanotechnology make it possible to tag to spefich genes/organs/systemsIncorrect
Nanosystems have significantly different biological properties from large-sized systems (e.g. implants or microparticles) that could be used effectively to overcome problems in drug and gene therapy. In drug therapy, we face the problems of inefficacy or nonspecific effects; hence, nanosystems are being developed for targeted drug therapy.
In gene therapy using non-viral systems, the main issues are relatively transient gene expression and lower efficiency than viral vectors. Research efforts have focused on understanding the barriers in gene delivery so that non-viral systems can be developed that are as effective as viral systems in gene transfection.Tikdam: Makes sense both statements.
nanotechnology make it possible to tag to spefich genes/organs/systems -
Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 pointsIn the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’,
a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news :
(1) It is he world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice.
(2) It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter.
(3) It is buried deep in the ice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
IceCube is a particle detector at the South Pole that records the interactions of a nearly massless subatomic particle called the neutrino. IceCube searches for neutrinos from the most violent astrophysical sources: events like exploding stars, gamma-ray bursts, and cataclysmic phenomena involving black holes and neutron stars.
The IceCube telescope is a powerful tool to search for dark matter and could reveal the physical processes associated with the enigmatic origin of the highest energy particles in nature. In addition, exploring the background of neutrinos produced in the atmosphere, IceCube studies the neutrinos themselves; their energies far exceed those produced by accelerator beams. IceCube is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice.
It is buried beneath the surface, extending to a depth of about 2,500 meters. Burying it deep in ice is important to enhance the precision of the detector.Tikdam: was in news but have to know the specificsIncorrect
IceCube is a particle detector at the South Pole that records the interactions of a nearly massless subatomic particle called the neutrino. IceCube searches for neutrinos from the most violent astrophysical sources: events like exploding stars, gamma-ray bursts, and cataclysmic phenomena involving black holes and neutron stars.
The IceCube telescope is a powerful tool to search for dark matter and could reveal the physical processes associated with the enigmatic origin of the highest energy particles in nature. In addition, exploring the background of neutrinos produced in the atmosphere, IceCube studies the neutrinos themselves; their energies far exceed those produced by accelerator beams. IceCube is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice.
It is buried beneath the surface, extending to a depth of about 2,500 meters. Burying it deep in ice is important to enhance the precision of the detector.Tikdam: was in news but have to know the specifics -
Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following
statements is/are correct :
(1) It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields.
(2) NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each
other.
(3) NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
Near field communication, abbreviated NFC, is a form of contactless communication based on electromagnetic radio fields between devices like smartphones or tablets. Contactless communication allows a user to wave the smartphone over a NFC compatible device to send information without needing to touch the devices together or go through multiple steps setting up a connection.
Bluetooth can connect to devices up to 32 feet away, yet near field communication can connect to devices at a maximum distance of 4 centimeters on average.
Both businesses and individuals benefit from near field communication technology. By integrating credit cards, subway tickets, and paper coupons all into one device, a customer can board a train, pay for groceries, redeem coupons or store loyalty points, and even exchange contact information all with the wave of a smartphoneTikdam: near field so obviously contactless
statement 2 is wrong – even a metre, it’s for a few cm only like your metro smart cardIncorrect
Near field communication, abbreviated NFC, is a form of contactless communication based on electromagnetic radio fields between devices like smartphones or tablets. Contactless communication allows a user to wave the smartphone over a NFC compatible device to send information without needing to touch the devices together or go through multiple steps setting up a connection.
Bluetooth can connect to devices up to 32 feet away, yet near field communication can connect to devices at a maximum distance of 4 centimeters on average.
Both businesses and individuals benefit from near field communication technology. By integrating credit cards, subway tickets, and paper coupons all into one device, a customer can board a train, pay for groceries, redeem coupons or store loyalty points, and even exchange contact information all with the wave of a smartphoneTikdam: near field so obviously contactless
statement 2 is wrong – even a metre, it’s for a few cm only like your metro smart card -
Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 pointsIn which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used?
(1) Assessment of crop productivity
(2) Locating ground water resources
(3) Mineral exploration
(4) Telecommunications
(5) Traffic studies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
For telecommunications geo-stationary satellites are used. Hence, you can easily eliminate statement 4, which then also eliminates statement 5 (because both occur together).
Under remote sensing, Hyperspectral imaging produces an image where each pixel has full spectral information with imaging narrow spectral bands over a contiguous spectral range. Hyperspectral imagers are used in various applications including mineralogy, biology, defence, and environmental measurements.
So, the only possible answer can be A.Tikdam: For telecommunication, GSATs are needed.Incorrect
For telecommunications geo-stationary satellites are used. Hence, you can easily eliminate statement 4, which then also eliminates statement 5 (because both occur together).
Under remote sensing, Hyperspectral imaging produces an image where each pixel has full spectral information with imaging narrow spectral bands over a contiguous spectral range. Hyperspectral imagers are used in various applications including mineralogy, biology, defence, and environmental measurements.
So, the only possible answer can be A.Tikdam: For telecommunication, GSATs are needed. -
Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 pointsThe term ‘IndARC’, sometimes seen in the news, is the name of
Correct
The interaction between the Arctic ice shelf and the deep sea and its influence on climate shift requires detailed studies over an annual seasonal cycle.
Therefore, IndARC, the India’s first underwater moored observatory, has been deployed in the Kongsfjorden fjord, half way between Norway and the North Pole. It will collect real- time data on seawater temperature, salinity, ocean currents and other vital parameters of the fjord.Tikdam: name itself suggests India and arcticIncorrect
The interaction between the Arctic ice shelf and the deep sea and its influence on climate shift requires detailed studies over an annual seasonal cycle.
Therefore, IndARC, the India’s first underwater moored observatory, has been deployed in the Kongsfjorden fjord, half way between Norway and the North Pole. It will collect real- time data on seawater temperature, salinity, ocean currents and other vital parameters of the fjord.Tikdam: name itself suggests India and arctic -
Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 pointsHINI virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following
diseases?Correct
Influenza A (H1N1) virus is the most common cause of human influenza (flu). In June 2009, the World Health Organization (WHO) declared the new strain of swine-origin H1N1 as a pandemic. This strain is often called swine flu by the public media.Tikdam:
Incorrect
Influenza A (H1N1) virus is the most common cause of human influenza (flu). In June 2009, the World Health Organization (WHO) declared the new strain of swine-origin H1N1 as a pandemic. This strain is often called swine flu by the public media.Tikdam:
-
Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 pointsWith reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements :
(1) The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets is initiated by a fungal inoculum.
(2) Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are
released into the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Under the bio-toilet concept of the DRDO, the bio-digester tank in every toilet is filled with inoculums containing four types of bacteria. The water trap system in the toilet prevents air from getting into the tank, the human waste is processed by anaerobic bacteria in seven chambers in the tank and the methane gas is allowed to escape into the air.Tikdam: decompistition is done by bacteria not fungus
Only is red flag- Shit is organic so carbon ka kuch to niklega hi sath mai
Incorrect
Under the bio-toilet concept of the DRDO, the bio-digester tank in every toilet is filled with inoculums containing four types of bacteria. The water trap system in the toilet prevents air from getting into the tank, the human waste is processed by anaerobic bacteria in seven chambers in the tank and the methane gas is allowed to escape into the air.Tikdam: decompistition is done by bacteria not fungus
Only is red flag- Shit is organic so carbon ka kuch to niklega hi sath mai
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate
electriity, consider the following statements :
(1) If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
(2) Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop
computers
(3) Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The purpose of a fuel cell is to produce an electrical current that can be directed outside the cell to do work, such as powering an electric motor or illuminating a light bulb or a city.
One great appeal of fuel cells is that they generate electricity with very little pollution–much of the hydrogen and oxygen used in generating electricity ultimately combines to form a harmless byproduct, namely water alongwith releasing heat.
A single fuel cell generates a tiny amount of direct current (DC) electricity. In practice, many fuel cells are usually assembled into a stack.
If alternating current (AC) is needed, the DC output of the fuel cell must be routed through a conversion device called an inverter.Tikdam: how can a cell power a building, obviouslt it is for small devicescells/ batteries produce DC not AC
Incorrect
The purpose of a fuel cell is to produce an electrical current that can be directed outside the cell to do work, such as powering an electric motor or illuminating a light bulb or a city.
One great appeal of fuel cells is that they generate electricity with very little pollution–much of the hydrogen and oxygen used in generating electricity ultimately combines to form a harmless byproduct, namely water alongwith releasing heat.
A single fuel cell generates a tiny amount of direct current (DC) electricity. In practice, many fuel cells are usually assembled into a stack.
If alternating current (AC) is needed, the DC output of the fuel cell must be routed through a conversion device called an inverter.Tikdam: how can a cell power a building, obviouslt it is for small devicescells/ batteries produce DC not AC