• The biosphere is the biological component (supporting life) of the earth which includes the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The biosphere includes all living organisms on earth, together with the dead organic matter produced by them.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The biosphere is absent at extremes of the North and South poles, the highest mountains and the deepest oceans since existing hostile conditions there do not support life (life is the characteristic feature of the biosphere).
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Occasionally spores of fungi and bacteria do occur at a great height beyond 8,000 metres, but they are metabolically inactive, and hence represent only dormant life.

• A habitat always has life in it, whereas the environment does not necessarily have life in it. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• All habitats are environments, but all environments are not habitats. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• A habitat is always a preference of one species. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• An environment could be a preference of many species that could eventually become many habitats.
• Usually, the environment governs the properties of a habitat, but not vice versa.

Dieback
• Refers to the progressive dying usually backwards from the tip of any portion of the plant.
• This is one of the adaptive mechanisms to avoid adverse conditions like drought.
• In this mechanism, the root remains alive for years together, but the shoots die.
• E.g. sal, red sanders, silk cotton tree etc.

• Mangroves represent a characteristic littoral (near the seashore) forest ecosystem.
• These are mostly evergreen forests that grow in sheltered low lying coasts, estuaries, mudflats, tidal creeks backwaters (coastal waters held back on land), marshes and lagoons of tropical and subtropical regions.
• Mangroves grow below the high water level of spring tides.
• The best locations are where abundant silt is brought down by rivers or on the backshore of accreting sandy beaches.
• Mangroves are highly productive ecosystems, and the trees may vary in height from 8 to 20 m. They protect the shoreline from the effect of cyclones and tsunamis.
• They are breeding and spawning ground for many commercially important fishes.
• Since mangroves are located between the land and sea, they represent the best example of ecotone.
• Mangroves are shrubs or small trees that grow in coastal saline or brackish water.
• Mangroves are salt tolerant trees, also called halophytes, and are adapted harsh coastal conditions.
• Mangrove vegetation facilitates more water loss. Leaves are thick and contain salt-secreting glands. Some block absorption of salt at their roots itself.
• They contain a complex salt filtration system and complex root system to cope with salt water immersion and wave action.
• They are adapted to the low oxygen (anoxic) conditions of waterlogged mud. Hence, statement 5 is correct.
• They produce pneumatophores (blind roots) to overcome the respiration problem in the anaerobic soil conditions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Mangroves occur worldwide in the tropics and subtropics, mainly between latitudes 25° N and 25° S.
• They require high solar radiation to filter saline water through their roots. This explains why mangroves are confined to only tropical and sub-tropical coastal waters.
• Mangroves occur in a variety of configurations. Some species (e.g. Rhizophora) send arching prop roots down into the water.
• While other (e.g. Avicennia) send vertical “Pneumatophores” or air roots up from the mud.
• Adventitious roots which emerged from the main trunk of a tree above ground level are called stilt roots. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• Mangroves exhibit Viviparity mode of reproduction. i.e. seeds germinate in the tree itself (before falling to the ground). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• This is an adaptive mechanism to overcome the problem of germination in saline water.

Dense flowerheads reducing heat loss is the adaptation of vegetation in tundra biome. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Sulphur dioxide
• It is a toxic gas with a pungent, irritating smell. It contributes to acid rain.
• It is released naturally by volcanic activity. It is abundantly available in the atmosphere of Venus.
• Sulphur dioxide is primarily produced for sulfuric acid manufacture.
• Inhaling sulphur dioxide is associated with increased respiratory symptoms and premature death.
• It also weakens the functioning of certain nerves.
• It is also produced by:
– burning coal in thermal power plants and diesel fuels.
– some industrial processes, such as the production of paper and smelting of metals.
– reactions involving Hydrogen Sulphide (H2S) and oxygen.
– The roasting of sulphide ores such as pyrite, sphalerite, and cinnabar (mercury sulphide).

Conservation status of Vultures found in India

Critically Endangered
• White-Rumped Vulture (Gyps bengalensis)
• White-Backed Vulture (Gyps africanus)
• Ruppell’s Vulture (Gyps rueppellii)
• Indian Vulture (Gyps indicus)
• Slender-Billed Vulture (Gyps tenuirostris)

Endangered
• Cape Vulture (Gyps coprotheres)

Near Threatened
• Himalayan Vulture (Gyps himalayensis)

Least Concern
• Griffon Vulture (Gyps fulvus)

Biochar
• Bio char is found in soils around the world as a result of vegetation fires and historic soil management practices.
• Intensive study of bio char-rich dark earths in the Amazon (terra preta), has led to a wider appreciation of bio char’s unique properties as a soil enhancer.
• Bio char is charcoal that is used as soil amendment (minor improvement).
• It is created using a pyrolysis process (decomposition brought about by high temperatures), heating biomass in a low oxygen environment.
• Once the pyrolysis reaction has begun, it is self-sustaining, requiring no outside energy input.
• By-products of the process include syngas (H2 + CO), minor quantities of methane (CH4), organic acids and excess heat.
• Once it is produced, bio char is spread on agricultural fields and incorporated into the top layer of soil.
• The syngas and excess heat can be used directly or employed to produce a variety of biofuels.

• The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002).
• The NBA is a Statutory, Autonomous Body.
• The NBA will enjoy the power of a civil court.
• Before applying for any form of IPRs (Intellectual Property Rights) in or outside India for an invention based on research on a biological resource obtained from India, prior approval of NBA will be required. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The monetary benefits, fees, royalties as a result of approvals by NBA will be deposited in National Biodiversity Fund.
• It checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The top biotech regulator in India for Genetically Modified Organisms is Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Forest Rights Act, 2006
• The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
• Forest Rights Act, 2006 provides for the restitution of deprived forest rights across India.
• The Act is providing scope of integrating conservation and livelihood rights of the people.
• FRA is tool
– To empower and strengthen the local self-governance
– To address the livelihood security of the people
– To address the issues of Conservation and management of the Natural Resources and conservation governance of India.

Salient Features
• This Act is applicable for Tribal and Other Traditional Forest Dwelling Communities.
• The Act provides for recognition of forest rights of other traditional forest dwellers provided they have for at least three generations prior to 13.12.2005 primarily resided in and have depended on the forests for bonafide livelihood needs.
• The maximum limit of recognizing rights on forest land is 4 ha. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• National Parks and Sanctuaries have been included along with Reserve Forest, Protected Forests for the recognition of Rights. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Act recognizes the right of ownership access to collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce by tribals.
• Minor forest produce includes all non-timber forest produce of plant origin.
• The rights conferred under the Act shall be heritable but not alienable or transferable. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• As per the Act, the Gram Sabha has been designated as the competent authority for initiating the process of determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights.

National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
• Act of the Parliament of India which enables creation of NGT to handle the expeditious disposal of the cases pertaining to environmental issues.
• It was enacted under India’s constitutional provision of Article 21, which assures the citizens of India the right to a healthy environment. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
• The specialized architecture of the NGT will facilitate fast track resolution of environmental cases and provide a boost to the implementation of many sustainable development measures.
• NGT is mandated to dispose the cases within six months of their respective appeals.

Origin
• During the Earth Summit 1992, India vowed the participating states to provide judicial and administrative remedies for the victims of the pollutants and other environmental damage.

Members
• The sanctioned strength of the tribunal is currently 10 expert members and 10 judicial members although the act allows for up to 20 of each.
• The Chairman of the tribunal who is the administrative head of the tribunal also serves as a judicial member.
• Every bench of tribunal must consist of at least one expert member and one judicial member.
• The Chairman of the tribunal is required to be a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High Court or a judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Animal Welfare Board of India
• Statutory advisory body advising the Government of India on animal welfare laws and promotes animal welfare in the country of India.
• It works to ensure that animal welfare laws in the country are followed; provides grants to Animal Welfare Organizations; and considers itself “the face of the animal welfare movement in the country.” Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It was established in 1960 under Section 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Well-known humanitarian Rukmini Devi Arundale was instrumental in setting up the board.
• The subject of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals is under MoEF (Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change).

Functions
• The board is highly concerned about “abuse of animals in research” and “cruelty involved when animals were used in entertainment”.
• The Board oversees Animal Welfare Organizations (AWOs) by granting recognition to them if they meet its guidelines.
• The Board provides financial assistance to recognized Animal Welfare Organizations (AWOs)
• The Board suggests changes to laws and rules about animal welfare issues. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The Board issues publications to raise awareness of various animal welfare issues.

Core and Buffer zones
The Tiger Reserves are constituted on a ‘core-buffer strategy’.

Core Zone
• The core area is kept free of biotic disturbances and forestry operations, where collection of minor forest produce, grazing, human disturbances are not allowed within. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• These areas are required to be kept for the purposes of tiger conservation, without affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers.
• These areas are notified by the State Government in consultation with an Expert Committee (constituted for that purpose). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Buffer Zone
• The Act defines buffer zone as the area peripheral to the critical tiger habitat or core area providing supplementary habitat for dispersing tigers, besides offering scope for co-existence of human activity (tribals).
• The limits of such areas are determined with the concerned Gram Sabha and an Expert Committee constituted for the purpose.

Ganges Dolphin
• The Ministry of Environment and Forests notified the Ganges River Dolphin as the National Aquatic Animal.
• The River Dolphin inhabits the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is estimated that their total population is around 2,000 and they are listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act (1972). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Ganges Dolphin is among the four “obligate” freshwater dolphins found in the world — the other three are the ‘baiji found in the Yangtze River (China), the ‘bhulan’ of the Indus (Pakistan) and the ‘boto’ of the Amazon River (Latin America).
• Although there are several species of marine dolphins whose ranges include some freshwater habitats, these four species live only in rivers and lakes. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The Chinese River Dolphin was declared functionally extinct by a team of international scientists in 2006.
• In India, the Ganges River Dolphin is threatened by river water pollution and siltation, accidental entanglement in fishing nets and poaching for their oil.
• In addition, alterations to the rivers in the form of barrages and dams are separating populations.

Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is a statutory body constituted under the ‘Rules for the Manufacture, Use /Import /Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineering Organisms or Cells, 1989’ notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It was formed as the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee and was renamed to its current name in 2010.
• It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change.
• The body regulates the use, manufacture, storage, import and export of hazardous microorganisms or genetically-engineered organisms and cells in India.

GEAC Functions
• It is responsible for the appraisal of activities that involve the large scale use of hazardous microbes and recombinants in research and industrial production from the point of view of the environment.
• The GEAC also assesses proposals regarding the release of genetically engineered products and organisms into the environment, and this includes experimental field trials as well.
• The body also looks into proposals regarding the use of living modified organism that comes in the risk category III and above in the import/manufacture of recombinant pharma products, or where the end-product of the recombinant pharma product is a modified living organism.
• The Committee has the power to take punitive action against people/body under the Environment (Protection) Act. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The approval of the GEAC is mandatory before genetically modified organisms and products derived from them can be used commercially. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)
• The coastal stretches of seas, bays, estuaries, creeks, rivers and back waters which are influenced by tidal action are declared “Coastal Regulation Zone” (CRZ) in 1991.
• India has created institutional mechanisms such as National Coastal Zone Management Authority (NCZMA) and State Coastal Zone Management Authority (SCZMA) for enforcement and monitoring of the CRZ Notification.
• These authorities have been delegated powers under Section 5 of the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986 to take various measures for protecting and improving the quality of the coastal environment and preventing, abating and controlling environmental pollution in coastal areas.

Classification Criteria and Regulatory Norms
The coastal regulation zone has been classified for the purpose of regulation of the permitted activities.

CRZ-I:
• Ecological sensitive area and the area between High Tide Line (HTL) and Low Tide Line (LTL).
• No new construction is permitted except for a few specified most essential activities like support activities for Atomic Energy Plants and Defense requirements, facilities required for disposal of treated effluents and other port related water front activities.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

CRZ-II:
• The area that have been developed up to or close to the shore line which includes the designated urban areas that are substantially built up.
• Buildings permitted only on the landward side of the existing authorized structures as defined in the notification.

CRZ-III:
• The areas that are relatively undisturbed and those which do not belong to either CRZ-I or CRZ-II which includes mainly the rural area and those not substantially built up within designated urban areas.
• The area up to 200 meters from HTL is earmarked as “No Development Zone”.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• No construction is permitted within this zone except for repairs to the existing authorized structures.
• Development of vacant plots between 200 and 500 meters of HTL is permitted in CRZ III for the purpose of construction of dwelling units and hotels/beach resorts subject to certain conditions.

CRZ-IV
• The activities impugning on the sea and tidal influenced water bodies will be regulated except for traditional fishing and related activities undertaken by local communities.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• No untreated sewage, effluents, pollution from oil drilling shall be let off or dumped.

India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change
• NAPCC was published in 2008 by the then-Prime Minister’s Council on Climate Change.
• The National Action Plan hinges on the development and use of new technologies.
• The implementation of the Plan includes public private partnerships and civil society action.
• The focus will be on promoting understanding of climate change, adaptation and mitigation, energy efficiency and natural resource conservation.
• There are Eight National Missions which form the core of the National Action Plan.
– National Solar Mission (started in 2010 to promote the use of solar power)
– National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (approved in 2009)
– National Mission on Sustainable Habitat (approved in 2011)
– National Water Mission
– National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (approved in 2014)
– National Mission for A Green India (approved in 2014)
– National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (approved in 2010)
– National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change (NMSKCC)
– National Bio-Energy Mission (approved in 2017)

National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) is the implementation wing of National Ganga Council (set in 2016; which replaced the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NRGBA).

Namami Gange Programme
• Namami Gange Programme is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as a ‘Flagship Programme’ by the Union Government in June 2014 to accomplish the twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution and conservation and rejuvenation of National River Ganga.
• It is being operated under the Department of Water Resources,River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• The program is being implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), and its state counterpart organizations i.e., State Program ManagementGroups (SPMGs).
• It has a Rs. 20,000-crore, centrally-funded, non-lapsable corpus and consists of nearly 288 projects.
• The main pillars of the programme are:
– Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure & Industrial Effluent Monitoring,
– River-Front Development & River-Surface Cleaning,
– Bio-Diversity & Afforestation,
– Public Awareness.

National Mission for A Green India (Green India Mission)
It aims at:
• Protecting; restoring and enhancing India’s diminishing forest cover and
• Responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures.
• Enhanced annual CO2 sequestration by 50 to 60 million tons in the year 2020.
• The mission will be implemented on both public as well as private lands.
• The mission will local communities in planning, decision making, implementation and monitoring.

Goals of the National Mission for A Green India
• Improvement in quality of forest cover and ecosystem services of forests, degraded grassland and wetlands.
• Eco-restoration of shifting cultivation areas, cold deserts, mangroves, ravines and abandoned mining areas.
• Improvement in forest and tree cover in urban/peri-urban lands.
• Improvement in tree cover on agricultural lands and other non-forest lands (agroforestry/social forestry).

Forest Carbon Partnership Facility
• It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society, and Indigenous Peoples focused on reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, forest carbon stock conservation, the sustainable management of forests, and the enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries (activities commonly referred to as REDD+).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The World Bank assumes the functions of trustee and secretariat.
• The World Bank, the Inter-American Development Bank and United Nations Development Programme are Delivery Partners under the Readiness Fund and responsible for providing REDD+ readiness support.

Objectives
• To assist countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• To pilot a performance-based payment system for REDD+ activities.
• To test ways to sustain or enhance livelihoods of local communities and to conserve biodiversity.
• To disseminate broadly the knowledge gained in Emission Reductions Programs (ERPs).

It provides financial incentives to countries in their REDD+ efforts. There is no mention of assistance to universities, scientists…
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

BioCarbon Fund Initiative
• The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank.
• It seeks to promote reduced greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), and from sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.