The Supreme Court has given its nod for e-transfer of orders to jails through the FASTER system for quick prisoner release.
FASTER System
• FASTER is an acronym form Fast and Secured Transmission of Electronic Records.
• The system is meant to ensure that undertrials are not made to wait for days on end behind bars to be released because the certified hard copies of their bail orders took time to reach the prison.
• It is conceived for delivery of orders to concerned prisons, District Courts, High Courts, as the case may be, for instantaneous delivery of orders passed by apex court through a secure communication channel.
• The process to develop the FASTER system began with the CJI’s observations in court on July 16 this year.

Statement 1 is not correct, 2 is correct.
Biological Weapons Convention (BWC)
• It was negotiated by the Conference of the Committee on Disarmament in Geneva, Switzerland. It opened for signature in 1972 and entered into force in 1975.
• Purpose ➔ The convention effectively prohibits the development, production, acquisition, transfer, stockpiling and use of biological and toxin weapons.
• If a state possesses any agent, toxin, or delivery system for them, they have nine months from entry into force of the treaty to destroy their stockpiles or divert them for peaceful use.
• Significance ➔ It is the first multilateral disarmament treaty banning an entire category of weapons of mass destruction (WMD). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Drawbacks of the Convention ➔ There is no implementation body of the BTWC, allowing for blatant violations as seen in the past. There is a review conference every five years to review the convention’s implementation and establish confidence-building measures. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• India is also a party to the convention.

Statement 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is not correct.
Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
• Year 2020 marked the 50th anniversary of the entry-into-force of the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), a legal instrument treated as the cornerstone of the global nuclear non-proliferation regime.
• The treaty institutionalized the non-proliferation norm by de-legitimizing ‘proliferation’ (production and transfer) of nuclear weapons, fissile materials and related technology by the non-nuclear weapon states (NNWS) while the recognized five nuclear-weapon states (NWS) — namely the US, Russia, the UK, France and China, can continue to possess nuclear weapons. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Treaty can be described to have three objectives of non-proliferation, disarmament and peaceful uses of nuclear energy.
• India is one of the only five countries that either did not sign the NPT or signed but withdrew, thus becoming part of a list that includes Pakistan, Israel, North Korea, and South Sudan. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
• NNWS criticizes the treaty to be discriminatory as it focuses on preventing only horizontal proliferation while there is no limit for vertical proliferation. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is not correct.
ISRO’s Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstration (RLV-TD) Programme
• RLV-TD is India’s first uncrewed flying testbed developed for the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)’s Reusable Launch Vehicle Technology Demonstration Programme. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is a scaled down prototype of an eventual two-stage-to-orbit (TSTO) reusable launch vehicle. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• A reusable launch system is a launch system that allows for the reuse of some or all of the component stages. To date, several fully reusable suborbital systems and partially reusable orbital systems have been flown.
• A launch system includes the launch vehicle, launch pad, vehicle assembly and fuelling systems, range safety, and other related infrastructure.
• Fully-reusable rockets are still to be developed, but partially-reusable launch vehicles are already in use. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is not correct.
Pinaka Missile System
• Pinaka is an indigenously developed rocket system named after Lord Shiva’s mythological bow.
• It is used for attacking the adversary targets prior to the close-quarter battles which involve armoured elements and the infantry. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The development of the Pinaka was started by the DRDO in the late 1980s, as an alternative to the multi-barrel rocket launching systems of Russian make, called like the ‘Grad’, which are still in use.
• After successful tests of Pinaka Mark-1 in late 1990, it was first used in the battlefield during the Kargil War of 1999, quite successfully.
Capabilities
• The Pinaka, which is primarily a multi-barrel rocket launch system (MBRL) system, can fire a salvo of 12 rockets over a period of 44 seconds. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• One battery of the Pinaka system consists of six launch vehicles, accompanied by the loader systems, radar and links with network-based systems and a command post.
• It can neutralize an area one kilometer by one kilometer.
• The Mark-I version of Pinaka has a range of around 40 kilometers and the Mark-II version can fire up to 75 kilometers.
• The Mark-II version of the rocket has been modified as a guided missile system by integrating it with the navigation, control and guidance system to improve the end accuracy and increase the range.
• The navigation system of the missile is linked with the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is not correct.
Near Field Communication (NFC)
• Near Field Communications (NFC) is a short-range wireless technology that allows mobile devices to actively interact with passive physical objects and other active mobile devices, connecting the physical world to mobile services in ways that empower and benefit users. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• NFC builds upon Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID) that uses electromagnetic radio fields and contactless smartcard technologies that enable stored data to be actively “read” at a short distance (few centimetres). Hence statement 1 is 2 correct.
• NFC technology addresses some of the security and privacy concerns of RFID by restricting the physical separation of NFC devices and tags to a close proximity.
• This makes it more difficult for attackers to record the communication as compared to other wireless technologies which have a working distance of several meters.
• NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Statement 1 is not correct, 2 is correct.
Global Financial Stability Report
• It is a semi-annual report by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• It assesses the stability of global financial markets and emerging-market financing with a primary focus on current conditions, especially financial and structural imbalances, that could risk an upset in global financial stability and access to financing by emerging-market countries.
• It is released twice per year, in April and October.
• GFSR replaced two previous reports by the IMF, the annual International Capital Markets Report and the quarterly Emerging Market Financing Report.

Only statement 3 is correct, 1, 2 and 4 are not correct.
The Food and Agriculture Organization’s (FAO) food price index, which tracks the most globally-traded food commodities, averaged 159.3 points last month versus an upwardly revised 141.4 for February. The rise is due to Ukraine war.
World Food Price Index
• It was introduced in 1996 as a public good to help in monitoring developments in the global agricultural commodity markets.
• World Food Price Index is published by Food and Agriculture Organization. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• It is a measure of the monthly change in international prices of a basket of food commodities. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It measures changes for a basket of only cereals, oilseeds, dairy products, meat and sugar. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It is calculated by taking an average of these five commodity group price indices weighted by the average export shares of each of the groups over the period 2014-16. Hence statement 4 is not correct.

Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)
• It is a trade deal between the 10-member Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and China, Japan, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand.
• It aims to lower tariffs, open up trade in services and promote investment to help emerging economies catch up with the rest of the world.
• To help reduce costs and time for companies by allowing them to export a product anywhere within the bloc without meeting separate requirements for each country.
• India has dropped out of the RCEP in November 2019 in ASEAN+3 summit.
The objections raised by India:
• Base Year for Tariffs: The RCEP will result in reduction of tariffs in all member countries. Since negotiations began in 2013, the pact has proposed that the base year for reducing tariffs will be 2013. However, India wanted to change the base year applied to reduce tariffs to 2019.
• Auto-Trigger Mechanism: The auto-trigger mechanism is used when there is a sudden surge in imports.
• Ratchet Obligations Clause: India wants exemptions on ratchet obligations. A ratchet mechanism means that if a country signs a trade agreement with another country and removes or reduces tariffs and quotas. It cannot go back on them and bring in more restrictive measures.
• Rules of Origin: India wants strict rules of origin to prevent Chinese goods from flooding the country through member countries that may have lower or no duty levels.

All the statements are correct.
Heat Wave
• A heat wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, more than the normal maximum temperature that occurs during the summer season in the North-Western and South Central parts of India.
• Heat waves typically occur between March and June, and in some rare cases even extend till July.
• Higher daily peak temperatures and longer, more intense heat waves are becoming increasingly frequent globally due to climate change.
• The heat wave is considered when the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains and at least 30°C for Hilly regions.
• If the normal maximum temperature of a station is less than or equal to 40°C, then an increase of 5°C to 6°C from the normal temperature is considered to be heat wave condition.
• Further, an increase of 7°C or more from the normal temperature is considered as severe heat wave condition.
• If the normal maximum temperature of a station is more than 40°C, then an increase of 4°C to 5°C from the normal temperature is considered to be heat wave condition. Further, an increase of 6°C or more is considered as severe heat wave condition.
• Additionally, if the actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, a heat wave is declared.
• The health impacts of Heat Waves typically involve dehydration, heat cramps, heat exhaustion and/or heat stroke.
• It also causes heat cramps, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, headache, nausea, vomiting, muscle cramps and sweating.

Only statement 2 is correct, 1 and 3 are not correct.
Global Methane Pledge
• After carbon dioxide, one of the largest contributors to global warming is methane. However, global policymakers rarely took methane as a priority target until now. Recently more than 100 countries have committed to reducing methane emissions by 2030 at the United National Climate Change Conference 26 held at Glasgow under the banner of the Global Methane Pledge. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Under the Global Methane Project, the countries have promised to cut 30% methane emissions by the end of this decade (2030). As a climate action strategy, the United States and the European Union have put forward this target. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It was mentioned that Methane can trap 80 times more heat compared to carbon dioxide in the first two decades after its release. Of all the heat trapped in the atmosphere, methane alone is said to be responsible for about a quarter of that since the pre-industrial era.
• The pledge undertaken by the countries reads: “The short atmospheric lifetime of methane means that taking action now can rapidly reduce the rate of global warming and that readily available cost-effective methane emission measures have the potential to avoid over 0.2 degrees Celsius of warming by 2050.
• At the same time, some of the top emitters like India, Russia, and China remain out of this timely promise. Reportedly, India did not sign this commitment as the country’s growth is largely dependent on the agriculture and livestock industries. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is not correct.
Zero Liquid Discharge approach
• It is a technique used for the treatment of industrial waters, while many water treatment processes attempt to maximize recovery of freshwater and minimize waste Zero liquid discharge (ZLD) is an engineering approach to water treatment where all water is recovered and contaminants are reduced to solid waste. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It works on the basic principle of Reverse Osmosis (R.O.) by treating industrial and produced waters with high organics and solvents while maintaining membrane integrity. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Wastewater is converted into solids for disposal. It has the potential for recovering resources that are present in wastewater. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• ZLD is targeted by many organisations for their waste because they can sell the solids that are produced or reuse them as a part of their industrial process By operating an in-house ZLD plant.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is not correct.
The NITI Aayog launched the State Energy and Climate Index (SECI). Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is the first index that aims to track the efforts made by states and UTs in the climate and energy sector. The parameters of the index have been devised keeping in mind India’s goals for climate change and clean energy transition. Hence statement 2 is correct.
State Energy and Climate Index (SECI)
• The States have been categorized based on size and geographical differences as larger and smaller States and UTs.
• The index is based on 2019-20 data.
• The states and UTs are categorized into three groups: Front Runners, Achievers, and Aspirants.
The objectives of the index are:
1. Ranking the States based on their efforts towards improving energy access, energy consumption, energy efficiency, and safeguarding the environment.
2. Helping drive the agenda of the affordable, accessible, efficient and clean energy transition at the State level.
3. Encouraging healthy competition among the states on different dimensions of energy and climate.
• Gujarat, Kerala and Punjab have been ranked as the top three performers in the category of larger States, while Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh were the bottom three States. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Goa emerged as the top performer in the smaller States category followed by Tripura and Manipur.

Both statements are not correct.
Blue Carbon Ecosystem
• The coastal ecosystems of mangroves, tidal marshes, and seagrass meadows provide numerous benefits and services that are essential for climate change adaptation along coasts globally, including protection from storms and sea-level rise, prevention of shoreline erosion, regulation of coastal water quality, provision of habitat for commercially important fisheries and endangered marine species, and food security for many coastal communities.
• Additionally, these ecosystems sequester and store significant amounts of coastal blue carbon from the atmosphere and ocean and hence are now recognized for their role in mitigating climate change.
• The Coastal Blue Carbon Ecosystems are very efficient at sequestering and storing carbon- each square mile of these systems can remove carbon from the atmosphere and oceans at a rate higher than each square mile of a tropical forest. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Blue Carbon Initiative is the first integrated program focused on mitigating climate change by conserving, restoring, and promoting sustainable use of coastal marine ecosystems globally.
• The Initiative currently focuses on mangroves, tidal marshes, and seagrasses.
• It is an international collaborative effort of the Conservation International, International Union for Conservation of Nature, and the Intergovernmental Oceanic Commission of the UNESCO. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

All the statements are correct.
IPCC’s Sixth Assessment Report
• The latest report has, for the first time, made an assessment of regional and sectoral impacts of climate change.
• It has included risks to, and vulnerabilities of, mega-cities around the world. For example, it has said Mumbai is at high risk of sea-level rise and flooding, while Ahmedabad faces serious danger of heat-waves.
• For the first time, the IPCC report has looked at the health impacts of climate change.
• It has found that climate change is increasing vector-borne and water-borne diseases such as malaria or dengue, particularly in sub-tropical regions of Asia.
• It has also said deaths related to circulatory, respiratory, diabetic and infectious diseases, as well as infant mortality, are likely to increase with a rise in temperature.
India specific study:
• The report identifies India as one of the vulnerable hotspots, with several regions and important cities facing very high risk of climate disasters such as flooding, sea-level rise and heat-waves. Mumbai is at high risk of sea-level rise and flooding.
• Several cities, including Chennai, Bhubaneswar, Patna and Lucknow, are approaching dangerous levels of heat and humidity.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is not correct.
Making Peace with Nature Report
• The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) has released the ‘Making Peace with Nature’ report, ahead of the fifth session of the UN Environment Assembly (UNEA-5).
• The Report explains how climate change, biodiversity loss and pollution add up to three self-inflicted planetary emergencies that are closely interconnected and put the well-being of current and future generations at unacceptable risk. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Suggestions in the report:
1. Human knowledge, ingenuity, technology and cooperation can transform societies and economies and secure a sustainable future.
2. Triple crises to be tackled together given their interdependence.
3. Governments to scale up action to meet the Paris Agreement goals.
4. Financial systems must be transformed to promote a shift towards sustainability.
5. Moving to circular economic systems.
• According to the report, society is not on course to achieve land degradation neutrality, Aichi Targets and targets of the Paris Agreement. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Major Reports by UNEP: Emission Gap Report, Adaptation Gap Report, Global Environment Outlook, Frontiers, Invest into Healthy Planet. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is not correct.
Greater One-Horned Rhino
• The Greater One-Horned Rhino is one among the five different species of Rhino. The other four are: Black Rhino, White Rhino, Javan Rhino, Sumatran Rhino.
• Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India.
• Also known as Indian rhino, it is the largest of the rhino species.
• It is identified by a single black horn and a grey-brown hide with skin folds.
• They primarily graze, with a diet consisting almost entirely of grasses as well as leaves, branches of shrubs and trees, fruit, and aquatic plants.

Greater Mekong Region
• The Greater Mekong Region spans six countries – China, Myanmar, Lao PDR, Thailand, Cambodia and Vietnam
• This region is the ‘rice bowl’ of Asia and at its heart lays the Mekong River.

Basai Wetland
• Basai wetland, located in Basai village in Gurgaon Haryana is a flora and fauna rich water body.
• It lies in one of the paleochannel of the Sahibi River, a tributary of Yamuna which originates from the Aravalli range in Rajasthan and flows through the region.
• It houses 20,000 birds of over 280 species including migratory birds and endangered birds.
• It is recognised as a key biodiversity area by the IUCN and the Wildlife Institute of India
• It is also recognized globally as an Important Bird Area (IBA) by BirdLife International.

Both statements are not correct.
OECM
• The OECM tag is given by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The tag is conferred upon areas that have achieved effective IN-SITU conservation of biodiversity, but are outside protected areas like national parks and sanctuaries. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The OECM tag does not bring any legal, financial or management implications but designates the area as a biodiversity hotspot on the international map.
• The proposal to declare Aravalli Biodiversity Park an OECM site was sent by the National Biodiversity Authority to the IUCN in 2020.