• Option D is correct.
• Recently, the Aravalli Biodiversity Park was announced as the first Other Effective Area–based Conservation Measures site, OECM site.
• The OECM tag is provided by the International Union for Conservation of Nature, IUCN.
• According to IUCN, the OECM sites are not protected but are rich in biodiversity. The Aravalli hills are the first OECM site of India. The proposal to make Aravallis as the OECM was made by the National Biodiversity Authority.
• Aravalli Biodiversity Park has a semi-arid vegetation. It has shrubs, trees and endemic plant species.
• Earlier, the park was a mining site. It was transformed into a city forest through immense efforts of environmentalists, scientists, ecologists along with the local population.
• Aravallis are considered as the green lungs of Delhi. They support leopards, fox, sambhar and jackals. The Aravallis provide 7.07% of oxygen to Delhi.

Option B is the correct Answer.
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Eco-Sensitive Zone around protected areas are declared by the Ministry of Environment Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India.
• Statement 2 is correct. Eco-Sensitive Zone means the fragile area that exists within 10 kilometres of protected areas like National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries. The purpose of marking an Eco-Sensitive Zone is to create a kind of shock-absorber around the protected areas.
• Statement 3 is correct. Commercial mining, stone quarrying, crushing units, setting up industries that cause pollution, establishment of hydro-electric projects, commercial use of firewood, solid waste disposal or wastewater disposal and many other activities are prohibited or banned around ESZ.

Option C is the correct Answer.
Statement-1 and 2 are incorrect, while statement-3 is correct.
• On 17 September 2022, eight cheetahs from Namibia arrived in Madhya Pradesh’s Kuno National Park, where they were released by Prime Minister Narendra Modi as part of the programme to reintroduce the feline in India. 12 cheetahs from South Africa are also expected to arrive in India in October 2022.
• Action Plan for Introduction of Cheetah in India-launched by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• The action plan was launched at the 19th meeting of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). Hence, Statement-1 is incorrect.
• Under this, 50 Cheetah will be introduced in the next five years.Statement-2 is incorrect.
• Amongst the 10 surveyed sites of the central Indian states, Kuno Palpur National Park (KNP) in Madhya Pradesh has been rated the highest. Statement-3 is correct.
• This is because of its suitable habitat and adequate prey base. KNP is 748 sq. km. in area, devoid of human settlements, forms part of Sheopur-Shivpuri deciduous open forest landscape and is estimated to have a capacity to sustain 21 cheetahs.
• Kuno is the only wildlife site in the country where there has been a complete relocation of villages from inside the park.
• The other sites recommended for holding and conservation breeding of cheetah in India, in controlled wild conditions are:
1. Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary-Madhya Pradesh
2. Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary-Bhainsrorgarh Wildlife Sanctuary complex-Madhya Pradesh
3. Shahgarh bulge in Jaisalmer-Rajasthan
4. Mukundara Tiger Reserve-Rajasthan

Option B is the correct Answer.
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The One Sun One World One Grid project is initiated by India. The idea was first made 2018, by the Prime Minister during the first assembly of the International Solar Alliance (Headquartered in Gurugram).
• It is being implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, Government of India.
• Statement 2 is correct. The fundamental concept behind the project is to develop a trans-national grid supply of solar power that will be laid all over the globe. Through this one country can sell solar power to other solar scarce or cold countries.
• The OSOWOS project plan is to lay undersea cables for transferring solar energy to other countries. Through this it plans to build a global ecosystem of interconnected renewable energy resources that are seamlessly shared for mutual benefits and global sustainability.
• The project would have three phases. In first phase Phase I, Middle East, South Asia and South East Asia would be interconnected.
• In the second phase, solar and other renewable energy resources rich regions would be interconnected.
• In the third phase the project would aim for global interconnection of the power transmission grid to achieve the One Sun One World One Grid vision.

Option D is the correct Answer.
• All of the options are correct.
• The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the ‘Earth Summit’, was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, from 3-14 June 1992.
• This global conference was held on the occasion of the 20th anniversary of the first Human Environment Conference in Stockholm, Sweden, in 1972, brought together political leaders, diplomats, scientists, representatives of the media and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) from 179 countries for a massive effort to focus on the impact of human socio-economic activities on the environment.
• The Rio de Janeiro conference highlighted how different social, economic and environmental factors are interdependent and evolve together, and how success in one sector requires action in other sectors to be sustained over time.
• The primary objective of the Rio ‘Earth Summit’ was to produce a broad agenda and a new blueprint for international action on environmental and development issues that would help guide international cooperation and development policy in the twenty-first century.
• The ‘Earth Summit’ concluded that the concept of sustainable development was an attainable goal for all the people of the world, regardless of whether they were at the local, national, regional or international level.
• One of the major results of the UNCED Conference was Agenda 21-a daring program of action calling for new strategies to invest in the future to achieve overall sustainable development in the 21st century.
• The ‘Earth Summit’ had many great achievements, they are:
1. The Rio Declaration and its 27 universal principles
2. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
3. The Convention on Biological Diversity; and the Declaration on the principles of forest management
4. The ‘Earth Summit’ also led to the creation of the Commission on Sustainable Development, the holding of first world conference on the sustainable development of small island developing States in 1994, and negotiations for the establishment of the agreement on straddling stocks and highly migratory fish stocks.

• Option A is correct.
• The ‘Peace Forest Initiative’ is a unique global initiative to promote peace through land restoration was signed on 28 January 2020 by the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) and the Korea Forest Service (KFS).
• Bridging the goals of peace-building and land restoration, KFS and UNCCD have joined forces to realize the common sustainable development targets, including Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN). Land Degradation Neutrality is a universal goal to tackle land degradation in the context of the sustainable development at global, regional and national levels.
• Land Degradation Neutrality is also an accelerator for the achievement of multiple Sustainable Development Goals.
• Restoration, rehabilitation and sustainable management of forests play a vital role in the achievement of LDN and create a number economic gains, such as increased production of non-timber products, food security and health, reduced soil erosion, disaster risk reduction, improved watershed management and carbon sequestration.

Option B is the correct Answer.
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Global Partnership on Marine Litter was launched at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development Rio+20 in June 2012 in response to a request in the Manila Declaration.
• The Manila Declaration is an outcome of the Third Intergovernmental Review meeting of the Global Programme of Action for the Protection of the Marine Environment from Land-based Activities (GPA) held in January 2012.
• Statement 2 is correct. The Global Partnership on Marine Litter is a multi-stakeholder partnership that brings together all actors working to prevent marine litter and microplastics. By providing a unique global platform to share knowledge and experience, partners are able to work together to create and advance solutions to this pressing global issue.
• The GPML enjoys permanent seats in the Steering Committee to:
1. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
2. The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO)
3. The International Maritime Organization (IMO)
4. The Joint Group of Experts on the Scientific Aspects of Marine Environmental Protection (GESAMP).

Option D is the correct Answer.
• Both the statements are incorrect.
• System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research, known as “SAFAR”, for greater metropolitan cities of India to provide location specific information on air quality in near real time. It was introduced by the Ministry of Earth Science. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• SAFAR has been combined with the early warning system on weather parameters. The SAFAR system is developed by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune, along with ESSO partner institutions namely India Meteorological Department (IMD) and National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The implementation of SAFAR is made possible with an active collaboration with local municipal corporations and various local educational institutions and governmental agencies in that Metro city.
• The ultimate objective of the project is to increase awareness among general public regarding the air quality in their city well in advance so that appropriate mitigation measures and systematic action can be taken up for betterment of air quality and related health issues.
• SAFAR engineers awareness drive by educating public, prompting self-mitigation and also to help develop mitigation strategies for policy makers.
National Clean Air Programme:
• The Union Government had launched the National Clean Air Programme in 2019 to address air pollution in 122 cities.
• These cities are referred to as non-attainment cities as they did not meet the national ambient air quality standards for the period of 2011-15 under the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme.
National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP):
• Central Pollution Control Board is executing a nation-wide programme of ambient air quality monitoring known as National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP). The network consist of 308 operating stations covering 115 cities/towns in 25 States and 4 Union Territories of the country.
• Under N.A.M.P., four air pollutants viz ., Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Oxides of Nitrogen as NO2, Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM / PM10) and Fine Particulate Matter (PM2.5) have been identified for regular monitoring at all the locations.
• The monitoring of meteorological parameters such as wind speed and wind direction, relative humidity (RH) and temperature were also integrated with the monitoring of air quality.

Option C is the correct Answer.
• Statement 3 is correct. Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
• The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country.
• It was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (No. 59 of 1960), the Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 50 years.
• The Board consists of 28 Members. The term of office of Members is for a period of 3 years.
• The Animal Welfare Board of India works under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• One of the most important functions of the Board is to provide financial assistance to the recognised Animal Welfare Organisations (AWOs). The applications in the prescribed format received from the AWOs are scrutinized and eligible applications are placed before the Board for sanction of grant. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Mandate:
• To prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals, in terms of the provision of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (PCA) Act, 1960.
Some major Functions:
• To keep the law in force in India for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals under constant study and to advise the government on the amendments to be undertaken in any such law from time to time.
• To advise the Central Government on the making of rules under the Act with a view to preventing unnecessary pain or suffering to animals generally, and more particularly when they are being transported from one place to another or when they are used as performing animals or when they are kept in captivity or confinment.
• To advise the Government or any local authority or other person on improvements in the design of vehicles so as to lessen the burden on draught animals.
• To take all such steps as the Board may think fit for amelioration of animals by encouraging or providing for, the construction of sheds, water troughs and the like and by providing for veterinary assistance to animals.
• The Board grants recognition to the newly started Animal Welfare Organisations (AWOs). For this purpose, the Board has framed certain guidelines according to which the AWO has to submit the registration certificate under the Societies Registration Act or Trust Act, Audited Statement of Accounts and Annual Reports for the last three years, two copies of Memorandum of Association/Bye-laws and Animal Welfare Activities Report.

Option D is the correct Answer.
• All the statements are correct.
• The Central Zoo Authority was established as a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment & Forests by the Government of India in the year 1992. The Authority consists of a Chairman, ten members and a Member Secretary.
• The main objective of this Authority is to complement and strengthen the national effort in conservation of the rich biodiversity of the country, particularly the fauna as per the National Zoo Policy, 1998.
• Every zoo in the country is required to obtain recognition from the Authority for its operation. The Authority evaluates the zoos with reference to the parameters prescribed under the Rules and grants recognition, accordingly. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Authority evaluates the zoos with reference to the parameters prescribed under the Rules and grants recognition, accordingly.
• It provides technical and financial assistance to such zoos which have the potential to attain the desired standard in animal management. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Apart from the primary function of grant of recognition, the Central Zoo Authority also regulates the exchange of animals of endangered category listed under Schedule- I and II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 among zoos.
• Exchange of animals between Indian and foreign zoos is also approved by the Authority before the requisite clearances under EXIM Policy and the CITES permits are issued by the competent authority. Hence, statement 2 is correct.