Quiz-summary
0 of 5 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
Information
Dear students,
1. In the comments section, share your score and also let everyone know the logic you’ve used to mark certain answers. This will trigger intelligent discussions benefitting everyone.
2. Completing the test should be your top priority. Focus on accuracy rather than simply attempting more questions. Give enough thought to each question, we have increased the time limit so you can do this.
3. At the end of the test, click on ‘View Questions’ button to check the solutions.
*You can attempt the test multiple times for your own practice but only your first attempt will be counted for rankings.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 5 questions answered correctly.
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points (0).
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsThe Supreme Court recently invoked its sweeping powers under Article 142 of the Constitution. In this regard, consider the following statements:
1. Article 142 of the Indian Constitution provides a exceptional powers to the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice” sometimes.
2. The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree, which is enforceable throughout the territory of India.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?”Correct
Answer: (c)
Both the statements are correct.
Extraordinary Power to the Supreme Court
• Article 142 provides a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice” between the parties, where at times law or statute may not provide a remedy.
• In those situations, the Court can extend itself to put a quietus to a dispute in a manner that would fit the facts of the case.
• Article 142(1) states that “The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or order so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India.
• Manohar Lal Sharma v. Principal Secretary- the Supreme Court can deal with exceptional circumstances interfering with the larger interest of the public in order to fabricate trust in the rule of law.
• The necessity for incorporating such an article into the Constitution was spelt out in the Constituent Assembly.
• The framers of the Constitution felt that this provision is of utmost significance to those people who have to suffer due to the delay in getting their necessary reliefs due to the disadvantaged position of the judicial system.Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Both the statements are correct.
Extraordinary Power to the Supreme Court
• Article 142 provides a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice” between the parties, where at times law or statute may not provide a remedy.
• In those situations, the Court can extend itself to put a quietus to a dispute in a manner that would fit the facts of the case.
• Article 142(1) states that “The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or order so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India.
• Manohar Lal Sharma v. Principal Secretary- the Supreme Court can deal with exceptional circumstances interfering with the larger interest of the public in order to fabricate trust in the rule of law.
• The necessity for incorporating such an article into the Constitution was spelt out in the Constituent Assembly.
• The framers of the Constitution felt that this provision is of utmost significance to those people who have to suffer due to the delay in getting their necessary reliefs due to the disadvantaged position of the judicial system. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsThe Centre recently announced the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane for sugar season 2023-24 (October-September). In this regarding, consider the following statements:
1. FRPs are determined on the recommendation of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
2. The State Advised Prices (SAP) are announced by key sugarcane producing states which fairly equals the FRP.
3. FRP is the minimum price that sugar mills have to pay to sugarcane farmers, while MSP is the minimum sale price of sugar.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?”Correct
Answer: (a)
Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Price Determination of Sugarcane
• Sugarcane prices are determined by both Central Government and State Government.
• FRP is the minimum price that the sugar mills have to pay to farmers. Hence statements 1 is correct.
• The ‘FRP’ of sugarcane is determined under Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 issued under the Essential Commodities Act.
• The Central Government announces Fair and Remunerative Prices which are determined on the recommendation of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and are announced by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, which is chaired by Prime Minister. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The State Advised Prices (SAP) are announced by key sugarcane producing states which are generally higher than FRP. Hence statement 2 is NOT correct.Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Price Determination of Sugarcane
• Sugarcane prices are determined by both Central Government and State Government.
• FRP is the minimum price that the sugar mills have to pay to farmers. Hence statements 1 is correct.
• The ‘FRP’ of sugarcane is determined under Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 issued under the Essential Commodities Act.
• The Central Government announces Fair and Remunerative Prices which are determined on the recommendation of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) and are announced by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, which is chaired by Prime Minister. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The State Advised Prices (SAP) are announced by key sugarcane producing states which are generally higher than FRP. Hence statement 2 is NOT correct. -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Raisina Dialogue:
1. It is held annually since 2016 in New Delhi.
2. It is organised by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) in partnership with the Ministry of Defence.
3. It is modelled on Munich Security Conference organized by Germany.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?Correct
Answer: (a)
Only statement 1 is correct.
What is Raisina Dialogue?
• The Raisina Dialogue is an annual multilateral conference.
• The inaugural edition was held in March 2016.
• It is held in New Delhi, India.
• It is organized by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) and held in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs of India.
• It is modelled after Singapore’s Shangri-La Dialogue.
• The dialogue brings together policymakers, experts, scholars, and leaders from various fields.
• It focuses on discussing geopolitical, economic, and strategic issues facing the world.Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Only statement 1 is correct.
What is Raisina Dialogue?
• The Raisina Dialogue is an annual multilateral conference.
• The inaugural edition was held in March 2016.
• It is held in New Delhi, India.
• It is organized by the Observer Research Foundation (ORF) and held in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs of India.
• It is modelled after Singapore’s Shangri-La Dialogue.
• The dialogue brings together policymakers, experts, scholars, and leaders from various fields.
• It focuses on discussing geopolitical, economic, and strategic issues facing the world. -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsQ.4) Which of the following statements is correct regarding ‘Helium Stars’?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Helium fusion begins in the core of these stars, leading to the formation of heavier elements like carbon and oxygen.
Helium stars, also known as helium-burning stars, are typically more massive stars that have exhausted their hydrogen fuel in their cores. This leads to helium fusion in the core, where helium nuclei fuse to form heavier elements like carbon and oxygen. This fusion process releases energy, causing the star to expand and become more luminous. Helium stars represent an intermediate stage in stellar evolution between main-sequence stars and later stages such as red giants or supernovae.Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Helium fusion begins in the core of these stars, leading to the formation of heavier elements like carbon and oxygen.
Helium stars, also known as helium-burning stars, are typically more massive stars that have exhausted their hydrogen fuel in their cores. This leads to helium fusion in the core, where helium nuclei fuse to form heavier elements like carbon and oxygen. This fusion process releases energy, causing the star to expand and become more luminous. Helium stars represent an intermediate stage in stellar evolution between main-sequence stars and later stages such as red giants or supernovae. -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsQ.5) Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding Cryogenic Engines?
Correct
Answer: (d)
They are highly efficient due to the high energy density of cryogenic fuels and provide greater thrust compared to traditional rocket engines. This greater thrust makes them suitable for launching heavy payloads into space. Cryogenic engines are commonly used in the upper stages of space launch vehicles to propel payloads from initial launch phases into desired orbits. They operate at extremely low temperatures, typically below -150°C (-238°F) for liquid hydrogen and below -183°C (-297°F) for liquid oxygen.Incorrect
Answer: (d)
They are highly efficient due to the high energy density of cryogenic fuels and provide greater thrust compared to traditional rocket engines. This greater thrust makes them suitable for launching heavy payloads into space. Cryogenic engines are commonly used in the upper stages of space launch vehicles to propel payloads from initial launch phases into desired orbits. They operate at extremely low temperatures, typically below -150°C (-238°F) for liquid hydrogen and below -183°C (-297°F) for liquid oxygen.
Leaderboard: 22nd February 2024 | Prelims Daily with Previous Year Questions
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
UPSC 2024 countdown has begun! Get your personal guidance plan now! (Click here)