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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Compensatory Afforestation Fund
(CAF), consider the following statements:1. The funds have been collected as compensation from the industry for razing forest land for business.
2. The National Compensatory Afforestation Fund has been established under the Contingency fund of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
CAMPA Act:To compensate for the loss of forest area and to maintain sustainability, the Government of India came up with a well-defined Act, known as CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority).
The law establishes the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India and a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
These Funds will receive payments for:
(i) compensatory afforestation,
(ii) net present value of forest (NPV), and
(iii) other project specific payments.
The National Fund will receive 10% of these funds, and the State Funds will receive the remaining 90%.
According to the Act’s provision, a company diverting forest land must provide alternative land to take up compensatory afforestation. For afforestation, the company should pay to plant new trees in the alternative land provided to the state. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Incorrect
Explanation
CAMPA Act:To compensate for the loss of forest area and to maintain sustainability, the Government of India came up with a well-defined Act, known as CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority).
The law establishes the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India and a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
These Funds will receive payments for:
(i) compensatory afforestation,
(ii) net present value of forest (NPV), and
(iii) other project specific payments.
The National Fund will receive 10% of these funds, and the State Funds will receive the remaining 90%.
According to the Act’s provision, a company diverting forest land must provide alternative land to take up compensatory afforestation. For afforestation, the company should pay to plant new trees in the alternative land provided to the state. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill 2019,
consider the following statements:1. It proposes a scheme to allow cashless treatment of victims
in a road accident during the golden hour.
2. It proposes to increase the minimum compensation for hit
and run cases.
3. The Bill requires the central government to constitute a Motor
Vehicle Accident Fund, to provide voluntary insurance cover
to all road users in India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Salient features of the Bill:Provisions related to increasing penalties of traffic violations, addressing issues on third-party insurance, regulation of cab aggregators and road safety are proposed in the amendment.
It proposes a scheme to allow cashless treatment of victims in a road accident during the golden hour. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
It proposes to increase the minimum compensation for hit and run cases. In case of the death, the compensation has been raised from 25,000 to 2 lakh rupees, and in case of grievous injury, it will be from 12,500 to 50,000 rupees. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The government will open motor driving training schools to impart skill trainings to drivers. The government will also give one crore rupees grant to those who want to open such training schools.
The Bill requires the central government to constitute a Motor Vehicle Accident Fund, to provide compulsory insurance cover to all road users in India. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Explanation
Salient features of the Bill:Provisions related to increasing penalties of traffic violations, addressing issues on third-party insurance, regulation of cab aggregators and road safety are proposed in the amendment.
It proposes a scheme to allow cashless treatment of victims in a road accident during the golden hour. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
It proposes to increase the minimum compensation for hit and run cases. In case of the death, the compensation has been raised from 25,000 to 2 lakh rupees, and in case of grievous injury, it will be from 12,500 to 50,000 rupees. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The government will open motor driving training schools to impart skill trainings to drivers. The government will also give one crore rupees grant to those who want to open such training schools.
The Bill requires the central government to constitute a Motor Vehicle Accident Fund, to provide compulsory insurance cover to all road users in India. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 pointsQ3. Angikaar campaign, which was recently seen in the news has
been launched for:Correct
Explanation
Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs announced “Angikaar”, a campaign for change management.The campaign will be rolled out in all Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) [PMAY (U)] cities. It will be initiated in all target cities on 2nd October 2019 and culminate on the occasion of Human Rights Day, 10th December, 2019. Angikaar has been launched for social behaviour change, focusing on issues such as water & energy conservation, waste management, health, tree plantation, sanitation and hygiene for beneficiaries of completed houses under PMAY (U), through community mobilisation. For this purpose, the campaign will converge with schemes/services of various urban missions and other central ministries dealing with these subjects. The convergence would especially focus on Ujjwala for gas connection and Ayushman Bharat for health insurance to the beneficiaries of PMAY (U).
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer
Incorrect
Explanation
Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs announced “Angikaar”, a campaign for change management.The campaign will be rolled out in all Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) [PMAY (U)] cities. It will be initiated in all target cities on 2nd October 2019 and culminate on the occasion of Human Rights Day, 10th December, 2019. Angikaar has been launched for social behaviour change, focusing on issues such as water & energy conservation, waste management, health, tree plantation, sanitation and hygiene for beneficiaries of completed houses under PMAY (U), through community mobilisation. For this purpose, the campaign will converge with schemes/services of various urban missions and other central ministries dealing with these subjects. The convergence would especially focus on Ujjwala for gas connection and Ayushman Bharat for health insurance to the beneficiaries of PMAY (U).
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the e-Course on Vulnerability Atlas
of India, consider the following statements:1. The objective of the course is to create awareness and understanding about natural hazards and help in the identification
of regions with high vulnerability.
2. It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Human Resource Development.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs has recently launched an e-Course on Vulnerability Atlas of India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.The objective of the course is to create awareness and understanding about natural hazards and help in the identification of regions with high vulnerability such as earthquakes, and landslides. The e-course would be a tool for effective and efficient disaster mitigation and management in the field of architecture, civil engineering, urban and regional planning, housing and infrastructure planning, construction engineering. The course would be offered by the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs in collaboration with the School of Planning & Architecture (SPA), New Delhi and Building Materials & Technology Promotion Council (BMTPC). Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Incorrect
Explanation
Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs has recently launched an e-Course on Vulnerability Atlas of India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.The objective of the course is to create awareness and understanding about natural hazards and help in the identification of regions with high vulnerability such as earthquakes, and landslides. The e-course would be a tool for effective and efficient disaster mitigation and management in the field of architecture, civil engineering, urban and regional planning, housing and infrastructure planning, construction engineering. The course would be offered by the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs in collaboration with the School of Planning & Architecture (SPA), New Delhi and Building Materials & Technology Promotion Council (BMTPC). Hence only statement 1 is correct.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Gooty Tarantula, consider the
following statements:1. It is endemic to the eastern Himalayas.
2. It is listed as vulnerable on IUCN Red List of Threatened
Species.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Researchers have recently sighted Gooty Tarantula for the first time beyond its known habitat in the Eastern Ghats. Its Common Name is Peacock Parachute Spider or Gooty Tarantula. The spider belonging to the genus Poecilotheria. This specie is endemic to India. It’s known habitat is in the Eastern Ghats, in degraded forests near Nandyal in Andhra Pradesh. Now researchers have sighted it for the first time beyond the Eastern Ghats in the Pakkamalai Reserve Forests near Gingee in Villupuram district, Tamil Nadu.Statement 2 is incorrect: It is listed as Critically Endangered on IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Researchers have recently sighted Gooty Tarantula for the first time beyond its known habitat in the Eastern Ghats. Its Common Name is Peacock Parachute Spider or Gooty Tarantula. The spider belonging to the genus Poecilotheria. This specie is endemic to India. It’s known habitat is in the Eastern Ghats, in degraded forests near Nandyal in Andhra Pradesh. Now researchers have sighted it for the first time beyond the Eastern Ghats in the Pakkamalai Reserve Forests near Gingee in Villupuram district, Tamil Nadu.Statement 2 is incorrect: It is listed as Critically Endangered on IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Major International Protocols- Initiatives Purpose
1. Bonn Challenge- to conserve migratory species within their migratory ranges.
2. Montreal Protocol – to protect the ozone layer.
3. Washington Convention- to protect endangered plants and animals.Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Explanation
Pair (1) is not correctly matched: The Bonn Challenge is a global movement launched on September 2, 2011 at a ministerial conference in Bonn to restore 150 million hectares of degraded and deforested land by 2020 and 350 million hectares by 2030. In January 2019, India became part of the “Bonn Challenge”. Union Environment Minister has recently announced that India has committed to rejuvenate 50 lakh hectares (5 million) of degraded land between 2021 and 2030.The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals, also known as the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) or the Bonn Convention, is an international agreement that aims to conserve migratory species within their migratory ranges.
Pair (2) is correctly matched: Montreal Protocol on substance that deplete the Ozone layer in an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion for example chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) that are present in our air-conditioners and refrigerators.
Pair (3) is correctly matched: The Washington Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora, more commonly known as CITES, aims at regulating the international trade of specimens of endangered animals and plants.
Tikdam- If you have followed the news in recent times, the Bonn Challenge is related to Forest Landscape Restoration. It is not related to Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals. Thus we can eliminate this option. Thus we can arrive at correct answer.
source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/india-to-restore-50-lakh-hectares-of-degraded-land-by-2030-prakash-javadekar/article29269482.eceIncorrect
Explanation
Pair (1) is not correctly matched: The Bonn Challenge is a global movement launched on September 2, 2011 at a ministerial conference in Bonn to restore 150 million hectares of degraded and deforested land by 2020 and 350 million hectares by 2030. In January 2019, India became part of the “Bonn Challenge”. Union Environment Minister has recently announced that India has committed to rejuvenate 50 lakh hectares (5 million) of degraded land between 2021 and 2030.The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals, also known as the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) or the Bonn Convention, is an international agreement that aims to conserve migratory species within their migratory ranges.
Pair (2) is correctly matched: Montreal Protocol on substance that deplete the Ozone layer in an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion for example chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) that are present in our air-conditioners and refrigerators.
Pair (3) is correctly matched: The Washington Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora, more commonly known as CITES, aims at regulating the international trade of specimens of endangered animals and plants.
Tikdam- If you have followed the news in recent times, the Bonn Challenge is related to Forest Landscape Restoration. It is not related to Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals. Thus we can eliminate this option. Thus we can arrive at correct answer.
source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/india-to-restore-50-lakh-hectares-of-degraded-land-by-2030-prakash-javadekar/article29269482.ece -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Mars solar conjunction, consider the
following statements:1. During Mars solar conjunction, Mars and Earth will be on opposite sides of the Sun.
2. It occurs every two years.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
During Mars solar conjunction, Mars and Earth will be on opposite sides of the Sun. Solar conjunction occurs every two years. The Sun expels hot, ionised gas from its corona, which extends far into space. During solar conjunction, this gas can interfere with radio signals when engineers try to communicate with spacecraft at Mars, corrupting commands and resulting in unexpected behaviour from those space explorers.To be safe, engineers hold off on sending commands when Mars disappears far enough behind the Sun’s corona that there’s increased risk of radio interference. This time, the hold on issuing commands — called a “command moratorium” — will run from August 28 to September 7.
Hence both statements are correct.
Incorrect
Explanation
During Mars solar conjunction, Mars and Earth will be on opposite sides of the Sun. Solar conjunction occurs every two years. The Sun expels hot, ionised gas from its corona, which extends far into space. During solar conjunction, this gas can interfere with radio signals when engineers try to communicate with spacecraft at Mars, corrupting commands and resulting in unexpected behaviour from those space explorers.To be safe, engineers hold off on sending commands when Mars disappears far enough behind the Sun’s corona that there’s increased risk of radio interference. This time, the hold on issuing commands — called a “command moratorium” — will run from August 28 to September 7.
Hence both statements are correct.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Gravitational Lensing, consider the
following statements:1. It is a natural phenomenon that magnifies light around galaxies.
2. The NASA program aimed at using gravitational lensing via
its Hubble telescope.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Gravitational Lensing is a natural phenomenon that magnifies light around galaxies. The phenomenon occurs when a huge amount of matter, such as a massive galaxy or cluster of galaxies, creates a gravitational field that distorts and magnifies the light from objects behind it, but in the same line of sight. This makes dim, faraway objects that otherwise would be undetectable, like an individual star, visible. The effect allows researchers to study the details of early galaxies too far away to be seen otherwise with even the most powerful space telescopes.Statement 2 is incorrect: The NASA program aimed at using gravitational lensing via its Webb telescope is called “Targeting Extremely Magnified Panchromatic Lensed Arcs and Their Extended Star Formation (TEMPLATES)”. Under it, researchers want to measure how many new stars are forming, to determine how rapidly galaxies form stars. The James Webb Space Telescope is set to launch in 2021.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/this-word-means-gravitational-lensing-5936335/
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Gravitational Lensing is a natural phenomenon that magnifies light around galaxies. The phenomenon occurs when a huge amount of matter, such as a massive galaxy or cluster of galaxies, creates a gravitational field that distorts and magnifies the light from objects behind it, but in the same line of sight. This makes dim, faraway objects that otherwise would be undetectable, like an individual star, visible. The effect allows researchers to study the details of early galaxies too far away to be seen otherwise with even the most powerful space telescopes.Statement 2 is incorrect: The NASA program aimed at using gravitational lensing via its Webb telescope is called “Targeting Extremely Magnified Panchromatic Lensed Arcs and Their Extended Star Formation (TEMPLATES)”. Under it, researchers want to measure how many new stars are forming, to determine how rapidly galaxies form stars. The James Webb Space Telescope is set to launch in 2021.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/this-word-means-gravitational-lensing-5936335/
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Clouded Leopard, consider the
following statements:1. It has been added to Recovery Programme for Critically
Endangered Species to aid more research and strengthen conservation efforts.
2. Namdapha National Park has one of the highest population densities of Clouded Leopard.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Historically, their range covered most of Southeast Asia from Nepal and southern China through Thailand, Indonesia, and Borneo. It is regionally extinct in Singapore and Taiwan’. In India, it occurs in north-east and West Bengal. It is the state animal of Meghalaya. Dampa tiger reserve in Mizoram has one of the highest population densities. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.Habitat is Subtropical/Tropical Moist Forests. Conservation status is IUCN-Vulnerable; CITES-Appendix I. In 2018, India added clouded leopards to its Recovery Programme for Critically Endangered Species to aid more research and strengthen conservation efforts. Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Incorrect
Explanation
Historically, their range covered most of Southeast Asia from Nepal and southern China through Thailand, Indonesia, and Borneo. It is regionally extinct in Singapore and Taiwan’. In India, it occurs in north-east and West Bengal. It is the state animal of Meghalaya. Dampa tiger reserve in Mizoram has one of the highest population densities. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.Habitat is Subtropical/Tropical Moist Forests. Conservation status is IUCN-Vulnerable; CITES-Appendix I. In 2018, India added clouded leopards to its Recovery Programme for Critically Endangered Species to aid more research and strengthen conservation efforts. Hence only statement 1 is correct.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsANUBHAV awards recently seen in the news, is an initiative
of:Correct
Explanation
The Anubhav portal was created on the call of Prime Minister in 2015 with a vision to preserve the rich experience of a retired official in digital form. It is an initiative of the Department of Pensions & Pensioners’ Welfare, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, Government of India. It is envisaged that their rich experience will be preserved for future generation to learn and explore knowledge on various aspects of governance, culture & development history of a particular region.An award scheme to incentivize and encourage more retiring employees to submit their write-ups was introduced in 2016. Since then, three annual awards ceremony have been organized. This was the fourth annual award in the series. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1582769
Incorrect
Explanation
The Anubhav portal was created on the call of Prime Minister in 2015 with a vision to preserve the rich experience of a retired official in digital form. It is an initiative of the Department of Pensions & Pensioners’ Welfare, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, Government of India. It is envisaged that their rich experience will be preserved for future generation to learn and explore knowledge on various aspects of governance, culture & development history of a particular region.An award scheme to incentivize and encourage more retiring employees to submit their write-ups was introduced in 2016. Since then, three annual awards ceremony have been organized. This was the fourth annual award in the series. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1582769
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Sterile Insect Technique (SIT),
consider the following statements:1. Under this, radiation sterilised male mosquitoes are released in areas with dengue causing female Aedes aegypti mosquitoes turning them infertile.
2. This is an environmentally friendly method to control mosquitoes as no pesticide is used.
3. This is an initiative of IAEA.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect: Bangladesh is studying the feasibility of applying Sterile Insect Technique (SIT) to control the dengue outbreak. A team of experts from WHO-FAO and IAEA arrived in Dhaka to discuss the feasibility of this technique. Sterile Insect Technique (SIT) is a ‘mosquito fights mosquito technique’. Under this, radiation sterilised male mosquitoes are released in areas with dengue causing female Aedes aegypti mosquitoes turning them infertile.Statement 2 is correct: This is an environmentally friendly method to control mosquitoes as no pesticide is used. This breakthrough technique has been tested successfully at two sites in Guangzhou in China.
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect: Bangladesh is studying the feasibility of applying Sterile Insect Technique (SIT) to control the dengue outbreak. A team of experts from WHO-FAO and IAEA arrived in Dhaka to discuss the feasibility of this technique. Sterile Insect Technique (SIT) is a ‘mosquito fights mosquito technique’. Under this, radiation sterilised male mosquitoes are released in areas with dengue causing female Aedes aegypti mosquitoes turning them infertile.Statement 2 is correct: This is an environmentally friendly method to control mosquitoes as no pesticide is used. This breakthrough technique has been tested successfully at two sites in Guangzhou in China.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following have been declared as renewable
energy sources in India?1. Ocean energy projects
2. Solar projects
3. Wind power projects
4. Large hydropower projectsSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Explanation
Minister of New and Renewable Energy has recently approved a proposal to declare ocean energy as Renewable Energy. The New and Renewable Energy Ministry has clarified to all stakeholders that energy produced using various forms of ocean energy such as tidal, wave and ocean thermal energy conversion will be considered as Renewable Energy. It will be eligible for meeting the non-solar Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPO). The decision will give a boost to ocean energy in the country.Technology: Ocean energy is mostly exploited following technologies –
Tidal Energy: The tidal cycle occurs every 12 hours due to the gravitational force of the moon. The difference in water height from low tide and high tide is potential energy.
Wave Energy: Wave energy is generated by the movement of a device either floating on the surface of the ocean or moored to the ocean floor.
Current Energy: Marine current is ocean water moving in one direction. This ocean current is known as the Gulf Stream. Tides also create currents that flow in two directions. Kinetic energy can be captured from the Gulf Stream and other tidal currents with submerged turbines
Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC): OTEC, uses ocean temperature differences from the surface to depths lower than 1,000 meters, to extract energy. A temperature difference of only 20°C can yield usable energy.As part of the new hydro policy, large hydropower projects have been declared as renewable energy sources, making them a part of the renewable purchase obligation. Of the targeted 175GW of RE (renewable energy) capacity by 2022, 100GW is to come from solar projects. It will comprise 60GW from ground-mounted, grid-connected projects, and 40GW from solar rooftop projects. Wind power projects will contribute 60GW. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Explanation
Minister of New and Renewable Energy has recently approved a proposal to declare ocean energy as Renewable Energy. The New and Renewable Energy Ministry has clarified to all stakeholders that energy produced using various forms of ocean energy such as tidal, wave and ocean thermal energy conversion will be considered as Renewable Energy. It will be eligible for meeting the non-solar Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPO). The decision will give a boost to ocean energy in the country.Technology: Ocean energy is mostly exploited following technologies –
Tidal Energy: The tidal cycle occurs every 12 hours due to the gravitational force of the moon. The difference in water height from low tide and high tide is potential energy.
Wave Energy: Wave energy is generated by the movement of a device either floating on the surface of the ocean or moored to the ocean floor.
Current Energy: Marine current is ocean water moving in one direction. This ocean current is known as the Gulf Stream. Tides also create currents that flow in two directions. Kinetic energy can be captured from the Gulf Stream and other tidal currents with submerged turbines
Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC): OTEC, uses ocean temperature differences from the surface to depths lower than 1,000 meters, to extract energy. A temperature difference of only 20°C can yield usable energy.As part of the new hydro policy, large hydropower projects have been declared as renewable energy sources, making them a part of the renewable purchase obligation. Of the targeted 175GW of RE (renewable energy) capacity by 2022, 100GW is to come from solar projects. It will comprise 60GW from ground-mounted, grid-connected projects, and 40GW from solar rooftop projects. Wind power projects will contribute 60GW. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the buyback shares, consider the
following statements:1. A buyback can be done only through tender offer route.
2. Buyback is usually done at a price higher than the then prevailing market price and shareholders get an attractive exit option.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: A buyback is a mechanism through which a listed company buys back shares from the market. A buyback can be done either through open market purchases or through the tender offer route. Under the open market mechanism, the company buys back the shares from the secondary market. Historically, most companies had preferred the open market route. Under tender offer, shareholders can tender their shares during the buyback offer.Statement 2 is correct: Buybacks are typically done when a company has a significant cash reserve and feels that the shares are not fairly valued at the current market price. Since the shares that are bought back are extinguished, the stake of the remaining shareholders rise. Since a buyback is usually done at a price higher than the then prevailing market price, shareholders get an attractive exit option, especially when the shares are thinly traded. It is also more tax-efficient than dividends as a way to reward shareholders. Promoters also use this mechanism to tighten their grip on the firm.
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: A buyback is a mechanism through which a listed company buys back shares from the market. A buyback can be done either through open market purchases or through the tender offer route. Under the open market mechanism, the company buys back the shares from the secondary market. Historically, most companies had preferred the open market route. Under tender offer, shareholders can tender their shares during the buyback offer.Statement 2 is correct: Buybacks are typically done when a company has a significant cash reserve and feels that the shares are not fairly valued at the current market price. Since the shares that are bought back are extinguished, the stake of the remaining shareholders rise. Since a buyback is usually done at a price higher than the then prevailing market price, shareholders get an attractive exit option, especially when the shares are thinly traded. It is also more tax-efficient than dividends as a way to reward shareholders. Promoters also use this mechanism to tighten their grip on the firm.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following statements best describes the
objective of ‘San-Sadhan’ Hackathon, recently in news?Correct
Explanation
‘San-Sadhan’ Hackathon is an initiative under the Swachh Bharat Mission to ease the lives of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan) by making toilets smarter, more accessible, and easier to use. The initiative is being organized jointly by the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, in collaboration with Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog, Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, and 91springboard. In this hackathon, the government is looking for smart, scalable and innovative solutions for economical toilets for individual and community use in rural and urban contexts. Technology enthusiasts have been called to apply by or before August 28th, 2019. The shortlisted applicants will work to develop their prototype during the two-day Hackathon scheduled to be held in the month of September in New Delhi. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=192768
Incorrect
Explanation
‘San-Sadhan’ Hackathon is an initiative under the Swachh Bharat Mission to ease the lives of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan) by making toilets smarter, more accessible, and easier to use. The initiative is being organized jointly by the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, in collaboration with Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog, Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, and 91springboard. In this hackathon, the government is looking for smart, scalable and innovative solutions for economical toilets for individual and community use in rural and urban contexts. Technology enthusiasts have been called to apply by or before August 28th, 2019. The shortlisted applicants will work to develop their prototype during the two-day Hackathon scheduled to be held in the month of September in New Delhi. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=192768
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Cabinet Secretary, consider the
following statements:1. Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil
Services Board.
2. National Authority, Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC)
is an office in the Cabinet Secretariat, Government of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex- officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. The business allocated to Cabinet Secretariat under Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 includes: (i) Secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and Cabinet Committees; and (ii) Rules of Business. Hence statement 1 is correct.The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/ Departments. The Secretariat assists in decision-making in Government by ensuring Inter-Ministerial coordination, ironing out differences amongst Ministries/Departments and evolving consensus. Management of major crisis situations in the country is also one of the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat.
National Authority for Chemical Weapons Convention or NACWC is an office in Cabinet Secretariat, Government of India, set up by a resolution of Cabinet Secretariat dated 5th May 1997 and was later accorded a statutory status through Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000. Hence statement 2 is correct.
News: http://www.newsonair.com/News?title=Rajiv-Gauba-appointed–new-Cabinet-Secretary&id=370469
Incorrect
Explanation
The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex- officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. The business allocated to Cabinet Secretariat under Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 includes: (i) Secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and Cabinet Committees; and (ii) Rules of Business. Hence statement 1 is correct.The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 facilitating smooth transaction of business in Ministries/ Departments. The Secretariat assists in decision-making in Government by ensuring Inter-Ministerial coordination, ironing out differences amongst Ministries/Departments and evolving consensus. Management of major crisis situations in the country is also one of the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat.
National Authority for Chemical Weapons Convention or NACWC is an office in Cabinet Secretariat, Government of India, set up by a resolution of Cabinet Secretariat dated 5th May 1997 and was later accorded a statutory status through Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000. Hence statement 2 is correct.
News: http://www.newsonair.com/News?title=Rajiv-Gauba-appointed–new-Cabinet-Secretary&id=370469
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the initiatives or joint effort
of the NITI Aayog?1. State Rooftop Solar Attractiveness Index (SARAL)
2. Agricultural Marketing and Farm Friendly Reforms Index
3. Women Transforming India (WTI) Awards 2019Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: SARAL has been designed collaboratively by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), Shakti Sustainable Energy Foundation (SSEF), Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM) and Ernst & Young (EY). The Index evaluates Indian states based on their attractiveness for rooftop development. SARAL currently captures five key aspects – Robustness of policy framework, Implementation environment, Investment climate, Consumer experience and Business ecosystem. Karnataka has been placed at the first rank in the Index. Telangana, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh have got 2nd, 3rd and 4th rank respectively.Statement 2 is correct: NITI Aayog brings out an Agricultural Marketing and Farm Friendly Reforms Index, rating States on their implementation of such reforms. In the initial edition of that Index in 2016, Maharashtra stood first in the rankings, followed by Gujarat. The index is based on the implementation of seven provisions proposed under the model APMC Act like joining e-NAM initiative, special treatment to fruits and vegetables for marketing and level of taxes in mandis.
Statement 3 is correct: Women Transforming India (WTI) Awards 2019 is a flagship initiative of NITI Aayog. Recently NITI Aayog and Facebook-owned WhatsApp, under the aegis of its Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP), have announced a partnership to support the growth of a robust ecosystem to promote women entrepreneurs in India. The WTI Awards, since its inception in 2016, has been recognising and celebrating stories of exemplary women from across India. The theme for WTI Awards 2019 is “Women and Entrepreneurship”.
News: http://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=192752
Incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: SARAL has been designed collaboratively by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), Shakti Sustainable Energy Foundation (SSEF), Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM) and Ernst & Young (EY). The Index evaluates Indian states based on their attractiveness for rooftop development. SARAL currently captures five key aspects – Robustness of policy framework, Implementation environment, Investment climate, Consumer experience and Business ecosystem. Karnataka has been placed at the first rank in the Index. Telangana, Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh have got 2nd, 3rd and 4th rank respectively.Statement 2 is correct: NITI Aayog brings out an Agricultural Marketing and Farm Friendly Reforms Index, rating States on their implementation of such reforms. In the initial edition of that Index in 2016, Maharashtra stood first in the rankings, followed by Gujarat. The index is based on the implementation of seven provisions proposed under the model APMC Act like joining e-NAM initiative, special treatment to fruits and vegetables for marketing and level of taxes in mandis.
Statement 3 is correct: Women Transforming India (WTI) Awards 2019 is a flagship initiative of NITI Aayog. Recently NITI Aayog and Facebook-owned WhatsApp, under the aegis of its Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP), have announced a partnership to support the growth of a robust ecosystem to promote women entrepreneurs in India. The WTI Awards, since its inception in 2016, has been recognising and celebrating stories of exemplary women from across India. The theme for WTI Awards 2019 is “Women and Entrepreneurship”.
News: http://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=192752
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the National Mission to improve Learning
Outcomes at the Elementary level (NISHTHA), consider the
following statements:1. It is the world’s largest students training programme of its kind in the world.
2. It aims for universal elementary education access and retention and enhancement of learning levels of children.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
National Mission to improve Learning Outcomes at the Elementary level (NISHTHA). NISHTHA is the world’s largest teachers’ training programme of its kind in the world. Its objective is to motivate and equip teachers to encourage and foster critical thinking in students. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.Under it, teachers will develop their skills on various aspects related to Learning Outcomes, School Safety and Security, ICT in teaching-learning including Artificial Intelligence, Environmental Concerns and School Based Assessment in a joyful learning manner. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect
It aims to build the capacities of around 42 lakh participants covering all teachers and Heads of Schools at the elementary level in all Government schools, faculty members of SCERTs, DIETs as well as Block Resource Coordinators and Cluster Resource Coordinators in all States/UTs.
Training will be conducted directly by 33120 Key Resource Persons (KRPs) and State Resource Persons (SRP) identified by the State and UTs, who will in turn be trained by 120 National Resource Persons identified from NCERT, NIEPA, Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS), Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS), CBSE and NGO.
News: http://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=192751
Incorrect
Explanation
National Mission to improve Learning Outcomes at the Elementary level (NISHTHA). NISHTHA is the world’s largest teachers’ training programme of its kind in the world. Its objective is to motivate and equip teachers to encourage and foster critical thinking in students. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.Under it, teachers will develop their skills on various aspects related to Learning Outcomes, School Safety and Security, ICT in teaching-learning including Artificial Intelligence, Environmental Concerns and School Based Assessment in a joyful learning manner. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect
It aims to build the capacities of around 42 lakh participants covering all teachers and Heads of Schools at the elementary level in all Government schools, faculty members of SCERTs, DIETs as well as Block Resource Coordinators and Cluster Resource Coordinators in all States/UTs.
Training will be conducted directly by 33120 Key Resource Persons (KRPs) and State Resource Persons (SRP) identified by the State and UTs, who will in turn be trained by 120 National Resource Persons identified from NCERT, NIEPA, Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS), Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS), CBSE and NGO.
News: http://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=192751
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Biosimilars, consider the following
statements:1. They are highly similar to the reference product in terms of safety, purity and potency, but may have minor differences in clinically inactive components.
2. They are medicines made through highly complex chemical manufacturing processes.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation
A biosimilar is exactly what its name implies — it is a biologic that is “similar” to another biologic medicine (known as a reference product).Biologics or biological products are medicines made from living organisms through highly complex manufacturing processes and must be handled and administered under carefully monitored conditions. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect
Biologics are used to prevent, treat or cure a variety of diseases including cancer, chronic kidney disease, diabetes, cystic fibrosis, and autoimmune disorders.
Biosimilars are highly similar to the reference product in terms of safety, purity and potency, but may have minor differences in clinically inactive components. Hence,Statement 1 is correct
India is one of the leading manufacturers of similar biologics. India developed a new guideline in 2012 for the pre- and post-marketing approval of similar biologics. The guidelines also address the regulation of manufacturing process as well as quality, safety, and efficacy of similar biologics.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/dr-reddys-launches-cancer-drug-in-india/article29161239.ece
Incorrect
Explanation
A biosimilar is exactly what its name implies — it is a biologic that is “similar” to another biologic medicine (known as a reference product).Biologics or biological products are medicines made from living organisms through highly complex manufacturing processes and must be handled and administered under carefully monitored conditions. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect
Biologics are used to prevent, treat or cure a variety of diseases including cancer, chronic kidney disease, diabetes, cystic fibrosis, and autoimmune disorders.
Biosimilars are highly similar to the reference product in terms of safety, purity and potency, but may have minor differences in clinically inactive components. Hence,Statement 1 is correct
India is one of the leading manufacturers of similar biologics. India developed a new guideline in 2012 for the pre- and post-marketing approval of similar biologics. The guidelines also address the regulation of manufacturing process as well as quality, safety, and efficacy of similar biologics.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/dr-reddys-launches-cancer-drug-in-india/article29161239.ece
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsThe power to increase the number of Judges in the
Supreme Court of India is vested in:Correct
Explanation
Against the backdrop of rising cases in the Supreme Court, the Union Cabinet approved increasing the number of judges in the Supreme court from the present 31 to 34, including the Chief Justice of India. Once the bill to increase the number of judges gets the parliamentary nod, the number of judges would go up to 34, including the CJI. At present, the Supreme Court consists of thirty-one judges (one chief justice and thirty other judges).In February 2009, the centre notified an increase in the number of Supreme Court judges from twenty-six to thirty-one, including the Chief Justice of India.
This followed the enactment of the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2008. Originally, the strength of the Supreme Court was fixed at eight (one chief justice and seven other judges). The Parliament has increased this number of other judges progressively to ten in 1956, to thirteen in 1960, to seventeen in 1977 and to twenty-five in 1986. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Explanation
Against the backdrop of rising cases in the Supreme Court, the Union Cabinet approved increasing the number of judges in the Supreme court from the present 31 to 34, including the Chief Justice of India. Once the bill to increase the number of judges gets the parliamentary nod, the number of judges would go up to 34, including the CJI. At present, the Supreme Court consists of thirty-one judges (one chief justice and thirty other judges).In February 2009, the centre notified an increase in the number of Supreme Court judges from twenty-six to thirty-one, including the Chief Justice of India.
This followed the enactment of the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2008. Originally, the strength of the Supreme Court was fixed at eight (one chief justice and seven other judges). The Parliament has increased this number of other judges progressively to ten in 1956, to thirteen in 1960, to seventeen in 1977 and to twenty-five in 1986. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsQ20. Under the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Policy, a fixed
rate of subsidy is announced on which of the following nutrients
by the Government of India on an annual basis?1. Nitrogen
2. Sulphur
3. Potash
4. PhosphateSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Explanation
The Department of fertilizers is implementing NBS Policy for P&K fertilizers w.e.f. 1.4.2010. Under the NBS Policy, a fixed rate of subsidy (in Rs. per Kg basis) is announced on nutrients namely Nitrogen (N), Phosphate (P), Potash (K) and Sulphur (S) by the Government on annual basis.The per Kg subsidy rates on the nutrient N, P, K, S is converted into per Tonne subsidy on the various P& K fertilizers covered under NBS Policy. Any variant of the fertilizers covered under the subsidy scheme with micronutrients namely Boron and Zinc, is eligible for a separate per tonne subsidy to encourage their application along with primary nutrients.
MRP of P& K fertilizers has been left open and fertilizer manufacturers/marketers are allowed to fix the MRP at reasonable rates. In effect, the domestic prices are determined by demand-supply mechanism. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
News: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1580828
Incorrect
Explanation
The Department of fertilizers is implementing NBS Policy for P&K fertilizers w.e.f. 1.4.2010. Under the NBS Policy, a fixed rate of subsidy (in Rs. per Kg basis) is announced on nutrients namely Nitrogen (N), Phosphate (P), Potash (K) and Sulphur (S) by the Government on annual basis.The per Kg subsidy rates on the nutrient N, P, K, S is converted into per Tonne subsidy on the various P& K fertilizers covered under NBS Policy. Any variant of the fertilizers covered under the subsidy scheme with micronutrients namely Boron and Zinc, is eligible for a separate per tonne subsidy to encourage their application along with primary nutrients.
MRP of P& K fertilizers has been left open and fertilizer manufacturers/marketers are allowed to fix the MRP at reasonable rates. In effect, the domestic prices are determined by demand-supply mechanism. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
News: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1580828
Results
10 of 20 questions answered correctly
You have reached 10 of 20 points, (50%)
14 of 20 questions answered correctly
You have reached 14 of 20 points, –
(70%)
5 of 20 questions answered correctly.
You have reached 5 of 20 Points,