• The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002).
• The NBA is a Statutory, Autonomous Body.
• The NBA will enjoy the power of a civil court.
• Before applying for any form of IPRs (Intellectual Property Rights) in or outside India for an invention based on research on a biological resource obtained from India, prior approval of NBA will be required.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The monetary benefits, fees, royalties as a result of approvals by NBA will be deposited in National Biodiversity Fund.
• It checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The top biotech regulator in India for Genetically Modified Organisms is Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Forest Rights Act, 2006
• The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
• Forest Rights Act, 2006 provides for the restitution of deprived forest rights across India.
• The Act is providing scope of integrating conservation and livelihood rights of the people.
• FRA is tool
– To empower and strengthen the local self-governance
– To address the livelihood security of the people
– To address the issues of Conservation and management of the Natural Resources and conservation governance of India.

Salient Features
• This Act is applicable for Tribal and Other Traditional Forest Dwelling Communities.
• The Act provides for recognition of forest rights of other traditional forest dwellers provided they have for at least three generations prior to 13.12.2005 primarily resided in and have depended on the forests for bonafide livelihood needs.
• The maximum limit of recognizing rights on forest land is 4 ha.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• National Parks and Sanctuaries have been included along with Reserve Forest, Protected Forests for the recognition of Rights.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Act recognizes the right of ownership access to collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce by tribals.
• Minor forest produce includes all non-timber forest produce of plant origin.
• The rights conferred under the Act shall be heritable but not alienable or transferable.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• As per the Act, the Gram Sabha has been designated as the competent authority for initiating the process of determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights.

National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
• Act of the Parliament of India which enables creation of NGT to handle the expeditious disposal of the cases pertaining to environmental issues.
• It was enacted under India’s constitutional provision of Article 21, which assures the citizens of India the right to a healthy environment.
Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
• The specialized architecture of the NGT will facilitate fast track resolution of environmental cases and provide a boost to the implementation of many sustainable development measures.
• NGT is mandated to dispose the cases within six months of their respective appeals.

Origin
• During the Earth Summit 1992, India vowed the participating states to provide judicial and administrative remedies for the victims of the pollutants and other environmental damage.

Members
• The sanctioned strength of the tribunal is currently 10 expert members and 10 judicial members although the act allows for up to 20 of each.
• The Chairman of the tribunal who is the administrative head of the tribunal also serves as a judicial member.
• Every bench of tribunal must consist of at least one expert member and one judicial member.
• The Chairman of the tribunal is required to be a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High Court or a judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Animal Welfare Board of India
• Statutory advisory body advising the Government of India on animal welfare laws and promotes animal welfare in the country of India.
• It works to ensure that animal welfare laws in the country are followed; provides grants to Animal Welfare Organizations; and considers itself “the face of the animal welfare movement in the country.”
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It was established in 1960 under Section 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Well-known humanitarian Rukmini Devi Arundale was instrumental in setting up the board.
• The subject of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals is under MoEF (Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change).

Functions
• The board is highly concerned about “abuse of animals in research” and “cruelty involved when animals were used in entertainment”.
• The Board oversees Animal Welfare Organizations (AWOs) by granting recognition to them if they meet its guidelines.
• The Board provides financial assistance to recognized Animal Welfare Organizations (AWOs)
• The Board suggests changes to laws and rules about animal welfare issues.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The Board issues publications to raise awareness of various animal welfare issues.

Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is a statutory body constituted under the ‘Rules for the Manufacture, Use /Import /Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineering Organisms or Cells, 1989’ notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It was formed as the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee and was renamed to its current name in 2010.
• It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change.
• The body regulates the use, manufacture, storage, import and export of hazardous microorganisms or genetically-engineered organisms and cells in India.

GEAC Functions
• It is responsible for the appraisal of activities that involve the large scale use of hazardous microbes and recombinants in research and industrial production from the point of view of the environment.
• The GEAC also assesses proposals regarding the release of genetically engineered products and organisms into the environment, and this includes experimental field trials as well.
• The body also looks into proposals regarding the use of living modified organism that comes in the risk category III and above in the import/manufacture of recombinant pharma products, or where the end-product of the recombinant pharma product is a modified living organism.
• The Committee has the power to take punitive action against people/body under the Environment (Protection) Act.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The approval of the GEAC is mandatory before genetically modified organisms and products derived from them can be used commercially.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Tikdam:
The genetically modified organisms and products derived from them cannot be used commercially without the committee’s approval at all. So, Statement 3 could have been eliminated on the very first sight of it.

Namami Gange Programme
• Namami Gange Programme is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as a ‘Flagship Programme’ by the Union Government in June 2014 to accomplish the twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution and conservation and rejuvenation of National River Ganga.
• It is being operated under the Department of Water Resources,River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• The program is being implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), and its state counterpart organizations i.e., State Program ManagementGroups (SPMGs).
• It has a Rs. 20,000-crore, centrally-funded, non-lapsable corpus and consists of nearly 288 projects.
• The main pillars of the programme are:
– Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure & Industrial Effluent Monitoring,
– River-Front Development & River-Surface Cleaning,
– Bio-Diversity & Afforestation,
– Public Awareness

Tikdam:
Liitle thinkimg was needed and it was easy to eliminate Statement 3 as the objectives of Namami Gange Programme are effective abatement of pollution and conservation and rejuvenation of National River Ganga and there is no role of ro-ro ferry services in achieving this objective.

Forest Carbon Partnership Facility
• It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society, and Indigenous Peoples focused on reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, forest carbon stock conservation, the sustainable management of forests, and the enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries (activities commonly referred to as REDD+).
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The World Bank assumes the functions of trustee and secretariat.
• The World Bank, the Inter-American Development Bank and United Nations Development Programme are Delivery Partners under the Readiness Fund and responsible for providing REDD+ readiness support.

Objectives
• To assist countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• To pilot a performance-based payment system for REDD+ activities.
• To test ways to sustain or enhance livelihoods of local communities and to conserve biodiversity.
• To disseminate broadly the knowledge gained in Emission Reductions Programs (ERPs).

It provides financial incentives to countries in their REDD+ efforts. There is no mention of assistance to universities, scientists…
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

BioCarbon Fund Initiative
• The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank.
• It seeks to promote reduced greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), and from sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.

Differences between BS IV and BS VI
• The extent of sulphur is the major difference between Bharat Stage IV and Bharat Stage VI norms.
• BS-IV fuels contain 50 parts per million (ppm) sulphur; the BS-VI grade fuel only has 10 ppm sulphur.
• BS VI can bring:
– PM in diesel cars down by 80 per cent.
– nitrogen oxides from diesel cars by 70 per cent and in petrol cars by 25 per cent.
• BS VI also makes onboard diagnostics (OBD) mandatory for all vehicles.
• OBD device informs the vehicle owner or the repair technician how efficient the systems in the vehicle are.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• RDE (Real Driving Emission) will be introduced for the first time that will measure the emission in real-world conditions and not just under test conditions.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Bharat Stage VI norms will also change the way particulate matter is measured. It will now be measured by number standard instead of mass standard.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Basel Convention
• Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal.
• An international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations.
• Main goal is to prevent the transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDCs).
• It does not address the movement of radioactive waste.

Both the statements are correct.
The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS) is a supplementary agreement to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
The protocol was adopted in 2010 in Nagoya, Japan. It entered into force in October 2014.
The objective of the protocol is the fair and equitable sharing of benefits coming from the utilization of genetic resources and helping in the conservation & sustainable usage of biodiversity. The protocol creates obligations for members to incorporate measures in respect of access to genetic resources, sharing of benefits, and compliance.

Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is incorrect.
The TRAFFIC, the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, is a leading non-governmental organisation working on wildlife trade in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development. It is a joint program of World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
It was established in 1976 and has developed into a global network, research-driven and action-oriented, committed to delivering innovative and practical conservation solutions. Its Headquarters is in Cambridge, United Kingdom.
It aims to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is incorrect.
The Rio Summit, 1992, also called the Earth Summit led to the development of the following documents:
• Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
• Agenda 21
• Forest Principles
The first document called the Rio Declaration, in short, contained 27 principles that were supposed to guide countries in future sustainable development.
Agenda 21 is an action plan concerning sustainable development. It is non-binding on the parties.

Earth Hour is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on environmental issues and protect the planet.
It is organized by World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). Earth Hour was started as a lights out event in Sydney, Australia in 2007.
The annual Earth Hour lights out event is held worldwide toward the end of March to encourage individuals, households, communities and businesses to turn off their non-essential lights for one hour as a symbol for their commitment to the planet.

All the statements given above are correct.
About Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is published by Germanwatch, the New Climate Institute and the Climate Action Network annually since 2005.
It is an independent monitoring tool for tracking the climate protection performance of 57 countries and the European Union. These countries together generate 90%+ of global greenhouse gas emissions.
It aims to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries.
The CCPI looks at four categories, with 14 indicators: Greenhouse Gas Emissions (40% of the overall score), Renewable Energy (20%), Energy Use (20%), and Climate Policy (20%).

Union Cabinet has approved the Ratification of seven chemicals listed under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
The Cabinet has also delegated its powers to ratify chemicals under the Stockholm Convention to the Union Ministers of External Affairs (MEA) and Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in respect of POPs already regulated under the domestic regulations.
These are:
1. Chlordecone.
2. Hexabromobiphenyl.
3. Hexabromodiphenyl ether and Heptabromodiphenylether.
4. Tetrabromodiphenyl ether and Pentabromodiphenyl ether.
5. Pentachlorobenzene.
6. Hexabromocyclododecane.
7. Hexachlorobutadiene.

Both the statements are correct.
UN-REDD Programme is a collaborative programme of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, UNDP and UNEP
The incentives received from REDD to developing countries would be passed on to the local communities involved in the protection and management of the forest.
It partners with developing countries to support them in establishing the technical capacities needed to implement REDD+ and meet UNFCCC requirements for REDD+ results-based payments.

The World Conservation Strategy of 1980 is the first international document on living resource conservation produced with inputs from governments, non-governmental organizations, and other experts. The report argues that for development to be sustainable, it should support conservation rather than hinder it.
It highlights priority conservation issues and ways to tackle them to achieve the Strategy’s aim. The report influenced “Our Common Future,” also known as the “Brundtland Report” (1987) and laid the foundations for defining the principle of sustainable development.
Prepared by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN), the report contains inputs from the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the World Wildlife Fund (WWF), the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), and the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).

Statement 1 and 3 are correct while statement 2 is incorrect.
National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
It was established in 2005 following the recommendations of the Tiger Task Force.
It was constituted under enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006, for strengthening tiger conservation, as per powers and functions assigned to it.
No alteration in the boundaries of a tiger reserve shall be made except on a recommendation of the NTCA and the approval of the National Board for Wild Life.
No State Government shall de-notify a tiger reserve, except in public interest with the approval of the NTCA and the approval of the National Board for Wild Life.

Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is incorrect.
The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the ‘List of Wetlands of International Importance’ where variations in ecological character have happened, are happening, or are likely to happen as an outcome of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference.
At present, there are two Indian sites Loktak Lake, Manipur and Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan on the Montreux Record. Chilika Lake, Odisha was the first Indian site to be placed on Montreux Record in 1993 due to siltation, which was choking the mouth of the lake. After a range of interventions, primarily the successful dredging of lake-mouth, opening it to the Bay of Bengal, it was removed from the list in 2002.