• Central Vigilance Commission is the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilance work.
• The CVC was set up by the Government in February, 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam.
In 2003, the Parliament enacted CVC Act conferring statutory status on the CVC.

The Central Vigilance Commission
• Multi-member Commission consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (Chairperson) and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners (Member).
• The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of Home Affairs (Member) and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People (Member).
• The term of office of the Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners is four years from the date on which they enter their office or till they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• The CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/Department. It is an independent body which is only responsible to the Parliament.

Functions
• It is not an investigating agency. The CVC either gets the investigation done through the CBI or through chief vigilance officers (CVO) in government offices.
• It is empowered to inquire into offences alleged to have been committed under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 by certain categories of public servants.
• Its annual report gives the details of the work done by the commission and points to systemic failures which lead to corruption in government departments.

The 11th Schedule of Indian Constitution was added in 1992 by the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act.
• This schedule contains the following 29 subjects.
1. Agriculture including agricultural expansion
2. Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation.
3. Animal Husbandry, Dairying and poultry
4. Fisheries Industry
5. Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development
6. Social forestry and farm forestry
7. Small scale industries in which food processing industry is involved
8. Minor forest produce
9. Safe water for drinking
10. Khadi, village and cottage industries
11. Rural housing
12. Fuel and fodder
13. Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity
14. Road, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways and other means of communication
15. Education including primary and secondary schools
16. Non-conventional sources of energy
17. Technical training and vocational education
18. Adult and non-formal education
19. Public distribution system
20. Maintenance of community assets
21. Welfare of the weaker sections of the in particular of the schedule caste and schedule tribes
22. Social welfare, including welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded
23. Family welfare
24. Women and child development
25. Markets and Fairs
26. Health and sanitation including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries
27. Cultural activities
28. Libraries
29. Poverty Alleviation Programmes

• It is expected that the subjects covered under the eleventh schedule of the indian constitution are made to ensure the development of the rural India.

Two of the important features of Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 is-
1. The reservation of seats in the Scheduled Areas at every Panchayat shall be in proportion to the population of the communities in that Panchayat for whom reservation is sought to be given under Part IX of the Constitution;
• Provided that the reservation for the Scheduled Tribes shall not be less than one-half of the total number of seats;
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Provided further that all seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for the Scheduled Tribes.
2. The State Government may nominate persons belonging to such Scheduled Tribes which have no representation in the Panchayat at the intermediate level or the Panchayat at the district level: Provided that such nomination shall not exceed one-tenth of the total members to be elected in that Panchayat.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Ninety First Amendment Act, 2003

Amendments:
Made the following provisions to limit the size of Council of Ministers, to debar defectors from holding public offices, and to strengthen the anti-defection law:
• The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Central Council of Ministers, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
• A member of either house of Parliament belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister.
• The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a state shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly of that state. But, the number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state shall not be less than 12.
• A member of either House of a state legislature belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• A member of either House of Parliament or either House of a State Legislature belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to hold any remunerative political post. The expression “remunerative political post” means:
– Any office under the central government or a state government where the salary or remuneration for such office is paid out of the public revenue of the concerned government or,
– Any office under a body, whether incorporated or not, which is wholly or partially owned by the central government or a state government and the salary or,
– Remuneration for such an office is paid by such a body, except where such salary or remuneration paid is compensatory in nature (Article 361-B).
• The provision of the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third members of the legislature party has been deleted. It means that the defectors have no more protection on grounds of splits.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in the Eighth Schedule by the Ninety Second Amendment Act, 2003. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Article 338B was added into the Constitution after Articles 338 and 338A through One Hundred and Second Amendment Act, 2018. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Committees related to electoral reforms:
1. The Tarkunde commiittee (1974)
2. The Dinesh Goswami committee report on electoral reforms (1990)
3. The Vohra Committee on the nexus between crime and politics (1993)
4. The Indrajit Gupta committee report on state funding of elections (1998)
5. The Tankha committee to look into the whole gamut of the elction laws and electoral reforms (2010)

A committee was formed by government of India in 2005, with Tendulkar as chairman to ‘report on methodology of estimation of poverty’.

National Parties
1. A party should win 2% of seats in the Lok sabha from at least three different states. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
2. At a general election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, the party polls 6% of votes in any four or more states and in addition it wins four Lok Sabha seats. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
3. A party gets recognition as a state party in four states. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Schedule Tribes
• As per Census-1931, Schedule tribes are termed as “backward tribes” living in the “Excluded” and “Partially Excluded” areas. The Government of India Act of 1935 called for the first time for representatives of “backward tribes” in provincial assemblies.
• The Constitution does not define the criteria for recognition of Scheduled Tribes and hence the definition contained in 1931 Census was used in initial years after independence.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• However, Article 366(25) of the Constitution only provides process to define Scheduled Tribes: “Scheduled Tribes means such tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within such tribes or tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of this Constitution.”
– 342(1): The President may with respect to any State or Union Territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor, by a public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or part of or groups within tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribe in relation to that State or Union Territory.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• There are over 700 tribes which have been notified.
• The largest number of tribal communities (62) are found in Odisha.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• No Tribe was identified in Haryana, Punjab, Chandigarh, Delhi, and Pondicherry.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Few Related Committees:
• The Lokur Committee (1965) was set up to look into criteria for defining Schedule Tribes. The Committee recommended 5 criteria for identification, namely, primitive traits, distinct culture, geographical isolation, shyness of contact with the community at large, and backwardness.
• Bhuria Commission (2002-2004) focused on a wide range of issues from the 5th Schedule to tribal land and forests, health and education, the working of Panchayats and the status of tribal women.
• A High-Level Committee (HLC) in 2013, under chairmanship of Prof. Virginius Xaxa was constituted to study the 5 critical issues related to tribal communities : (1) livelihood and employment, (2) education, (3) health, (4) involuntary displacement and migration, (5) and legal and constitutional matters.

National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
• Formation: NCST was set up with effect from 19th February, 2004 by amending Article 338 and by inserting a new article 338A in the Constitution through the 89th Constitution Amendment Act, 2003. Hence, it is a constitutional body.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Objective: Article 338A inter-alia gives powers to the to NCST oversee the implementation of various safeguards provided to STs under the Constitution or under any other law for time being in force or under any other order to the Government and to evaluate the working of such safeguards.
• Composition : It consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson and 3 other Members who are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.)
– At least one member should be a woman.
– The Chairperson, the Vice-Chairperson and the other Members hold office for a term of 3 years.
– The members are not eligible for appointment for more than two terms.
• The Chairperson has been given the rank of Union Cabinet Ministers, the Vice Chairperson has the rank of a Minister of State and other Members have the rank of a Secretary to the Government of India.

Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG) and Public Accounts Committee (PAC)
• PAC is a Parliamentary Standing Committee created under GOI Act, 1919.
• CAG audit reports are handed over to the PACs at the centre and at the state.
• Three CAG reports i.e. audit report on appropriation accounts, audit report on finance accounts and audit report on public sector undertakings are examined by PAC.
• At the central level, these reports are submitted by CAG to president, who makes them to be laid in parliament.
• CAG also assists the committee in its deliberations by preparing a list of the most urgent matters which deserve the attention of the PAC.
• He also helps in making the actions of the committee clear to the witnesses and in making the action of the government clear to the committee.
• CAG position is sometimes one of interpreter and translator, explaining the officials’ views to the politicians and vice-versa.
• The responsibility of the CAG does not end here. He has to watch whether the corrective action suggested by him has been taken or not. In cases whether it has not been taken, he reports the matter to the PAC which will take up the matter.

Solicitor General of India
• Solicitor General is the second highest law officer in the country.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• He is subordinate to the Attorney General of India, the highest law officer and works under him. (Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House).
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• He also advises the government in legal matters.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Solicitor general is appointed for period of three years by Appointment Committee of Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister.
(Office and duties of Attorney General is created by Constitution under Article 76).
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• While, Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor Generals’ office and duties are governed by Law Officers (Conditions of Service) Rules, 1987 and not by Constitution (thus they are statutory posts and not constitutional).
• Moreover, attorney generals has right to participate in the proceedings of Parliament, but cannot vote.
• Whereas, Solicitor General and Additional Solicitor Generals’ do not have these rights with respect to participation in parliament.
Hence, statement 5 is incorrect.

Delimitation Commission
• Under Article 82 of the Constitution, the Parliament by law enacts a Delimitation Act after every census.
• After coming into force the commencement of the Act, the Central Government constitutes a Delimitation Commission.
• This Delimitation Commission demarcates the boundaries of the Parliamentary Constituencies as per provisions of the Delimitation Act.
• The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of the 2001 census figures under the provisions of Delimitation Act, 2002.
• Notwithstanding the above, the Constitution of India was specifically amended in 2002 not to have delimitation of constituencies till the first census after 2026. Thus, the present Constituencies carved out on the basis of the 2001 census shall continue to be in operation till the first census after 2026.

Right to Vote
• Apart from Article 326 of the Constitution ( that guarantees the right to vote to every citizen above the age of 18 years, unless disqualified by any law), Section 62 of the RPA,1951 also ensures that every person who is in the electoral roll of that constituency is entitled to vote.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• One person can vote at one constituency only and only for one time in a particular election.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• If a person is confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation, then he is not eligible for voting, however, in the case of preventive custody, he can vote.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
– In 2014, the ECI had said that the person under preventive custody had the right to vote, but not under-trials and convicts.
– However, the Act allows those serving sentences less than 2 years to contest elections from prison.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Voluntary Contributions
• Voluntary contributions by any person or company within India ( other than a government company) can be accepted by the registered political party.
• A company can donate any amount of money to any political party.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• There is no obligation of the company to report such donations in its profit and loss account.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is mandatory for the political parties to submit to the ECI a list of donations they received above Rs. 2,000.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Political parties cannot receive more than Rs 2000 as cash donations.
• Now, political parties are eligible to accept contributions from foreign companies defined under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.

The Lokpal and Lokayuktas (Amendment) Bill, 2016
• This Bill was passed by Parliament in July 2016 and amended the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• It enables the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha to be a member of the selection committee in the absence of a recognized Leader of Opposition.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It also amended section 44 of the 2013 Act that deals with the provision of furnishing of details of assets and liabilities of public servants within 30 days of joining the government service.
– The Bill replaces the time limit of 30 days, now the public servants will make a declaration of their assets and liabilities in the form and manner as prescribed by the government.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• It also gives an extension of the time given to trustees and board members to declare their assets and those of their spouses in case of these are receiving government funds of more than Rs. 1 crore or foreign funding of more than Rs. 10 lakh.

Central Administrative Tribunal Jurisdiction
• The CAT exercises original jurisdiction over all service matters concerned with:
1. Members of the all-India services.
2. Persons appointed to any civil service of the Union or civil post under the Union.
3. Civilians appointed to any defence services or posts related to defence.
4. Employees of PSUs or public sector organizations notified by the government.

Members of the defence forces, officers, Supreme Court staff, the Parliament’s secretarial staff are not covered under the CAT.

Under Article 323 B, the Parliament and the state legislatures are authorised to provide for the establishment of tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to the following matters:
• Taxation
• Foreign exchange, import and export
• Industrial and labour
• Land reforms
• Ceiling on urban property
• Elections to Parliament and state legislatures
• Food stuff
• Rent and tenancy rights.

Who Can File a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) and Against Whom?
• Any citizen can file a public case by filing a petition:
– Under Art 32 of the Indian Constitution, in the Supreme Court. (Hence, statement 1 is correct).
– Under Art 226 of the Indian Constitution, in the High Court.
– Under sec. 133 of the Criminal Procedure Code, in the Court of Magistrate.
• However, the court must be satisfied that the Writ petition fulfils some basic needs for PIL as the letter is addressed by the aggrieved person, public spirited individual and a social action group for the enforcement of legal or Constitutional rights to any person who are not able to approach the court for redress.
• A Public Interest Litigation can be filed against a State/ Central Govt., Municipal Authorities, and not any private party. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect).
The definition of State is the same as given under Article 12 of the Constitution and this includes the Governmental and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.

The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
In this context, it made the following three changes in the Constitution:
1. It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19).
2. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43-B).
3. It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled as “The Cooperative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).

The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese
(2) Bengali
(3) Gujarati
(4) Hindi
(5) Kannada
(6) Kashmiri
(7) Konkani
(8) Malayalam
(9) Manipuri
(10) Marathi
(11) Nepali
(12) Oriya
(13) Punjabi
(14) Sanskrit
(15) Sindhi
(16) Tamil
(17) Telugu
(18) Urdu
(19) Bodo
(20) Santhali
(21) Maithili and
(22) Dogri.
• Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution.
• Sindhi language was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967.
• Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali were included by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992.
• Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added by 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.

• The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission (EC) to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections.
• It helps EC in keeping with the mandate it has been given under Article 324 of the Constitution, which gives it the power to supervise and conduct free and fair elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.
• The MCC is operational from the date on which the election schedule is announced until the date of result announcement.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Legal Enforcement:
• Though MCC does not have any statutory backing, it has come to acquire strength in the past decade because of its strict enforcement by the EC.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Certain provisions of the MCC may be enforced through invoking corresponding provisions in other statutes such as the Indian Penal Code 1860, Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, and Representation of the People Act 1951.
• In 2013, the Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice, recommended making the MCC legally binding and recommended that the MCC be made a part of the RPA 1951.
Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• However, the EC argues against making it legally binding. (Hence, statement 3 is incorrect).
– According to it, elections must be completed within a relatively short time or close to 45 days and judicial proceedings typically take longer, therefore it is not feasible to make it enforceable by law.