Indian Peafowl
• The Indian peafowl is a native of India and some parts of Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
• The Arakan hills prevented their spread further east while the Himalayas and the Karakoram did so northwards.
• As our national bird, the peacock has the utmost level of legal protection.

Peacock vs. Peafowl
• Only the males of the species are peacocks.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The females are properly called peahens, while young birds less than a year old are known as peachicks.
• Collectively they are known as peafowl, regardless of age or gender.
• Peacocks are male Indian peafowl (Pavo cristatus) belonging to the Phasianidae family.

Various protections
• It comes under Section 51 (1-A) of Schedule I of the Wild (Life) (Protection) Act, 1972, with imprisonment that may be extended up to seven years, along with a fine that shall not be less than Rs 10,000.
• Since 2014, Indian Peafowl has been protected under Appendix III of the CITES.
• They are listed under the ‘Least Concern’ (LC) category of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red Data List.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

“Ecosystem services” are the benefits people derive from ecosystem.

Goods and Services provided by ecosystems include:
• Provision of food, fuel and fibre Hence, statement 5 is correct.
• Provision of shelter and building materials
• Purification of air and water Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Detoxification and decomposition of wastes. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Stabilization and moderation of the Earth’s climate. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Moderation of floods, droughts, temperature extremes and the forces of wind.
• Generation and renewal of soil fertility, including nutrient cycling.
• Pollination of plants, including many crops Control of
pests and diseases.
• Maintenance of genetic resources as key inputs to crop varieties and livestock breeds, medicines, and other products.
• Cultural and aesthetic benefits. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Niche
• A niche is the unique functional role or place of a species in an ecosystem. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is a description of all the biological, physical and chemical factors that a species needs to survive, stay healthy and reproduce.
• A niche is unique for a species, which means no two species have exact identical niches. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Niche plays an important role in conservation of organisms.
• If we have to conserve species in its native habitat we should have knowledge about the niche requirements of the species and should ensure that all requirements of its niche are fulfilled.

Bioaccumulation
• It refers to how pollutants enter a food chain.
• In bioaccumulation there is an increase in concentration
of a pollutant from the environment to the first organism in a food chain.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Biomagnification
• Biomagnification refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next.
• Thus in biomagnification there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• In order for biomagnification to occur, the pollutant must be: long-lived, mobile, soluble in fats, biologically active.

• Phytoremediation is use of plants to remove contaminants from soil and water. .

Types
• Phytoextraction / phytoaccumulation is the process by which plants accumulate contaminants into the roots and above ground shoots or leaves. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Phytotransformation or phytodegradation refers to the uptake of organic contaminants from soil, sediments, or water and their transformation to more stable, less toxic, less mobile form. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Phytostabilization is a technique in which plants reduce the mobility and migration of contaminated soil. Leachable constituents are adsorbed and bound into the plant structure so that they form unstable mass of plant from which the contaminants will not re-enter
the environment. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Phytodegradation or rhizodegradation is the breakdown of contaminants through the activity existing in the rhizosphere. This activity is due to the presence of proteins and enzymes produced by the plants or by soil organisms such as bacteria, yeast, and fungi.
• Rhizofiltration is a water remediation technique that involves the uptake of contaminants by plant roots. Rhizofiltration is used to reduce contamination in natural wetlands and estuary areas.

• Biogeographic realms are large spatial regions within which ecosystems share a broadly similar biota.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Realm is a continent or sub continent sized area with unifying features of geography and fauna & flora.

• Eight terrestrial biogeographic realms are recognized.
1. Nearctic realm
2. Palearctic realm
3. Africotropical realm
4. Indo-Malayan realm
5. Ocenaia realm
6. Australian realm
7. Antarctic realm
8. Neotropical realm
• The Indian region is composed of two realms. They are:
1) the Himalayan region represented by Palearctic Realm and
2) the rest of the sub-continent represented by Malayan Realm. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

About Pangolin
IUCN status: Endangered. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• India is home to two species of pangolin.
• While the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla) is found in northeastern India, the Indian Pangolin is distributed in other parts of the country as well as Sri Lanka, Bangladesh and Pakistan. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Both these species are protected and are listed under the Schedule I Part I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 and under Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Commonly known as scaly anteaters, the toothless animals are unique, a result of millions of years of evolution.
• Pangolins evolved scales as a means of protection. When threatened by big carnivores like lions or tigers they usually curl into a ball.
• The scales defend them against dental attacks from the predators.

Pangolin in China
• Pangolin meat is considered a delicacy in China and Vietnam.
• Their scales which are made of keratin, the same protein present in human nails are believed to improve lactation, promote blood circulation, and remove blood stasis.
• These so-called health benefits are so far unproven.

• The campaign aims to codify commitments made via the Climate Ambition Alliance (CAA), which launched ahead of last years COP25 in Madrid.
• It encourages countries, companies, and other entities to deliver structured net-zero greenhouse-gas emission pledges by the time the talks begin.
• This messaging for the campaign carried out under the aegis of the UNFCCC seeks to emphasise the potential for non-state actors to raise climate ambition.
• The campaign refers to these as real economy actors, noting they cover just over half the gross domestic product, a quarter of global CO2 emissions and over 2.6 billion people.

• Blue Carbon refers to coastal, aquatic and marine carbon sinks held by the indicative vegetation, marine organism and sediments.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• In particular, coastal ecosystems such as tidal marshes, mangroves, and seagrasses remove carbon from the atmosphere and ocean, storing it in plants and depositing it in the sediment below them by natural processes.
• These coastal ecosystems are very efficient at sequestering and storing carbon – each square mile of these systems can remove carbon from the atmosphere and oceans at rates higher than each square mile of mature tropical forests. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Furthermore, coastal ecosystems have been found to store huge quantities of carbon in organic rich sediments
– up to 5 times more carbon than many temperate and tropical forests.
• These ecosystems are found in all continents, except Antarctica.

• The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) allows a country with an emission-reduction or emission-limitation commitment under the Kyoto Protocol (Annex B Party) to implement an emission-reduction project in developing countries.
• It is the first global, environmental investment and credit scheme of its kind, providing standardized emissions offset instrument, CERs.
• Such projects can earn saleable certified emission reduction (CER) credits, each equivalent to one tonne of CO2, which can be counted towards meeting Kyoto targets.

• It is a specialised body set up under the National Green Tribunal Act (2010) for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
• With the establishment of the NGT, India became the third country in the world to set up a specialised environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand, and the first developing country to do so.
• NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
• The NGT has five places of sittings, New Delhi is the Principal place of sitting and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai are the other four.
• The Chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with Chief Justice of India (CJI).
• The NGT has the power to hear all civil cases relating to environmental issues and questions that are linked to the implementation of laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act.
These include the following:
– The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974;
– The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977;
– The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980;
– The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981;
– The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986;
– The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991;
– The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
• Two important acts – Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 have been kept out of NGT’s jurisdiction.

• The genesis of the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986, thus, is in Article 48A (Directive Principles of State Policy) and Article 51A (g) (Fundamental Duties) of the Indian Constitution.
• The Act empowers the Central Government to take all appropriate measures to prevent and control pollution and to establish effective machinery for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the environment and protecting controlling and abating nvironmental pollution.

KIGALI AGREEMENT
• Twenty-Eighth Meeting of the Parties to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer held in Kigali, Rwanda amended the 1987 Montreal Protocol to phase out Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) were discontinued under the Montreal Protocol when scientists realised they were destroying the ozone layer.
• HFCs were introduced in the 1990s as an alternative to replace chemicals that had been found to erode the ozone layer, but turned out to be catastrophic for global warming.
• HFCs – though they are greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide, methane and nitrous oxide – are not dealt with under the Paris Agreement but under the Montreal Protocol. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The elimination of HFCs could reduce global warming by 0.5 degrees by 2100, according to a 2015 study by the Institute for Governance and Sustainable Development.
• However, swapping HFCs for alternatives such as ammonia, water or gases called hydrofluoroolefins could prove costly for developing countries with high summer temperatures, such as India.
• The Kigali Agreement for HFCs reduction will be binding on countries from 2019. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Under legally binding Kigali Amendment, 197 countries have agreed to a timeline to reduce the use of HFCs by roughly 85% of their baselines by 2045.

• The Ozone Depleting Substances (Regulation and Control) Rules are framed under the jurisdiction of the Environment (Protection) Act. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Objectives and Key Features
• These Rules set the deadlines for phasing out of various Ozone depleting substances (ODSs), besides regulating production, trade
import and export of ODSs and the product containing ODS.
• These Rules prohibit the use of CFCs in manufacturing various products beyond 1st January 2003 except in metered-dose inhaler and for other medical purposes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Similarly, the use of halons is prohibited after 1st January 2001 except for essential use.
• Other ODSs such as carbon tetrachloride and methyl chloroform and CFC for metered-dose inhalers can be used up to 1st January 2010.
• Since HCFCs are used as interim substitute to replace CFC, these are allowed up to 1st January 2040.

• The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems.
• The GEF unites 184 countries in partnership with international institutions, civil society organizations (CSOs), and the private sector to address global environmental issues while supporting national sustainable development initiatives.
• Through its Small Grants Programme (SGP), the GEF has provided support to nearly 24,000 civil society and community initiatives in 133 countries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• An independently operating financial organization, the GEF provides grants for projects related to biodiversity, climate change, international waters, land degradation, the ozone layer, persistent organic pollutants (POPs), mercury, sustainable forest management, food security, sustainable cities.
• The GEF also serves as financial mechanism for the following conventions:
– Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
– United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
– United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
– Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
– Minamata Convention on Mercury
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The GEF, although not linked formally to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (MP), supports implementation of the Protocol in countries with economies in transition.

• Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is a Legally binding Convention recognized for the first time, that the conservation
of biological diversity is “a common concern of humankind” and is an integral part of the development process. The agreement covers all ecosystems, species, and genetic resources. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Three main goals:
• The conservation of biodiversity
• Sustainable use of the components of biodiversity
• Sharing the benefits arising from the commercial and other utilization of genetic resources in a fair and equitable way

Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity
• Biosafety refers to the need to protect human health and the environment from the possible adverse effects of the products of modern biotechnology.
• The Convention clearly recognizes these twin aspects of modern biotechnology.
1. Access to and transfer of technologies
2. Appropriate procedures to enhance the safety of biotechnology technologies.
• There are two main sets of procedures, one for Living Modified Organisms (LMOs) intended for direct introduction into the environment, known as the advance informed agreement (AIA) procedure, and another for LMOs intended for direct use as food
or feed, or for processing (LMOs-FFP). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Nagoya Protocol
• The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS) to the Convention on Biological Diversity is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of the CBD.

• International Tropical Timber Organization (ITTO) is an intergovernmental organization, under UN (1986) promoting the conservation and sustainable management, use and trade of tropical forest resources. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
• Its members represent about 80% of the world’s tropical forests and 90% of the global tropical timber trade.
• Like all commodity organizations it is concerned with trade and industry, but like an environmental agreement it also pays considerable attention to the sustainable management of natural resources.
• It manages its own program of projects and other activities, enabling it to quickly test and operationalize its policy work.
• ITTO develops internationally agreed policy documents to promote sustainable forest management and forest conservation and assists tropical member countries to adapt such policies to local circumstances and to implement them in the field through projects.
• In addition, ITTO collects, analyses and disseminates data on the production and trade of tropical timber and funds a range of projects and other action aimed at developing industries at both community and industrial scales. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Asian Koel
• IUCN status: Least Concerned. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Asian Koel (Eudynamys scolopaceus) is a member of the cuckoo order of birds, the Cuculiformes.
• It is found in the Indian Subcontinent, China, and Southeast Asia. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It forms a superspecies with the closely related black-billed koels, Indian cuckoos, and Pacific koels which are sometimes treated as subspecies.
• The Asian Koel like many of its related cuckoo kin is a brood parasite that lays its eggs in the nests of crows and other hosts, who raise its young. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Key Features
• Sexual dimorphism is evident, where males are a glossy black with a greenish sheen to their bodies and females are brown with white dots on their wings and heavy streaking on their head and throat.
• Both sexes have strong long greenish bills and captivating ruby-red eyes.
• In the bird world, the males are generally more pleasant looking than the females, considering they woo females.

‘Not all Animals Migrate by Choice’ campaign
• It is a United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) Campaign launched by the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau on Illegal Trafficking of Endangered Species. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It aims to curb illegal trade in wildlife which carries the risk of spreading dangerous pandemics. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The campaign also aims at creating awareness and garnering public support for the protection and conservation of wildlife, prevention of smuggling and reduction in demand for wildlife products.
• It complements worldwide action on illegal trade in wildlife through UN Environment’s global campaign, Wild for Life. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The awareness campaign is to be displayed at major airports across the country.

A taxon is Endangered when the best available evidence indicates that it meets any of the criteria for Endangered.

Criteria:
• reduction in population size (70% over the last 10 years),
• population size estimated to number fewer than 250 mature individuals,
• quantitative analysis showing the probability of extinction in wild in at least 20% within 20 years and
• it is therefore considered to be facing a very high risk of extinction in the wild.