Only statement 2 is correct, 1 and 3 is not correct.
Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010
• Foreign funding of persons in India is regulated under FCRA Act and is implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Individuals are permitted to accept foreign contributions without permission of MHA. However, the monetary limit for acceptance of such foreign contributions shall be less than Rs. 25,000.
• The Act ensures that the recipients of foreign contributions adhere to the stated purpose for which such contribution has been obtained.
• Under the Act, organisations are required to register themselves every five years.
Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Act, 2020:
• Prohibition to accept foreign contribution: The Act bars public servants from receiving foreign contributions. Public servant includes any person who is in service or pay of the government, or remunerated by the government for the performance of any public duty. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Transfer of foreign contribution: The Act prohibits the transfer of foreign contribution to any other person not registered to accept foreign contributions.
• Aadhaar for registration: The Act makes Aadhaar number mandatory for all office bearers, directors or key functionaries of a person receiving foreign contribution, as an identification document.
• FCRA account: The Act states that foreign contribution must be received only in an account designated by the bank as FCRA account in such branches of the State Bank of India, New Delhi.
• Surrender of certificate: The Act allows the central government to permit a person to surrender their registration certificate. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is not correct.
Protection of Women from Sexual Harassment (POSH) Act, 2013:
The Supreme Court in a landmark judgement in the Vishakha and others v State of Rajasthan 1997 case gave ‘Vishakha guidelines’. These guidelines formed the basis for the The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 (“Sexual Harassment Act”).
• The Act defines sexual harassment at the workplace and creates a mechanism for redressal of complaints. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Every employer is required to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee at each office or branch with 10 or more employees. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Complaints Committees have the powers of civil courts for gathering evidence. Hence statement 3 is NOT correct.
• The Complaints Committees are required to provide for conciliation before initiating an inquiry if requested by the complainant.
• Penal Provisions: Penalties have been prescribed for employers. Non-compliance with the provisions of the Act shall be punishable with a fine.
• Repeated violations may lead to higher penalties and cancellation of license or registration to conduct business.

Statement 1 is not correct, 2 and 3 are correct.
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
• Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (FSS Act).
• Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the administrative Ministry of FSSAI. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Functions:
• Framing of regulations to lay down the standards and guidelines of food safety. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Granting FSSAI food safety license and certification for food businesses.
• Laying down procedure and guidelines for laboratories in food businesses.
• To provide suggestions to the government in framing the policies.
• Promote general awareness about food safety and food standards.
• The FSSAI comprises of a Chairperson and twenty two members out of which one – third are to be women.
• The Chairperson of FSSAI is appointed by the Central Government.
Recent initiatives
• Heart Attack Rewind – It is the first mass media campaign of FSSAI. It is aimed to support FSSAI’s target of eliminating trans-fat in India by the year 2022. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Statement 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is not correct.
Witness Protection Scheme 2018:
• The scheme is India’s first Witness Protection Scheme, aimed at providing appropriate protection to the witnesses by the State.
• The scheme identifies three categories of witnesses as per threat perception:
Category A: Those cases where threat extends to the life of witness or family members during the investigation, trial or even thereafter.
Category B: Those cases where the threat extends to safety, reputation or property of the witness or family members during the investigation or trial.
Category C: Cases where the threat is moderate and extends to harassment or intimidation of the witness or his family members, reputation or property during the investigation, trial or thereafter.
• The scheme provides for Witness Protection Fund: The expenses for the programme will be met from this fund. The states will make annual budgetary allocation for the fund. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The scheme calls for preparation of a ‘Threat Analysis Report’ of the witness by the Commissioner/SSP when witness applies for protection. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Commissioner of Police in Commissionerate/ SSP in District Police investigating the case shall categorize the threat. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Witness Protection Order: It is an order passed by the Competent Authority and it will be implemented by the Witness Protection Cell of the State/UT. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Change of Identity in appropriate cases, where there is a request from the witness for the change of identity.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is not correct.
Defence Acquisition Council
• The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), the highest decision-making body in the Defence Ministry. It was constituted for overall guidance of the defence procurement planning process. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The DAC was formed after the Group of Minister’s recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post-Kargil War (1999). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The DAC is headed by the Minister of Defence. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Mandate: to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the Armed Forces in terms of capabilities sought, and time frame prescribed, by optimally utilizing the allocated budgetary resources.
• Key function: The DAC is entrusted with deciding on new policies and capital acquisitions for-
1. The three services (Army, Navy and Air Force) and
2. The Indian Coast Guard.

Statement 2 is correct, 1 is not correct.
Fundamental rights to Armed Forces
• Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or ‘abrogate’ the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies, and analogous forces. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The objective of this provision is to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline among them.
• The power to make laws under Article 33 is conferred only on Parliament and not on state legislatures. Any such law made by Parliament cannot be challenged in any court on the ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights.
• Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Army Act (1950), the Navy Act (1950), the Air Force Act (1950), the Police Forces (Restriction of Rights) Act, 1966, the Border Security Force Act, etc.
• The expression members of the armed forces’ also covers such employees of the armed forces as barbers, carpenters, mechanics, cooks, chowkidars, bootmakers, tailors who are non-combatants. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Statement 2 is not correct, 1 and 3 are correct.
Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958:
• It confers certain special powers on members of the Armed Forces (military forces, air forces operating on the ground as land forces and any other armed forces of the Union (CRPF, BSF, ITBP etc) for carrying out proactive operations against the insurgents in a highly hostile environment.
• They have the authority to prohibit a gathering of five or more persons in an area.
Provisions:
Under Section 3, the Central Government or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• An area can be disturbed due to differences or disputes between members of different religious, racial, language or regional groups or castes or communities.
• Section 4 gives the Army powers to search premises and make arrests without warrants, to use force even to the extent of causing death, destroy arms/ammunition dumps, fortifications/shelters/hideouts and to stop, search and seize any vehicle. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Section 6 stipulates that arrested persons and the seized property are to be made over to the police with the least possible delay. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Section 7 offers protection of persons acting in good faith in their official capacity.
• The prosecution is permitted only after the sanction of the Central Government.

All the statements are correct.
Criminal Procedure (Identification) Bill, 2022
• It would allow the police and prison authorities to collect, store and analyse physical and biological samples, including retina and iris scans. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Resistance to or refusal to allow the taking of measurements under this Act shall be deemed to be an offence under section 186 of the Indian Penal Code.
• It will also seek to apply these provisions to persons held under any preventive detention law.
• It also authorises for taking measurements of convicts and “other persons” for identification and investigation in criminal matters.
Power to Record Measurement:
• Police personnel up to the rank of Head Constable have been authorised to record the measurements. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) will be the repository of physical and biological samples, signature and handwriting data that can be preserved for at least 75 years. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• NCRB has also been empowered to share the records with any other law enforcement agency.

Statements 1 is not correct, 2 and 3 are correct.
What is Plea Bargaining?
• Through plea bargaining a person gets a lesser punishment by pleading guilty to a less serious offence.
• Unlike in the U.S. and other countries, where the prosecutor plays a key role in bargaining with the suspected offender, the Indian code makes plea bargaining a process that can be initiated only by the accused; further, the accused will have to apply to the court for invoking the benefit of bargaining.
• Cases for which the practice is allowed are limited.
• Only someone who has been charge sheeted for an offence that does not attract the death sentence, life sentence or a prison term above seven years can make use of the scheme under Chapter XXI-A.
• It is also applicable to private complaints of which a criminal court has taken cognisance.
• Other categories of cases that cannot be disposed of through plea bargaining are those that involve offences affecting the “socio-economic conditions” of the country, or committed against a woman or a child below the age of 14.

Statement 3 is correct, 1 and 2 are not correct.
Bye-Elections in India
• Bye-elections refer to such elections that are conducted to fill previously elected offices that have fallen vacant, before the completion of tenure of such elected offices.
• They derive their legitimacy in India from the Representation of People Act (RPA), 1951 where the term ‘Bye-election’ finds its mention. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• A member elected by a bye-election will have a term of office equal to the remaining tenure of the preceding member. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• As per section 151-A of the Representation of People Act (RPA),1951, a by-election should commence or be conducted within 6 months from the occurrence of vacation of a seat or declaration of vacation of a seat or declaration of the election to a seat as void. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The procedure for conducting a bye-election is similar to that of the General election.
• However, there are certain exceptions to this basic rule set out by Section 151-A of RPA,1951. These exceptions have been mentioned in the case A.P.Ranganatha V. Chief Election Commissioner. These are as follows:
1. When the remaining tenure of the member concerning the vacancy is less than 1 year.
2. When the Election Commission of India (ECI), in consultation with the Central Government certifies that it is difficult to hold bye-elections within that time constraint.

National Security Act, 1980
• The NSA is a preventive detention law.
• Preventive Detention involves the detainment (containment) of a person in order to keep him/her from committing future crimes and/or from escaping future prosecution.
• Article 22 (3) (b) of the Constitution allows for preventive detention and restriction on personal liberty for reasons of state security and public order.
• The NSA empowers the Centre or a State government to detain a person to prevent him from acting in any manner prejudicial to national security.
• The government can also detain a person to prevent him from disrupting public order or for maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community.

Both statements are correct
An RNOR is a non-resident Indian who:
• Has been an NRI in 9 out of the 10 previous years preceding to that year, OR
• Has, during the 7 previous years preceding that year, been in India for a period of, or periods amounting in all to 729 days or less. OR
• An Indian Citizen, who is not a tax resident of any other country, and having a total income of Rs 15 lakh and more (Excluding income from foreign sources) OR
• An Indian Citizen, or a PIO, having Income in India of Rs 15 lakh or more (Excluding Income from foreign sources), and the period of stay in India was 120 days and more but less than 182 days.

Statements 1 and 4 are correct, 2 and 3 are not correct.
Katchatheevu Island
• Katchatheevu is an uninhabited islet in the Palk Strait (Hence statement 2 is not correct.) that was formed due to volcanic eruption in the 14th century. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• This 285-acre land was owned by the Raja of Ramanathapuram.
• Later, it became part of the Madras Presidency after the delimitation of Gulf of Mannar and Palk Strait during British rule between the then governments of Madras and Ceylon.
• During the British rule, it was administered jointly by India and Sri Lanka. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• This island is strategically important for fishing activities.
• In 1921, both Sri Lanka and India claimed this piece of land for fishing and the dispute remained unsettled.
• In 1974, then Prime Minister of India, Indira Gandhi ceded Katchatheevu to Sri Lanka under the “Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime agreement”. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Zoji La Pass
• Zoji La is a high mountain pass located in the Kargil district of Ladakh.
• The pass links Leh and Srinagar and provides an important link between Union Territories of Ladakh and Kashmir.
• Zoji la is known as the “Mountain Pass of Blizzards”.
• Zojila pass remains closed during winters due to heavy snowfall, cutting off Ladakh region from Kashmir.
• In 2018, the Zojila tunnel project was launched. The tunnel is Asia’s longest and strategic bi-directional tunnel, which will provide all-weather connectivity between Srinagar, Kargil and Leh.

In the UNEP Annual Frontier Report 2022 which is titled ‘Noise, Blazes and Mismatches’, Dhaka has been ranked as the noisiest city in the world.
Frontiers 2022
• Released by ➔ UN Environment Programme (UNEP).
• The report measured noise levels in 61 cities of the world.
Permissible sound levels
• According to the WHO’s recommendations, the permissible noise level limits are 55 dB for outdoor residential areas and 70 dB for commercial areas and where there’s traffic.
• WHO says that a sound with noise above 70 dB over a prolonged period of time can increase the risk of hearing loss.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is not correct.
Greater One-Horned Rhino
• The Greater One-Horned Rhino is one among the five different species of Rhino. The other four are: Black Rhino, White Rhino, Javan Rhino, Sumatran Rhino.
• Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India.
• Also known as Indian rhino, it is the largest of the rhino species.
• It is identified by a single black horn and a grey-brown hide with skin folds.
• They primarily graze, with a diet consisting almost entirely of grasses as well as leaves, branches of shrubs and trees, fruit, and aquatic plants.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is not correct.
Making Peace with Nature Report
• The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) has released the ‘Making Peace with Nature’ report, ahead of the fifth session of the UN Environment Assembly (UNEA-5).
• The Report explains how climate change, biodiversity loss and pollution add up to three self-inflicted planetary emergencies that are closely interconnected and put the well-being of current and future generations at unacceptable risk. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Suggestions in the report:
1. Human knowledge, ingenuity, technology and cooperation can transform societies and economies and secure a sustainable future.
2. Triple crises to be tackled together given their interdependence.
3. Governments to scale up action to meet the Paris Agreement goals.
4. Financial systems must be transformed to promote a shift towards sustainability.
5. Moving to circular economic systems.
• According to the report, society is not on course to achieve land degradation neutrality, Aichi Targets and targets of the Paris Agreement. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Major Reports by UNEP: Emission Gap Report, Adaptation Gap Report, Global Environment Outlook, Frontiers, Invest into Healthy Planet. Hence statement 3 is correct.

All the statements are correct.
IPCC’s Sixth Assessment Report
• The latest report has, for the first time, made an assessment of regional and sectoral impacts of climate change.
• It has included risks to, and vulnerabilities of, mega-cities around the world. For example, it has said Mumbai is at high risk of sea-level rise and flooding, while Ahmedabad faces serious danger of heat-waves.
• For the first time, the IPCC report has looked at the health impacts of climate change.
• It has found that climate change is increasing vector-borne and water-borne diseases such as malaria or dengue, particularly in sub-tropical regions of Asia.
• It has also said deaths related to circulatory, respiratory, diabetic and infectious diseases, as well as infant mortality, are likely to increase with a rise in temperature.
India specific study:
• The report identifies India as one of the vulnerable hotspots, with several regions and important cities facing very high risk of climate disasters such as flooding, sea-level rise and heat-waves. Mumbai is at high risk of sea-level rise and flooding.
• Several cities, including Chennai, Bhubaneswar, Patna and Lucknow, are approaching dangerous levels of heat and humidity.

Both statements are not correct.
Blue Carbon Ecosystem
• The coastal ecosystems of mangroves, tidal marshes, and seagrass meadows provide numerous benefits and services that are essential for climate change adaptation along coasts globally, including protection from storms and sea-level rise, prevention of shoreline erosion, regulation of coastal water quality, provision of habitat for commercially important fisheries and endangered marine species, and food security for many coastal communities.
• Additionally, these ecosystems sequester and store significant amounts of coastal blue carbon from the atmosphere and ocean and hence are now recognized for their role in mitigating climate change.
• The Coastal Blue Carbon Ecosystems are very efficient at sequestering and storing carbon- each square mile of these systems can remove carbon from the atmosphere and oceans at a rate higher than each square mile of a tropical forest. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Blue Carbon Initiative is the first integrated program focused on mitigating climate change by conserving, restoring, and promoting sustainable use of coastal marine ecosystems globally.
• The Initiative currently focuses on mangroves, tidal marshes, and seagrasses.
• It is an international collaborative effort of the Conservation International, International Union for Conservation of Nature, and the Intergovernmental Oceanic Commission of the UNESCO. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is not correct.
Zero Liquid Discharge approach
• It is a technique used for the treatment of industrial waters, while many water treatment processes attempt to maximize recovery of freshwater and minimize waste Zero liquid discharge (ZLD) is an engineering approach to water treatment where all water is recovered and contaminants are reduced to solid waste. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It works on the basic principle of Reverse Osmosis (R.O.) by treating industrial and produced waters with high organics and solvents while maintaining membrane integrity. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Wastewater is converted into solids for disposal. It has the potential for recovering resources that are present in wastewater. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• ZLD is targeted by many organisations for their waste because they can sell the solids that are produced or reuse them as a part of their industrial process By operating an in-house ZLD plant.