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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the difference between Quick Response (QR) code and Barcode:
1. While a barcode holds information in the horizontal direction, a QR code holds information in both horizontal and vertical directions enabling it to store more information.
2. Barcode can be scanned and used even if it is damaged but QR code cannot be used if it is damaged.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Quick Response code, often abbreviated as QR code, is much similar to a barcode. Like a barcode, it also contains machine-readable information concerning the item to which it is attached. But, unlike a regular barcode, a QR code is two-dimensional, i.e. it contains information both in vertical and horizontal directions. While a barcode only holds information in the horizontal direction due to this, a QR code can hold 10 or sometimes even 100 times more information than a barcode. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The most desirable advantage of QR codes above traditional barcodes is that QR codes come with an error margin that ranges from 7-30%. In simple words, even if the packaging of the concerned product or the printed code is damaged or dirty, the QR code will still work. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Advantages of the QR codes:
The design has much more flexibility.
It can store 100+ characters and not just numbers Email addresses, names, details of the products etc. in small strings of characters can be saved in the QR codes. The QR codes have different images to be included so the chances of uniqueness is increased. Smartphones having camera facilities (and an app) can read the QR codes, as well as barcodes in most cases. The codes can be generated by any custom generator app as well and there is no need to go to GS1 US.
Even though the QR code may be damaged, information still can be taken out of it. QR Codes can be scanned at any position, barcodes can not be.Incorrect
Quick Response code, often abbreviated as QR code, is much similar to a barcode. Like a barcode, it also contains machine-readable information concerning the item to which it is attached. But, unlike a regular barcode, a QR code is two-dimensional, i.e. it contains information both in vertical and horizontal directions. While a barcode only holds information in the horizontal direction due to this, a QR code can hold 10 or sometimes even 100 times more information than a barcode. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The most desirable advantage of QR codes above traditional barcodes is that QR codes come with an error margin that ranges from 7-30%. In simple words, even if the packaging of the concerned product or the printed code is damaged or dirty, the QR code will still work. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Advantages of the QR codes:
The design has much more flexibility.
It can store 100+ characters and not just numbers Email addresses, names, details of the products etc. in small strings of characters can be saved in the QR codes. The QR codes have different images to be included so the chances of uniqueness is increased. Smartphones having camera facilities (and an app) can read the QR codes, as well as barcodes in most cases. The codes can be generated by any custom generator app as well and there is no need to go to GS1 US.
Even though the QR code may be damaged, information still can be taken out of it. QR Codes can be scanned at any position, barcodes can not be. -
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to biorefining, consider the following statements:
1. It is the process of extracting fuels, power, and value-added chemicals from petroleum through the use of biological agents.
2. Biodiesel or bioethanol can be produced using this process.
3. There is no production of carbon dioxide or methane during this process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
A biorefinery is a facility that integrates biomass conversion processes and equipment to produce fuels, power, and value-added chemicals from biomass. By producing several products, a biorefinery takes advantage of the various components in biomass and their intermediates, therefore maximizing the value derived from the biomass feedstock and not petroleum. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
A biorefinery could, for example, produce one or several low-volume, but high-value, chemical products and a low-value, but high-volume liquid transportation fuel such as biodiesel or bioethanol. At the same time, it can generate electricity and process heat, through Combined Heat and Power technology. Ethanol can be derived from corn and sugarcane, and biodiesel from soy, rapeseed, and oil palm. Recently, the government of Odisha has inaugurated a bio-refinery for production of bioethanol from rice straws. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Burning biomass does release CO2, but what’s put out is more or less balanced by the carbon dioxide the plant took in over its lifetime. The most common route from plant matter to power is burning it in a direct-fired system: the resulting steam turns turbines, generating electricity. Although it’s not derived from a plant per se (it’s a byproduct of decaying organic matter), methane gas can be used in biofuel production. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Incorrect
A biorefinery is a facility that integrates biomass conversion processes and equipment to produce fuels, power, and value-added chemicals from biomass. By producing several products, a biorefinery takes advantage of the various components in biomass and their intermediates, therefore maximizing the value derived from the biomass feedstock and not petroleum. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
A biorefinery could, for example, produce one or several low-volume, but high-value, chemical products and a low-value, but high-volume liquid transportation fuel such as biodiesel or bioethanol. At the same time, it can generate electricity and process heat, through Combined Heat and Power technology. Ethanol can be derived from corn and sugarcane, and biodiesel from soy, rapeseed, and oil palm. Recently, the government of Odisha has inaugurated a bio-refinery for production of bioethanol from rice straws. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Burning biomass does release CO2, but what’s put out is more or less balanced by the carbon dioxide the plant took in over its lifetime. The most common route from plant matter to power is burning it in a direct-fired system: the resulting steam turns turbines, generating electricity. Although it’s not derived from a plant per se (it’s a byproduct of decaying organic matter), methane gas can be used in biofuel production. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
1. A bioplastic is a substance made from organic biomass sources, unlike conventional plastics which are made from petroleum.
2. The bioplastics does not release carbon dioxide or monoxide when biodegrading.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
What is Bio plastic?
A bioplastic is a substance made from organic biomass sources, unlike conventional plastics which are made from petroleum. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Bioplastics are made through a number of different processes. Some use a microorganism to process base materials, such as vegetable oils, cellulose, starches, acids and alcohols. Almost all bioplastics produce less carbon dioxide in production than conventional plastics, they are not necessarily completely green. Many bioplastics also release carbon dioxide or monoxide when biodegrading. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.Incorrect
What is Bio plastic?
A bioplastic is a substance made from organic biomass sources, unlike conventional plastics which are made from petroleum. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Bioplastics are made through a number of different processes. Some use a microorganism to process base materials, such as vegetable oils, cellulose, starches, acids and alcohols. Almost all bioplastics produce less carbon dioxide in production than conventional plastics, they are not necessarily completely green. Many bioplastics also release carbon dioxide or monoxide when biodegrading. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. -
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following diseases are causedby viruses?
1. Hepatitis C
2. Chicken Pox
3. Common Cold
4. Malaria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Correct
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Hepatitis C and Chicken Pox are caused by viruses.
Statement 3 is correct. Common cold is mostly caused by a number of different types of viruses. More than 200 different types of viruses are known to cause the common cold, with most common being the rhinovirus causing approximately 30%-40% of all adult colds. Other commonly implicated viruses include coronavirus (COVID-19), adenovirus, respiratory syncytial virus, and parainfluenza virus.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Malaria is caused by Protozoa and not by virus.Incorrect
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Hepatitis C and Chicken Pox are caused by viruses.
Statement 3 is correct. Common cold is mostly caused by a number of different types of viruses. More than 200 different types of viruses are known to cause the common cold, with most common being the rhinovirus causing approximately 30%-40% of all adult colds. Other commonly implicated viruses include coronavirus (COVID-19), adenovirus, respiratory syncytial virus, and parainfluenza virus.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Malaria is caused by Protozoa and not by virus. -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with regard to Transgenic animals:
1.Their DNA has been manipulated by addition of a foreign gene.
2. Their trade across international borders is referred to as Biopiracy.
3.They can be used for testing vaccine safety and chemical safety.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Transgenic animals are those animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign) gene. Transgenic rats, rabbits, pigs, sheep, cows and fish have been produced, although over 95 per cent of all existing transgenic animals are mice.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The trade of Transgenic animals across international borders is not referred to as Biopiracy. Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment. For instance, some companies in the United States tried to patent a variety of Basmati rice, whose knowledge has been traditionally present in the rice communities of India since historical times.
Statement 3 is correct. Transgenic animals can be used for testing for vaccine safety as well as chemical safety.
Vaccine safety: Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are used on humans. Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of the polio vaccine. If successful and found to be reliable, they could replace the use of monkeys to test the safety of batches of the vaccine.
Chemical safety testing: This is known as toxicity/safety testing. The procedure is the same as that used for testing toxicity of drugs. Transgenic animals are made that carry genes which make them more sensitive to toxic substances than non-transgenic animals. They are then exposed to the toxic substances and the effects studied. Toxicity testing in such animals will allow us to obtain results in less time.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Transgenic animals are those animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign) gene. Transgenic rats, rabbits, pigs, sheep, cows and fish have been produced, although over 95 per cent of all existing transgenic animals are mice.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The trade of Transgenic animals across international borders is not referred to as Biopiracy. Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment. For instance, some companies in the United States tried to patent a variety of Basmati rice, whose knowledge has been traditionally present in the rice communities of India since historical times.
Statement 3 is correct. Transgenic animals can be used for testing for vaccine safety as well as chemical safety.
Vaccine safety: Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are used on humans. Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of the polio vaccine. If successful and found to be reliable, they could replace the use of monkeys to test the safety of batches of the vaccine.
Chemical safety testing: This is known as toxicity/safety testing. The procedure is the same as that used for testing toxicity of drugs. Transgenic animals are made that carry genes which make them more sensitive to toxic substances than non-transgenic animals. They are then exposed to the toxic substances and the effects studied. Toxicity testing in such animals will allow us to obtain results in less time. -
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 pointsThe web of the spider is made up of which among the following?
Correct
Spiders use their silk to make web. Spider silk is made out of protein.
Not only does spider silk combine the useful properties of high tensile strength and extensibility, it can be beautiful in its own right.
Silk is an amazing material. Golden silk orb-weavers, which are found in warm regions around the world – but not the UK, unfortunately – spin webs with a lovely golden sheen. Their silk has even been used to create a shimmering golden cape.
UK spiders tend to produce silk that is white or has a bluish hue.
There are seven different silk glands, which produce silk with different characteristics and uses. For example cribellate silk is very woolly.Incorrect
Spiders use their silk to make web. Spider silk is made out of protein.
Not only does spider silk combine the useful properties of high tensile strength and extensibility, it can be beautiful in its own right.
Silk is an amazing material. Golden silk orb-weavers, which are found in warm regions around the world – but not the UK, unfortunately – spin webs with a lovely golden sheen. Their silk has even been used to create a shimmering golden cape.
UK spiders tend to produce silk that is white or has a bluish hue.
There are seven different silk glands, which produce silk with different characteristics and uses. For example cribellate silk is very woolly. -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with regard to Wi-Fi calling:
1. It can reduce the problem of call drops.
2. It cannot be used in places which have weak cellular networks.
3. It requires an app to make a call.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. WiFi calling can reduce instances of call drops. Traditional GSM calls are prone to high levels of call drops due to interference and fluctuation in cellular signals. Since WiFi signals are relatively stable, the chances of call drops are low.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Wi-Fi Calling is aimed especially for areas where cellular networks are not strong. Thus WiFi calling can be used in areas with weak cellular network. It uses high speed Internet connection, available via broadband, to make and receive high definition (HD) voice calls.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Though Wi-Fi calling is not much different from a voice call using WhatsApp or any other over-the-top messaging platform, but here the call is from one number to another without using an app. Thus, an app like WhatsApp is not required in Wi-Fi calling.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. WiFi calling can reduce instances of call drops. Traditional GSM calls are prone to high levels of call drops due to interference and fluctuation in cellular signals. Since WiFi signals are relatively stable, the chances of call drops are low.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Wi-Fi Calling is aimed especially for areas where cellular networks are not strong. Thus WiFi calling can be used in areas with weak cellular network. It uses high speed Internet connection, available via broadband, to make and receive high definition (HD) voice calls.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Though Wi-Fi calling is not much different from a voice call using WhatsApp or any other over-the-top messaging platform, but here the call is from one number to another without using an app. Thus, an app like WhatsApp is not required in Wi-Fi calling. -
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the benefits that can accrue from the use of biotechnology in the agriculture sector?
1. Enhancement in the nutritional value of the food
2. Increase in the efficiency of mineral usage by plants
3. Reduction in the post-harvest losses
4. Increase in the tolerance of plants to increase in soil salinity
Select the correct answer using the code given below.Correct
Biotechnology can be used to introduce genetic modification in the plants/ crops to the effect that
1) The nutritional value of food can be increased, e.g., golden rice, i.e., Vitamin ‘A’ enriched rice. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
2) The efficiency of mineral usage by plants can be increased (this prevents early exhaustion of fertility of soil). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
3) The post-harvest losses can be reduced. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
4) They become more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat). Hence, statement 4 is correct.
5) Their reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops) gets reduced.Incorrect
Biotechnology can be used to introduce genetic modification in the plants/ crops to the effect that
1) The nutritional value of food can be increased, e.g., golden rice, i.e., Vitamin ‘A’ enriched rice. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
2) The efficiency of mineral usage by plants can be increased (this prevents early exhaustion of fertility of soil). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
3) The post-harvest losses can be reduced. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
4) They become more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat). Hence, statement 4 is correct.
5) Their reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops) gets reduced. -
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
1. Polymerase Chain Reaction can help in detecting the pathogen only when its concentration in the invaded body is very high.
2. Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay test relies on testing the presence of antigens or the antibodies synthesized against the pathogen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) can be used for early diagnosis of presence of an infection as it works by amplifying the small amounts of DNA of the pathogen. Very low concentration of a bacteria or virus (at a time when the symptoms of the disease are not yet visible) can be detected by amplification of their nucleic acid by PCR.
• PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
• It is being used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients too.
• It is a powerful technique to identify many other genetic disorders.
Statement 2 is correct. Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay (ELISA) test is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction. Infection by pathogen can be detected by the presence of antigens (proteins, glycoproteins, etc.) or by detecting the antibodies synthesised against the pathogen.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) can be used for early diagnosis of presence of an infection as it works by amplifying the small amounts of DNA of the pathogen. Very low concentration of a bacteria or virus (at a time when the symptoms of the disease are not yet visible) can be detected by amplification of their nucleic acid by PCR.
• PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
• It is being used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients too.
• It is a powerful technique to identify many other genetic disorders.
Statement 2 is correct. Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay (ELISA) test is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction. Infection by pathogen can be detected by the presence of antigens (proteins, glycoproteins, etc.) or by detecting the antibodies synthesised against the pathogen. -
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
1. Superconductors are materials that conduct electricity with no resistance.
2. Devices built with room temperature superconductors tend to be extremely efficient and entail large savings in both energy and costs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?Correct
What is superconductivity?
Superconductors are materials that conduct electricity with no resistance. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The temperature, at which the metals change from normal conducting state to superconducting state, is called critical temperature/transition temperature.
Advantage of superconductors:
Currently, superconductivity can only be achieved at temperatures far below zero, in processes that are too expensive for wider application. The devices have low power dissipation, high operating speed, and extreme sensitivity.
Devices built with room temperature superconductors tend to be extremely efficient and entail large savings in both energy and costs. Hence statement 2 is also correct.
Application: Superconductors already have drastically changed the world of medicine with the advent of MRI machines, which have meant a reduction in exploratory surgery.
Power utilities, electronics companies, the military, transportation, and theoretical physics have all benefited strongly from the discovery of these materials.Incorrect
What is superconductivity?
Superconductors are materials that conduct electricity with no resistance. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The temperature, at which the metals change from normal conducting state to superconducting state, is called critical temperature/transition temperature.
Advantage of superconductors:
Currently, superconductivity can only be achieved at temperatures far below zero, in processes that are too expensive for wider application. The devices have low power dissipation, high operating speed, and extreme sensitivity.
Devices built with room temperature superconductors tend to be extremely efficient and entail large savings in both energy and costs. Hence statement 2 is also correct.
Application: Superconductors already have drastically changed the world of medicine with the advent of MRI machines, which have meant a reduction in exploratory surgery.
Power utilities, electronics companies, the military, transportation, and theoretical physics have all benefited strongly from the discovery of these materials. -
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Solar Park Scheme:
1. It was launched by the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI).
2. It intends to encourage the construction of solar parks with capacity of 500 MW.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect: Solar Park scheme – Launched by the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) to encourage the construction of solar parks that can generate electricity between 500 MW and 1000 MW.
SECI is a Central PSU under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), set up on 20th Sept, 2011 to facilitate the implementation of JNNSM and achievement of targets set therein. It is the only CPSU dedicated to the solar energy sector.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect: Solar Park scheme – Launched by the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) to encourage the construction of solar parks that can generate electricity between 500 MW and 1000 MW.
SECI is a Central PSU under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), set up on 20th Sept, 2011 to facilitate the implementation of JNNSM and achievement of targets set therein. It is the only CPSU dedicated to the solar energy sector. -
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to EMV chip technology used in Debit and Credit cards
1. EMV chip technology is a global standard for card technology developed by Bank of International Settlements.
2. When a person uses EMV card, it generates a unique encrypted code which is specific and unique to that particular transaction only.
3. EMV chip cards are more secure than magnetic stripe cards.
Which of the statements given above are correct?Correct
EMV chip technology is the latest global standard for card payments. EMV is an acronym for Europay Mastercard and Visa, who developed this technology. EMV cards are chip-based payment cards with enhanced safety features that are designed to prevent fraudulent practices such as card skimming and cloning. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Old credit and debit cards store data on the magnetic stripe found on the reverse side of card. This makes it easy for a fraudster to copy data when a person swipe the card. EMV cards, in contrast, store data on a microprocessor chip embedded in the card. This means that the card generates fresh user data every time a person transacts, making it impossible for fraudsters to copy original data from the card.
The other feature of EMV cards is that they use both the card and a secret PIN to complete a transaction. When a person use EMV credit or debit card at a terminal, it generates a unique encrypted code called a token or cryptogram, which is unique and specific only to that transaction. Hence, statements 2 and 3 is correct.Incorrect
EMV chip technology is the latest global standard for card payments. EMV is an acronym for Europay Mastercard and Visa, who developed this technology. EMV cards are chip-based payment cards with enhanced safety features that are designed to prevent fraudulent practices such as card skimming and cloning. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Old credit and debit cards store data on the magnetic stripe found on the reverse side of card. This makes it easy for a fraudster to copy data when a person swipe the card. EMV cards, in contrast, store data on a microprocessor chip embedded in the card. This means that the card generates fresh user data every time a person transacts, making it impossible for fraudsters to copy original data from the card.
The other feature of EMV cards is that they use both the card and a secret PIN to complete a transaction. When a person use EMV credit or debit card at a terminal, it generates a unique encrypted code called a token or cryptogram, which is unique and specific only to that transaction. Hence, statements 2 and 3 is correct. -
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is correct with reference to recently launched Application Programming Interface Exchange (APIX)?
Correct
APIX (Application Programming Interface Exchange), is a banking technology platform designed to reach nearly two billion people worldwide who are still without bank accounts.
It was launched in the prestigious Fintech Festival. Designed by software experts based in Hyderabad, Colombo and London, APIX is a sophisticated technology developed by Boston-headquartered Virtusa, especially for smaller banks, Tier 3 and 4, to reach out to people in the remote regions.Incorrect
APIX (Application Programming Interface Exchange), is a banking technology platform designed to reach nearly two billion people worldwide who are still without bank accounts.
It was launched in the prestigious Fintech Festival. Designed by software experts based in Hyderabad, Colombo and London, APIX is a sophisticated technology developed by Boston-headquartered Virtusa, especially for smaller banks, Tier 3 and 4, to reach out to people in the remote regions. -
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the Outer Space Treaty:
1. It provides that states must not place weapons of mass destruction in Earth orbit or on celestial bodies.
2. Under the treaty, individual states are liable for damage caused by their space objects.
3. It forbids nations from claiming sovereignty over the moon or other celestial bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Outer Space Treaty, formally Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space, Including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies, (1967), is an international treaty binding the parties to use outer space only for peaceful purposes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following principles:
o the exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all mankind;
o outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States;
o outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means;
o States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner;
o the Moon and other celestial bodies shall be used exclusively for peaceful purposes; Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o astronauts shall be regarded as the envoys of mankind;
o States shall be responsible for national space activities whether carried out by governmental or non- governmental entities;
o States shall be liable for damage caused by their space objects; and Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o States shall avoid harmful contamination of space and celestial bodies.Incorrect
Outer Space Treaty, formally Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space, Including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies, (1967), is an international treaty binding the parties to use outer space only for peaceful purposes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following principles:
o the exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all countries and shall be the province of all mankind;
o outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States;
o outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means;
o States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner;
o the Moon and other celestial bodies shall be used exclusively for peaceful purposes; Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o astronauts shall be regarded as the envoys of mankind;
o States shall be responsible for national space activities whether carried out by governmental or non- governmental entities;
o States shall be liable for damage caused by their space objects; and Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o States shall avoid harmful contamination of space and celestial bodies. -
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Black Hole:
1. It is a region in the space where the pulling force of gravity is so strong that light is not able to escape.
2. A star with a mass less than or equal to Sun is more likely to become a black hole.
3. The Hubble Space Telescope (HT) had released the first-ever direct image of a black hole.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct: A black hole is a region in space where the pulling force of gravity is so strong that light is not able to escape. The strong gravity occurs because matter has been pressed into a tiny space. This compression can take place at the end of a star’s life. Some black holes are a result of dying stars. Because no light can escape, black holes are invisible. However, space telescopes with special instruments can help find black holes. They can observe the behavior of material and stars that are very close to black holes.
Statement 2 is not correct: Only stars with very large masses can become black holes. Sun, for example, is not massive enough to become a black hole. Stars of this type end their history as white dwarf stars. When a massive star runs out of nuclear fuel it can no longer sustain its own weight and begins to collapse. When this occurs the star heats up and some fraction of its outer layer, which often still contains some fresh nuclear fuel, activates the nuclear reaction again and explodes in what is called a supernova. The remaining innermost fraction of the star, the core, continues to collapse. Depending on how massive the core is, it may become either a neutron star and stop the collapse or it may continue to collapse into a black hole. The dividing mass of the core, which determines its fate, is about 2.5 solar masses. It is thought that to produce a core of 2.5 solar masses the ancestral star should begin with over 20 solar masses. A black hole formed from a star is called a stellar black hole.
Statement 3 is not correct: Scientists had finally revealed the first-ever direct images of a black hole’s event horizon using the Event Horizon Telescope. Event Horizon Telescope used eight radio observatories around the world to collect data. Scientists were able to capture silhouette of a black hole, revealing its shape based on the glowing ring around it.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: A black hole is a region in space where the pulling force of gravity is so strong that light is not able to escape. The strong gravity occurs because matter has been pressed into a tiny space. This compression can take place at the end of a star’s life. Some black holes are a result of dying stars. Because no light can escape, black holes are invisible. However, space telescopes with special instruments can help find black holes. They can observe the behavior of material and stars that are very close to black holes.
Statement 2 is not correct: Only stars with very large masses can become black holes. Sun, for example, is not massive enough to become a black hole. Stars of this type end their history as white dwarf stars. When a massive star runs out of nuclear fuel it can no longer sustain its own weight and begins to collapse. When this occurs the star heats up and some fraction of its outer layer, which often still contains some fresh nuclear fuel, activates the nuclear reaction again and explodes in what is called a supernova. The remaining innermost fraction of the star, the core, continues to collapse. Depending on how massive the core is, it may become either a neutron star and stop the collapse or it may continue to collapse into a black hole. The dividing mass of the core, which determines its fate, is about 2.5 solar masses. It is thought that to produce a core of 2.5 solar masses the ancestral star should begin with over 20 solar masses. A black hole formed from a star is called a stellar black hole.
Statement 3 is not correct: Scientists had finally revealed the first-ever direct images of a black hole’s event horizon using the Event Horizon Telescope. Event Horizon Telescope used eight radio observatories around the world to collect data. Scientists were able to capture silhouette of a black hole, revealing its shape based on the glowing ring around it. -
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 pointsVernalisation refers to which of the following given below?
Correct
In some plants such as Sugarbeet, Carrot and Cabbages flowering is either quantitatively or qualitatively dependent on exposure to low temperature. This phenomenon is termed vernalisation. Hence, Option (C) is correct.
It prevents precocious reproductive development late in the growing season, and enables the plant to have sufficient time to reach maturity.Incorrect
In some plants such as Sugarbeet, Carrot and Cabbages flowering is either quantitatively or qualitatively dependent on exposure to low temperature. This phenomenon is termed vernalisation. Hence, Option (C) is correct.
It prevents precocious reproductive development late in the growing season, and enables the plant to have sufficient time to reach maturity. -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Biofuels and the Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN Yojana,
1. Second generation biofuels use non-food crops and feedstock for fuel preparation.
2. PM JI-VAN Yojana will provide financial support to Integrated Bioethanol Projects.
3. The scheme will be implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Generation of biofuels:
First Generation Biofuels: It uses the food crops like wheat and sugar for making ethanol and oil seeds for bio diesel by conventional method of fermentation. Second Generation Biofuels: It uses non-food crops and feedstock such as Wood, grass, seed crops, organic waste are used in fuel preparation.
Third Generation Biofuels: It uses specially engineered Algae whose biomass is used to convert into biofuels. The greenhouse gas emission here will be low in comparison to others. Fourth Generation Biofuels: It aims not only to produce sustainable energy but also a way of capturing and storing CO2. Hence, statement 1 is correct.Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN (Jaiv Indhan- Vatavaran Anukool Fasal Awashesh Nivaran) Yojana –
The scheme under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas (MoP&NG) will provide financial support to Integrated Bioethanol Projects using lignocellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock. Hence, statement 3 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
It also seeks to increase Research & Development in this area. The ethanol produced by the scheme beneficiaries will be mandatorily supplied to Oil Companies (OMCs) to further enhance the blending percentage under Ethanol Blended Petrol Programme.5. Centre for High Technology (CHT), a technical body under the aegis of MoP&NG, will be the implementation agency for the scheme.Incorrect
Generation of biofuels:
First Generation Biofuels: It uses the food crops like wheat and sugar for making ethanol and oil seeds for bio diesel by conventional method of fermentation. Second Generation Biofuels: It uses non-food crops and feedstock such as Wood, grass, seed crops, organic waste are used in fuel preparation.
Third Generation Biofuels: It uses specially engineered Algae whose biomass is used to convert into biofuels. The greenhouse gas emission here will be low in comparison to others. Fourth Generation Biofuels: It aims not only to produce sustainable energy but also a way of capturing and storing CO2. Hence, statement 1 is correct.Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN (Jaiv Indhan- Vatavaran Anukool Fasal Awashesh Nivaran) Yojana –
The scheme under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas (MoP&NG) will provide financial support to Integrated Bioethanol Projects using lignocellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock. Hence, statement 3 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
It also seeks to increase Research & Development in this area. The ethanol produced by the scheme beneficiaries will be mandatorily supplied to Oil Companies (OMCs) to further enhance the blending percentage under Ethanol Blended Petrol Programme.5. Centre for High Technology (CHT), a technical body under the aegis of MoP&NG, will be the implementation agency for the scheme. -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bio-Bricks
1. The Bagasse from agricultural waste can be used to develop bio-bricks.
2. They can act as carbon sinks as they fix more carbon dioxide than they produce during their lifecycle.
3. While these bricks have a good insulation against heat but they lack good insulation to sound.
Which of the statements given above are correct?Correct
The researchers from IIT Hyderabad and School of Architecture, Bhubaneswar have developed bio-bricks from The Bagasse from agricultural waste .The product serves dual purposes of development of eco-friendly sustainable material and also waste management. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Significance
The bricks are made from agro-waste like wheat straw, paddy straw, sugarcane bagasse and cotton plant. Bio-bricks are more sustainable than clay bricks. They also act as carbon sinks as they fix more carbon dioxide than they produce during their lifecycle. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The bricks also provide good insulation to heat and sound. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. They help in maintaining humidity of buildings and make the house more suitable for hot-humid climates. The bricks will help in building climate change resilient homes. In India as 84 to 141 million tons of agricultural wastes are burnt causing severe air pollution, these steps help in reducing these incidents.Incorrect
The researchers from IIT Hyderabad and School of Architecture, Bhubaneswar have developed bio-bricks from The Bagasse from agricultural waste .The product serves dual purposes of development of eco-friendly sustainable material and also waste management. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Significance
The bricks are made from agro-waste like wheat straw, paddy straw, sugarcane bagasse and cotton plant. Bio-bricks are more sustainable than clay bricks. They also act as carbon sinks as they fix more carbon dioxide than they produce during their lifecycle. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The bricks also provide good insulation to heat and sound. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. They help in maintaining humidity of buildings and make the house more suitable for hot-humid climates. The bricks will help in building climate change resilient homes. In India as 84 to 141 million tons of agricultural wastes are burnt causing severe air pollution, these steps help in reducing these incidents. -
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using the coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction.
2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete.
3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only and does not contain any toxic elements.
Choose from the codes given belowCorrect
Fly Ash
Fly ash is ejected mostly by thermal power plants as by-products of coal burning operations.
Fly ash pollutes air and water and may cause heavy metal pollution in water bodies.
Fly ash affects crops and vegetation as a result of its direct deposition on leaf surfaces.Composition
Fly ash particles are oxide rich and consist of silica, alumina, oxides of iron, calcium, and magnesium and toxic heavy metals like lead, arsenic, cobalt, and copper.
Major oxides are present are aluminium silicate (in large amounts), silicon dioxide (SiO2) and calcium oxide (CaO). It also contains heavy toxic elements like arsenic, cobalt, lead etc.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.Uses
Cement can be replaced by fly ash up to 35%, thus reducing the cost of construction, making roads, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Fly ash bricks are light in weight and offer high strength and durability. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Fly ash is a better fill material for road embankments and in concrete roads.
Fly ash can be used in the reclamation of wastelands.
Abandoned mines can be filled up with fly ash.
Fly ash can increase crop yield when added to the soil. But if it gets deposited on the leaf, it will reduce photosynthesis.
It also enhances the water holding capacity of the land.Policy measures of MoEF
The Ministry of Environment and Forests has made it mandatory to use Fly Ash-based products in all construction projects, road embankment works, and low lying landfilling works within 100 km radius of Thermal Power Station and mine filling activities within 50 km radius of Thermal Power Station.Incorrect
Fly Ash
Fly ash is ejected mostly by thermal power plants as by-products of coal burning operations.
Fly ash pollutes air and water and may cause heavy metal pollution in water bodies.
Fly ash affects crops and vegetation as a result of its direct deposition on leaf surfaces.Composition
Fly ash particles are oxide rich and consist of silica, alumina, oxides of iron, calcium, and magnesium and toxic heavy metals like lead, arsenic, cobalt, and copper.
Major oxides are present are aluminium silicate (in large amounts), silicon dioxide (SiO2) and calcium oxide (CaO). It also contains heavy toxic elements like arsenic, cobalt, lead etc.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.Uses
Cement can be replaced by fly ash up to 35%, thus reducing the cost of construction, making roads, etc. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Fly ash bricks are light in weight and offer high strength and durability. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Fly ash is a better fill material for road embankments and in concrete roads.
Fly ash can be used in the reclamation of wastelands.
Abandoned mines can be filled up with fly ash.
Fly ash can increase crop yield when added to the soil. But if it gets deposited on the leaf, it will reduce photosynthesis.
It also enhances the water holding capacity of the land.Policy measures of MoEF
The Ministry of Environment and Forests has made it mandatory to use Fly Ash-based products in all construction projects, road embankment works, and low lying landfilling works within 100 km radius of Thermal Power Station and mine filling activities within 50 km radius of Thermal Power Station. -
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
1. The major drawback of Plutonium waste is that when dumped underground, they contaminate water table.
2. Plutonium Dioxide is relatively stable as compared to other radioactive materials and dissolves in water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The unstable radioactive dangerous plutonium that is predominantly used in nuclear applications are tricky to transport, store and dispose.
The scientists were in the process of creating Plutonium Dioxide as it is relatively stable as compared to other radioactive materials. It does not dissolve in water. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect
The major drawback of Plutonium waste is that when dumped underground, they contaminate water table to a radius of 10 km. Hence, statement 1 is correct.Incorrect
The unstable radioactive dangerous plutonium that is predominantly used in nuclear applications are tricky to transport, store and dispose.
The scientists were in the process of creating Plutonium Dioxide as it is relatively stable as compared to other radioactive materials. It does not dissolve in water. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect
The major drawback of Plutonium waste is that when dumped underground, they contaminate water table to a radius of 10 km. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Leaderboard: 21st March 2022 | Nikaalo Prelims- Science and Technology Test 1: Basic Science; New Technologies in News; Biotechnology.
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