Both statements are CORRECT.
The Centre has amended over a 50-year-old rule to allow IAS, IPS and IFoS officers to retain gifts received from foreign dignitaries while being members of the Indian delegation, according to an official Order.
Existing rules allowed these officers to accept gifts from their near relatives or from personal friends having no official dealings with them, on occasions such as weddings, anniversaries, funerals and religious functions when the making of gifts is in conformity with the prevailing religious and social practice.
But they shall make a report to the government if the value of such gift exceeds ₹25,000, the rules say.

In a recent affidavit, the Delhi High Court was informed that the PM CARES Fund is not a Government of India fund and that the amount collected by it does not go to the Consolidated Fund of India is strange.
The PM-CARES Fund was not subject to CAG audit since the Supreme Court regarded it as a public charitable trust. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
PM CARES Fund
• The PM CARES Fund was created on 28 March 2020 following the COVID-19 pandemic in India.
• The fund will be used for combat, containment and relief efforts against the coronavirus outbreak and similar pandemic like situations in the future.
• The PM is the chairman of the trust. Members will include the defence, home and finance ministers. Hence statement 3 and 4 are CORRECT.
• The fund will also enable micro-donations. The minimum donation accepted is ₹10 (14¢ US).
The amount collected does not go to either the Consolidated or Contingency Fund of India. Hence statement 2 is NOT CORRECT.

IndEA
Aim: To establish best-in-class architectural governance, processes and practices with optimal utilization of ICT infrastructure and applications to offer ONE Government experience to the citizens and businesses.
• India Enterprise Architecture (IndEA) is a way to establish Unity in Diversity in the domain of e-Governance.
• It is a framework that enables the development and implementation of Enterprise Architectures independently and in parallel by all governments and their agencies across India, conforming to the same models and standards. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.
• It enables planned development through architecture thinking.
• It is led by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. Hence statement 1 is NOT CORRECT.

Only statements 2 and 3 are CORRECT.
Inner Line Permit (ILP) System
• ILP is a document that Indian citizens from other states are required to possess in order to enter states like Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Manipur (NOT Meghalaya). Hence statement 1 is NOT CORRECT.
• It is issued by the concerned State Government and can be issued for travel purposes solely. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.
• Such states are exempted from provisions of the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA). The CAA, which relaxes eligibility criteria for certain categories of migrants from three countries seeking Indian citizenship, exempts certain categories of areas, including those protected by the Inner Line system. Hence statement 3 is CORRECT.

Only statement 1 and 3 are CORRECT.
Autonomous District Councils
• As per the Sixth Schedule, the four states viz. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram contain the Tribal Areas which are technically different from the Scheduled Areas. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
• Though these areas fall within the executive authority of the state, provision has been made for the creation of the District Councils and regional councils for the exercise of the certain legislative and judicial powers.
• Each district is an autonomous district and Governor can modify / divide the boundaries of the said Tribal areas by notification. Hence statement 2 is NOT CORRECT.
• The Councils have also been endowed with wide civil and criminal judicial powers, for example establishing village courts etc. Hence statement 3 is CORRECT.
• However, the jurisdiction of these councils is subject to the jurisdiction of the concerned High Court.

Both statements are CORRECT.
Tied and Untied Grants
• Out of the total Grant-in-aid allocated for Panchayati Raj institutions, 60% is ‘Tied Grant’ as per the recommendations of the Fifteenth Finance Commission. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
• Tied grants are meant to ensure availability of additional funds to the Rural local bodies over and above the funds allocated by the Centre.
• They can be used for improving the sanitation and maintenance of Open-Defecation Free (ODF) status and supply of drinking water, rain water harvesting and water recycling under the Centrally Sponsored Schemes.
• Remaining 40% is ‘Untied Grant’ and is to be utilized at the discretion of the Panchayati Raj institutions for location specific needs, except for payment of salaries. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.

Only statement 2 is CORRECT.
Airspace Map of India
• An airspace map of India has been recently launched by the Ministry of Civil Aviation for drone operations.
• This will allow civilian drone operators to check the demarcated no-fly zones or where they need to undergo certain formalities before flying a drone. Hence statement 1 is NOT CORRECT.
The interactive map displays red, yellow and green zones across India.
The Green zone on the map is the airspace up to 400 ft that has not been termed as a red zone or a yellow zone, and up to 200 ft above the area situated between 8 km – 12 km from the airport’s perimeter.
The Yellow zone on the map is the airspace up to 400 ft in a designated green zone, and above 200 ft in the area situated between 8 km – 12 km from the operational airport’s perimeter, and above ground in the area situated between 5 km – 8 km from the perimeter of an airport.
The Red zone on the map is the ‘no-drone zone’ within which drones can be operated only after getting permission from the Centre. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.

The Election Commission has notified the updated list of registered political parties that included 2,796 registered unrecognised parties, at a time it has sought the power to deregister inactive parties.
Hence statement 1 is NOT CORRECT.
Deregistration of Political Parties
• ECI has the power to register parties under the Representation of the People Act,(RPA) 1951, but it does not have the power to deregister parties that are inactive.
• The ECI is not empowered to de-register parties on the grounds of violating the Constitution or breaching the undertaking given to it at the time of registration.
• A party can only be de-registered if its registration was obtained by fraud; if it is declared illegal by the Central Government; or if a party amends its internal Constitution and notifies the ECI that it can no longer abide by the Indian Constitution.
Need for de-registration
• It is suspected that several unrecognized parties may be engaged in money laundering, given the income tax exemptions they enjoy.
• Section 13A of the Income Tax Act, 1961 has given 100% exemption to political parties on its income from house property, income from other sources, capital gains and voluntary contributions received from any person however, subject to certain conditions. Hence statement 2 is NOT CORRECT.

Statements 2 and 3 are CORRECT.
Socio Economic and Caste Census 2011
• SECC was conducted for the 2011 Census of India. It is the first caste-based census since 1931 Census of India. Hence statement 1 is NOT CORRECT.
• The SECC 2011 was conducted in all states and union territories of India and the first findings were revealed on 3 July 2015 by Union Finance Minister Arun Jaitley.
• SECC 2011 is also the first paperless census in India conducted on hand-held electronic devices by the government in 640 districts.
• The rural development ministry has taken a decision to use the SECC data in all its programmes such as MGNREGA, National Food Security Act, and the DDU Grameen Kaushalya Yojana.
Since the Census falls under the Census Act of 1948, all data are considered confidential, whereas according to the SECC website, “all the personal information given in the SECC is open for use by Government departments to grant and/or restrict benefits to households.”
Hence statements 2 and 3 are CORRECT.

J&K heralds the ‘purple revolution’ of India by taking a lead in the lavender cultivation under the Aroma Mission in almost all the 20 districts of the Union Territory.

Shoonya Campaign
• It is an initiative to promote zero-pollution delivery vehicles by working with consumers and industry.
• The campaign aims to accelerate adoption of Electric Vehicles (EVs) in the urban deliveries segment and create consumer awareness about the benefits of zero-pollution delivery.

Much recently, Bihar Chief Minister has clarified that his party had not dropped the demand of special category status to Bihar.
Statements 1 and 2 are CORRECT.
Special Category Status (SCS) to States
• Special category status is a classification given by the Centre to assist development of states that face geographical and socio-economic disadvantages.
• It was first accorded in 1969 to Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Nagaland.
• This classification was done on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission in 1969. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.
Benefits available
• The Centre pays 90% of the funds required in a centrally-sponsored scheme to special category status states as against 60% or 75% in case of other states, while the remaining funds are provided by the state governments. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
• Unspent money does not lapse and is carried forward.
• Significant concessions are provided to these states in excise and customs duties, income tax and corporate tax.
It was based on the Gadgil formula. The parameters for SCS were:
a) Hilly Terrain;
b) Low Population Density and/or Sizeable Share of Tribal Population;
c) Strategic Location along Borders With Neigh¬bouring Countries;
d) Economic and Infrastructure Backwardness; and
e) Nonviable Nature of State finances.
The Fourteenth Finance Commission (2015) has done away with the ‘special category status’ for states, except for the Northeastern and three hill states. Hence statement 3 is NOT CORRECT.

Both statements are NOT CORRECT.
Former IPS officer Iqbal Singh Lalpura has been chosen as chairman of National Commission for Minorities.
https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/chandigarh/who-is-iqbal-singh-lalpura-the-former-cop-chosen-as-national-minorities-commission-head-7501050/
National Commission for Minorities (NCM)
• The Union Government set up the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. (Article 350-B deals with Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.) Hence statement 1 is NOT CORRECT.
• Original notification of 1993 was for five religious’ communities; Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis, Christians and Muslims.
• Later in 2014, Jains community was also added. Hence statement 2 is NOT CORRECT.

All statements are CORRECT.
Vice-President and Rajya Sabha Chairman M Venkaiah Naidu has said that disrupting parliamentary proceedings amount to contempt of the House and it cannot be claimed as a privilege by errant members.
Parliamentary Privileges
• These are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”.
• The Constitution (Article 105 for Parliament and Article 194 for State Assemblies) mentions two privileges, i.e. freedom of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
• When any of these rights and immunities are disregarded, the offence is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament. The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.
• Apart from the privileges as specified in the Constitution, the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides for freedom from arrest and detention of members under civil process during the continuance of the meeting of the House or of a committee thereof and forty days before its commencement and forty days after its conclusion. Hence statement 3 is CORRECT.

Recently at the UN, India has underlined the need for the international community to pay closer attention to the “illicit proliferation” of networks of nuclear weapons, their delivery systems, components and relevant technologies.
India and de-nuclearization
India has always batted for a universal commitment and an agreed global and non-discriminatory multilateral framework.
• It has outlined a working paper on Nuclear Disarmament submitted to the UN General Assembly in 2006.
• India participated in the Nuclear Security Summit process and has regularly participated in the International Conferences on Nuclear Security organised by the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
• India is also a member of the Nuclear Security Contact Group (but has signed off the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)).
• India is not a member of Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
• India has expressed its readiness to support the commencement of negotiations on a Fissile Material Cut-off Treaty (FMCT).
• India couldn’t join the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) due to several concerns raised by India.
• India has piloted an annual UNGA Resolution on “Measures to Prevent Terrorists from Acquiring Weapons of Mass Destruction” since 2002, which is adopted by consensus.
But India is a member of three of the four international export control groups. The Wassenaar Arrangement, or WA, is one of the world’s four major export control regimes, the other three being the Nuclear Suppliers Group, the Missile Technology Control Regime and the Australia Group.
Hence option (c) is CORRECT.

Only statement 1 is CORRECT.
Recently, India has won elections for membership of the Council of Administration (CA) and the Postal Operations Council (POC) of the Universal Postal Union (UPU). Hence statement 3 is NOT CORRECT.
Universal Postal Union (UPU)
• UPU was established by the Treaty of Bern in 1874.
• UPU is a United Nations specialized agency since 1948. Hence statement 1 is CORRECT.
• It is also the second-oldest international organization worldwide (oldest being the International Telecommunication Union founded in 1865). Hence statement 2 is NOT CORRECT.
• It is the primary forum for cooperation between postal sector players. It helps to ensure a truly universal network of up-to-date products and services.
• Any member country of the United Nations may become a member of the UPU. Any non-member country of the United Nations may become a UPU member provided that its request is approved by at least two-thirds of the member countries of the UPU.

International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)
• IFAD is a specialized international financial institution of the United Nations working in the field of poverty eradication in the rural areas of developing countries. Hence statement 1 is NOT CORRECT.
• It was created in 1977, which is the outcome of the World Food Conference of 1974. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.
• It works with marginalized and vulnerable groups such as farmers with small holdings, foresters, Pastoralists, Fishermen and small-scale entrepreneurs by giving them disaster preparedness, access to weather information, technology transfer and social learning.
• It has 177 member countries. India is also a member country. Hence statement 3 is CORRECT.

Both statements are NOT CORRECT.
News: The Union Government has appointed a union minister as Sherpa for the G20 summit.
Who are the Sherpas?
• A Sherpa is a personal representative of the leader of a member country at an international Summit meeting such as the G8, G20, the Nuclear Security Summit etc. Hence statement 1 is NOT CORRECT.
• The Sherpa engages in planning, negotiation and implementation tasks through the Summit.
• They coordinate the agenda, seek consensus at the highest political levels, and participate in a series of pre-Summit consultations to help negotiate their leaders’ positions.
• Sherpas are career diplomats or senior government officials appointed by the leaders of their countries.
• The term is derived from the Nepalese Sherpa people, who serve as guides for mountaineers in the Himalayas. Hence statement 2 is NOT CORRECT.

Only statements 2 and 3 are CORRECT.
Asian Development Bank (ADB)
• ADB is a regional development bank established in 1966 and is headquartered at Manila, Philippines. Hence statement 1 is NOT CORRECT.
• It is dedicated to reducing poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth, environmentally sustainable growth, and regional integration.
• Out of its 68 members, 49 are from within Asia.
• The UN is an official Observer of the ADB.
• It is modelled closely on the World Bank, and has a similar weighted voting system where votes are distributed in proportion with members’ capital subscriptions.
• ADB’s five largest shareholders are Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People’s Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%). Hence statement 4 is NOT CORRECT.

All statements are CORRECT.
G-33 Group of Countries
• The G33 (or the Friends of Special Products in agriculture) is a coalition of developing countries.
• It was established prior to the 2003 Cancun ministerial conference.
• The group has coordinated during the Doha Round of WTO negotiations, specifically in regard to agriculture.
• Dominated by India, the group seeks to limit the degree of market opening required of developing countries, especially with regard to agriculture.
• There are currently 47 member nations.