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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to None of the Above (NOTA) option in elections in India-
- Re-elections are carried out in a case NOTA gets the highest votes.
- At present NOTA option is not allowed in the Rajya Sabha elections.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/more-psychological-than-an-empowering-voter-option/article30915956.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/nota-cannot-be-permitted-in-rajya-sabha-polls-says-supreme-court/article24743042.ece
Option 1 is not correct.
NOTA in India is a toothless option;, former Chief Election Commissioner of India S.Y. Quraishi, had observed in an article: “Even if there are 99 NOTA votes out of a total of 100, and candidate X gets just one vote, X is the winner, having obtained the only valid vote. The rest will be treated as invalid or ‘no votes’.
Option 2 is correct.
A Bench of the SC held that the NOTA option is meant only for universal adult suffrage and direct elections and not polls held by the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote as done in the Rajya Sabha.Incorrect
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/more-psychological-than-an-empowering-voter-option/article30915956.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/nota-cannot-be-permitted-in-rajya-sabha-polls-says-supreme-court/article24743042.ece
Option 1 is not correct.
NOTA in India is a toothless option;, former Chief Election Commissioner of India S.Y. Quraishi, had observed in an article: “Even if there are 99 NOTA votes out of a total of 100, and candidate X gets just one vote, X is the winner, having obtained the only valid vote. The rest will be treated as invalid or ‘no votes’.
Option 2 is correct.
A Bench of the SC held that the NOTA option is meant only for universal adult suffrage and direct elections and not polls held by the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote as done in the Rajya Sabha. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsWho releases the World Air Quality Report?
Correct
https://www.civilsdaily.com/news/world-air-quality-report-2019/
The World Air Quality Report is released by the pollution tracker IQAir and Greenpeace.
The report focuses on PM2.5 as a representative measure of air pollution.
According to the 2019 report India accounts for two-thirds of the world’s most polluted cities — 21 of the most polluted 30 cities; 14 of the highest 20; and 6 of the highest 10 — in the report.
Incorrect
https://www.civilsdaily.com/news/world-air-quality-report-2019/
The World Air Quality Report is released by the pollution tracker IQAir and Greenpeace.
The report focuses on PM2.5 as a representative measure of air pollution.
According to the 2019 report India accounts for two-thirds of the world’s most polluted cities — 21 of the most polluted 30 cities; 14 of the highest 20; and 6 of the highest 10 — in the report.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsWhat are the implications of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) placing the country/jurisdiction on ‘Grey List’?
- It construes that the country has committed to resolving swiftly the identified strategic deficiencies within agreed timeframes.
- The jurisdiction/country is subject to increased monitoring.
- Application of enhanced due diligence to be applied to these jurisdictions by other jurisdiction.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
On February 21, FATF had placed Mauritius in the list of ‘jurisdictions under increased monitoring’, commonly referred to as the grey list.
Sebi observed that according to the FATF website, when jurisdiction is placed under increased monitoring, it construes that the country has committed to resolving swiftly the identified strategic deficiencies within agreed timeframes and is subject to increased monitoring.
“The FATF does not call for the application of enhanced due diligence to be applied to these jurisdictions but encourages its members to take into account this information in their risk analysis. The intermediaries should take note of the same,”
Incorrect
On February 21, FATF had placed Mauritius in the list of ‘jurisdictions under increased monitoring’, commonly referred to as the grey list.
Sebi observed that according to the FATF website, when jurisdiction is placed under increased monitoring, it construes that the country has committed to resolving swiftly the identified strategic deficiencies within agreed timeframes and is subject to increased monitoring.
“The FATF does not call for the application of enhanced due diligence to be applied to these jurisdictions but encourages its members to take into account this information in their risk analysis. The intermediaries should take note of the same,”
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following with respect to the Fundamental duties-
- 42nd Constitutional Amendment added Fundamental duties to the Constitution.
- Swaran Singh Committee had recommended their inclusion in the Constitution.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/rights-duties-and-the-constitution/article30915951.ece
Along with other changes 42nd Amendment also introduced the duties in the Constitution by adding Article 51A.
Swaran Singh Committee had recommended their inclusion in the Constitution.
Incorrect
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/rights-duties-and-the-constitution/article30915951.ece
Along with other changes 42nd Amendment also introduced the duties in the Constitution by adding Article 51A.
Swaran Singh Committee had recommended their inclusion in the Constitution.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsUnder which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
Correct
The Indian Constitution provides autonomy to tribal areas in matters of governance under the Fifth and Sixth Schedules, which is further fortified by the Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh & Ors (1997) judgment where the Supreme Court declared that the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining was null and void under the Fifth Schedule. The framework for the protection of the rights of tribal and indigenous people is further strengthened by the Recognition of Forest Rights Act, 2006 which protects the individual and community rights of tribal people in forest areas and their right to free and prior informed consent in event of their displacement and resettlement.
Incorrect
The Indian Constitution provides autonomy to tribal areas in matters of governance under the Fifth and Sixth Schedules, which is further fortified by the Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh & Ors (1997) judgment where the Supreme Court declared that the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining was null and void under the Fifth Schedule. The framework for the protection of the rights of tribal and indigenous people is further strengthened by the Recognition of Forest Rights Act, 2006 which protects the individual and community rights of tribal people in forest areas and their right to free and prior informed consent in event of their displacement and resettlement.
