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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements with regards to the term ‘Republic ’ is/are correct?
1. Every democratic country is also a de facto republic.
2. In Presidential Government the Head of the State is indirectly elected while in a Republic, Head of the State is directly elected.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:”Correct
Both Statements are Incorrect.
A democratic polity can be classified into two categories — monarchy and republic.
A republic also means two more things: one, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual ; second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen.
There are many democratic countries which have Monarchs as their Head of the State hence they are Democracy but not Republic. Example Britain.
In Republics, the head of the State is elected through either be direct or indirect election. Ex. India is republic country in which head of state is elected indirectly and USA is Presidential Government in which the Head of the State is directly elected.Incorrect
Both Statements are Incorrect.
A democratic polity can be classified into two categories — monarchy and republic.
A republic also means two more things: one, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual ; second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen.
There are many democratic countries which have Monarchs as their Head of the State hence they are Democracy but not Republic. Example Britain.
In Republics, the head of the State is elected through either be direct or indirect election. Ex. India is republic country in which head of state is elected indirectly and USA is Presidential Government in which the Head of the State is directly elected. -
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following is/are NOT Fundamental Duties of Citizens of India?
1. To defend the country.
2. To vote in general elections.
3. To strive towards excellence.
Select the correct answer using the codes given belowCorrect
Option 2 is Incorrect.
Fundamental Duties:
1. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to.
2. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or Sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
3. To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture.
4. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.
5. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
6. To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
7. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
8. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
9. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
11. To provide opportunities for education by the parent the guardian, to his child, or a ward between the age of 6-14 years as the case may be.Tikdam: “ODD ONE OUT”
Even after a general reading of Laxmikanth, you can tell that, voting in elections is not a fundamental duty. There is only one option that has statement 2 i.e. option B. Thus you arrive at the right answer even if you are not sure of the other statements.Incorrect
Option 2 is Incorrect.
Fundamental Duties:
1. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to.
2. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or Sectional diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
3. To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture.
4. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.
5. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
6. To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
7. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
8. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
9. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
11. To provide opportunities for education by the parent the guardian, to his child, or a ward between the age of 6-14 years as the case may be.Tikdam: “ODD ONE OUT”
Even after a general reading of Laxmikanth, you can tell that, voting in elections is not a fundamental duty. There is only one option that has statement 2 i.e. option B. Thus you arrive at the right answer even if you are not sure of the other statements. -
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding formation of states
1. New states like Sikkim were created by invoking article 3 after independence.
2. It is not considered as constitutional amendment under article 368.
Which of the statements mentioned above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is Incorrect.
we should note that Article 2 confers full discretion on the Parliament as to what terms should be imposed on the new states so admitted (BY ACQUISITION) to the union. Parliament may by law means that whenever a new state is established,a legislation will require to be enacted.
Under this law, the Parliament can admit new states after ACQUIRING them. Sikkim was admitted as a state in Indian union on 26 April 1975.
Article 2 provides for the admission or establishment of new states (which were previously not part of India). E.g. Sikkim
Whereas Article 3 provides for the formation or changes in the existing states of India. E.g. Chhattisgarh.Incorrect
Statement 1 is Incorrect.
we should note that Article 2 confers full discretion on the Parliament as to what terms should be imposed on the new states so admitted (BY ACQUISITION) to the union. Parliament may by law means that whenever a new state is established,a legislation will require to be enacted.
Under this law, the Parliament can admit new states after ACQUIRING them. Sikkim was admitted as a state in Indian union on 26 April 1975.
Article 2 provides for the admission or establishment of new states (which were previously not part of India). E.g. Sikkim
Whereas Article 3 provides for the formation or changes in the existing states of India. E.g. Chhattisgarh. -
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements with regards to citizenship is/are correct?
1. Constitution does not confer the Right to Freedom (Article 19) on aliens (foreigners).
2. In India only a citizen by birth is eligible for the office of President and not a naturalized citizen.
Select the correct answer from the codes given belowCorrect
Statement 2 is Incorrect.
The Constitution does not confer Article 19 i.e. the right to freedom (freedom for six rights) on aliens. It is conferred only on the Indian citizens.
In India both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalised citizen are eligible for the office of President of India. On the contrary, in USA only a person by birth can become President of USA.
According to the Citizenship Act of 1955, there are four ways a person can acquire Indian citizenship:-
-Birth
-Descent
-Registration and
-Naturalisation.
Provisions for the same are listed under sections 3, 4, 5 and 6 of the Citizenship Act, 1955.Incorrect
Statement 2 is Incorrect.
The Constitution does not confer Article 19 i.e. the right to freedom (freedom for six rights) on aliens. It is conferred only on the Indian citizens.
In India both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalised citizen are eligible for the office of President of India. On the contrary, in USA only a person by birth can become President of USA.
According to the Citizenship Act of 1955, there are four ways a person can acquire Indian citizenship:-
-Birth
-Descent
-Registration and
-Naturalisation.
Provisions for the same are listed under sections 3, 4, 5 and 6 of the Citizenship Act, 1955. -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct about the Indian Constitution?
1. Ninth schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. In I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court removed immunity of Ninth Schedule from Judicial Review.
Select the correct answer from the codes given belowCorrect
Both Statements are Correct.
Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951.
In a significant judgment delivered in I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that there could not be any blanket immunity from judicial review of laws included in the Ninth Schedule.
NOTE:
The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which “cannot be challenged” in courts. Currently, 284 such laws are shielded from judicial review.
The Schedule became a part of the Constitution in 1951, when the document was amended for the first time. It was created by the new Article 31B, which along with 31A was brought in by the government to protect laws related to agrarian reform and for abolishing the Zamindari system. While A. 31A extends protection to ‘classes’ of laws, A. 31B shields specific laws or enactments.
Although Article 31B excludes judicial review, the apex court has said in the past that even laws under the Ninth Schedule would be open to scrutiny if they violated fundamental rights or the basic structure of the Constitution.Incorrect
Both Statements are Correct.
Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951.
In a significant judgment delivered in I.R. Coelho case (2007), the Supreme Court ruled that there could not be any blanket immunity from judicial review of laws included in the Ninth Schedule.
NOTE:
The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which “cannot be challenged” in courts. Currently, 284 such laws are shielded from judicial review.
The Schedule became a part of the Constitution in 1951, when the document was amended for the first time. It was created by the new Article 31B, which along with 31A was brought in by the government to protect laws related to agrarian reform and for abolishing the Zamindari system. While A. 31A extends protection to ‘classes’ of laws, A. 31B shields specific laws or enactments.
Although Article 31B excludes judicial review, the apex court has said in the past that even laws under the Ninth Schedule would be open to scrutiny if they violated fundamental rights or the basic structure of the Constitution. -
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements about Article 32 of the Indian Constitution is/are correct?
1. It is considered as heart & soul of the Constitution.
2. Under this article both Supreme Court and High Court can issue Writs.
Select the correct answer from the codes given belowCorrect
Statement 1 is Correct.
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In other words, the right to get the Fundamental Rights protected is in itself a fundamental right. This makes the fundamental rights real.
Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important article of the Constitution, ‘an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it’.
The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of an amendment to the Constitution.
Under Article 32 only Supreme Court has power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights and not High Courts. High Courts can issue writs under Article 226.Incorrect
-
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsWhich the following statements with reference to the Emergency Powers of the President is/are correct?
1. He can declare National Emergency even before onset of war.
2. He must be communicated in writing for declaration of National Emergency by the Union Cabinet.
3. He can suspend Fundamental Rights during National Emergency.
Select the correct answer from the codes given belowCorrect
All Statements are Correct.
Under Article 352 President can declare national emergency when security of India threatened by war or external aggression. He can declare national emergency even before actual occurrence of war.
The President can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the prime minister.
The President can suspend Fundamental Rights during National Emergency. Article 358 deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19, while Article 359 deals with the suspension of other Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21).Incorrect
All Statements are Correct.
Under Article 352 President can declare national emergency when security of India threatened by war or external aggression. He can declare national emergency even before actual occurrence of war.
The President can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the prime minister.
The President can suspend Fundamental Rights during National Emergency. Article 358 deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19, while Article 359 deals with the suspension of other Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21). -
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is/are correct with reference to concept of ‘Secularism’ as mentioned in Indian Constitution?
1. The word ‘Secular’ is mentioned in the Constitution several times.
2. Indian Secularism is distinct from Western Secularism.
3. Secularism is an element of Basic Structure of the Constitution.
Select the correct answer from the codes given belowCorrect
Statement 1 is Incorrect.
The term ‘Secular’ was added in preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 and besides this it is nowhere mention in the constitution.The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between the religion (the church) and the state (the politics). This negative concept of secularism is inapplicable in the Indian situation where the society is multireligious. Hence, the Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism, i.e., giving equal respect to all religions or protecting all religions equally
The Supreme Court in S.R. Bommai case ruled that secularism forms the basic structure of the Indian Constitution and cannot be done away with even by a constitutional amendment.
Tikdam:
“OBVIOUS WORDPLAY”
Even after a single reading of polity, you can tell that though the term ‘secular’ is mentioned in the constitution, it is not mentioned several times.
Eliminate statement 1 and you are left only with correct answer i.e. option B.Incorrect
-
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct regarding Regulating Act of 1773?
1. It recognized for the fi rst time, the political and administrative functions of the Company.
2. It made the Governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies independent to the Governor General of Bengal.
3. It distinguished between the Commercial and the political functions of the Company.
Select the correct answer from the code given belowCorrect
Statements 2 and 3 are Incorrect.
It recognized, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company.
– It laid the foundations of central administration in India.
– It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. The fi rst such Governor-General was Lord Warren Hastings.
It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the Governor General of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another.
– It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) comprising one chief justice and three other judges.
– It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the ‘natives’.
– It strengthened the control of the British Government over the Company by requiring the Court of Directors (governing body of the Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India.
It was the Pitts India Act which distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company.Incorrect
-
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are Federeal features of Indian Constitution?
1. Bicameralism
2. Written Constitution
3. Supremacy of the Constitution
4. Single Citizenship
Select the correct answer from the codes given belowCorrect
Option 4 is Incorrect.
A bicameral system is considered essential in a federation because it is in the Upper House alone that the units can be given equal representation. The Constitution of India also provides for a bicameral Legislature at the Centre consisting of LokSabha and RajyaSabha.
The Indian Constitution is a written document containing 395 Articles and 12 schedules, and therefore, fulfi ls this basic requirement of a federal government. In fact, the Indian Constitution is the most elaborate Constitution of the world.
India’s Constitution is also supreme and not the hand-made of either the Centre or of the States. If for any reason any organ of the State dares to violate any provision of the Constitution, the courts of laws are there to ensure that dignity of the Constitution is upheld at all costs.
Single Citizenship is not the feature of Federalism. It is the feature of a Unitary Constitution.
Tikdam:
“ODD ONE OUT”
It is quite easy to make out that Single Citizenship cannot be a federal feature. Thus you are left only with options A and C.
Again, option C is stronger compared to option A.
This is relatively an easy question that can be solved by eliminating the odd option.Incorrect
Option 4 is Incorrect.
A bicameral system is considered essential in a federation because it is in the Upper House alone that the units can be given equal representation. The Constitution of India also provides for a bicameral Legislature at the Centre consisting of LokSabha and RajyaSabha.
The Indian Constitution is a written document containing 395 Articles and 12 schedules, and therefore, fulfi ls this basic requirement of a federal government. In fact, the Indian Constitution is the most elaborate Constitution of the world.
India’s Constitution is also supreme and not the hand-made of either the Centre or of the States. If for any reason any organ of the State dares to violate any provision of the Constitution, the courts of laws are there to ensure that dignity of the Constitution is upheld at all costs.
Single Citizenship is not the feature of Federalism. It is the feature of a Unitary Constitution.
Tikdam:
“ODD ONE OUT”
It is quite easy to make out that Single Citizenship cannot be a federal feature. Thus you are left only with options A and C.
Again, option C is stronger compared to option A.
This is relatively an easy question that can be solved by eliminating the odd option. -
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Fundamental Rights:
1. State legislatures shall have the power to modify the application of the fundamental rights to the members of Police Forces so as to ensure the proper discharge of their duties.
2. The Parliament may enact a law stating that certain jobs can only be filled by applicants who are domiciled in the area.
Which of the above statements state the limitations upon the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights?Correct
Statement 1 is Incorrect.
Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies and analogous forces.
The objective of this provision is to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline among them.
The power to make laws under Article 33 is conferred only on Parliament and not on state legislatures. Any such law made by Parliament cannot be challenged in any court on the ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights
Article 35 lays down that the power to make laws, to give effect to certain specified fundamental rights shall vest only in the Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
Article 16 provides for Prescribing residence as a condition for certain employments or appointments in a state or union territory or local authority or other authorityIncorrect
Statement 1 is Incorrect.
Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies and analogous forces.
The objective of this provision is to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline among them.
The power to make laws under Article 33 is conferred only on Parliament and not on state legislatures. Any such law made by Parliament cannot be challenged in any court on the ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights
Article 35 lays down that the power to make laws, to give effect to certain specified fundamental rights shall vest only in the Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
Article 16 provides for Prescribing residence as a condition for certain employments or appointments in a state or union territory or local authority or other authority -
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
1. The act abolished the East India Company, and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown.
2. It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors.
3. It created a new office of the Viceroy of India, who was the member of the British Cabinet.
Which of the above statements are correct with respect to the ‘Act for the Good Government of India’?Correct
Statement 3 is Incorrect.
Government of India Act, 1858 (Act for the Good Government of India):
The act abolished the East India Company, and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown.
It provided that India henceforth was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India.
It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors.
It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. The secretary of state was a member of the British cabinet and was responsible ultimately to the British Parliament.
It established a 15-member Council of India to assist the secretary of state for India. The council was an advisory body. The secretary of state was made the chairman of the council.Incorrect
Statement 3 is Incorrect.
Government of India Act, 1858 (Act for the Good Government of India):
The act abolished the East India Company, and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown.
It provided that India henceforth was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India.
It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors.
It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. The secretary of state was a member of the British cabinet and was responsible ultimately to the British Parliament.
It established a 15-member Council of India to assist the secretary of state for India. The council was an advisory body. The secretary of state was made the chairman of the council. -
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsAgainst which of the following authorities can the writ Mandamus be issued?
1. Against private individual linked to PPP.
2. Against the Chief Justice of High Court acting in judicial capacity.
3. Against the President of India.
Select the answer using the codes given belowCorrect
All Statements are Incorrect.
Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his offi cial duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.
The writ of mandamus cannot be issued:
– against a private individual or body like PPP;
– to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force;
– when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory;
– to enforce a contractual obligation;
– against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity
– against the president of India or the state Governors.Incorrect
All Statements are Incorrect.
Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his offi cial duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.
The writ of mandamus cannot be issued:
– against a private individual or body like PPP;
– to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force;
– when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory;
– to enforce a contractual obligation;
– against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity
– against the president of India or the state Governors. -
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsonsider the following statements
1. Parliament by law can extend power to issue writs to any other courts.
2. Writs are extra constitutional rights given to judiciary by the Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are correct with respect to Writs?Correct
Statement 2 is Incorrect.
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of an aggrieved citizen. In other words, the right to get the Fundamental Rights protected is in itself a Fundamental Right. This makes the Fundamental Rights real.
That is why Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it’. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution.
Parliament by law can extend power to issue writs to any other courts (including local courts) for local limits of jurisdiction of such courts.
Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Court under Article 226 empowered by Constitution to issue writs.Incorrect
Statement 2 is Incorrect.
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of an aggrieved citizen. In other words, the right to get the Fundamental Rights protected is in itself a Fundamental Right. This makes the Fundamental Rights real.
That is why Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it’. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution.
Parliament by law can extend power to issue writs to any other courts (including local courts) for local limits of jurisdiction of such courts.
Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Court under Article 226 empowered by Constitution to issue writs. -
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights is/are correct?
1. Fundamental Rights are not absolute in nature.
2. These Rights are available against the arbitrary actions of the State as well as the private individuals.
Select the correct answer from the codes given belowCorrect
Both Statements are Correct.
They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts. Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control.
Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals. When the rights that are available against the State’s action only and are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies.Incorrect
Both Statements are Correct.
They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts. Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control.
Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals. When the rights that are available against the State’s action only and are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies. -
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements related to President’s Rule
1. President’s Rule is imposed when the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
2. Once President’s Rule is imposed, the council of ministers is suspended and the state comes under the Central government’s direct control.
Which of the above statements are correct?Correct
Both Statements are Correct.
Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
The President can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (i.e., even without the governor’s report).
Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
The President acquires the following extraordinary powers when the President’s Rule is imposed in a state:
– He can take up the functions of the State government and powers vested in the Governor or any other executive authority in the state.
– He can declare that the powers of the State legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.
– He can take all other necessary steps including the suspension of the constitutional provisions relating to anybody or authority in the state.Incorrect
Both Statements are Correct.
Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
The President can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (i.e., even without the governor’s report).
Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
The President acquires the following extraordinary powers when the President’s Rule is imposed in a state:
– He can take up the functions of the State government and powers vested in the Governor or any other executive authority in the state.
– He can declare that the powers of the State legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.
– He can take all other necessary steps including the suspension of the constitutional provisions relating to anybody or authority in the state. -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are not the Directive Principles of State Policy based on Socialist principles?
1. Free legal aid to the poor.
2. Participation of workers in the management of industries.
3. Protection and improvement of the environment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given belowCorrect
Statement 3 is Incorrect.
DPSP based on Socialist Principle:
To secure (a) the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens; (b) the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good; (c) prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production; (d) equal pay for equal work for men and women; (e) preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and (f) opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39A).
To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement (Article 41).
To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42).
To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers (Article 43).
To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43A).
To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47).Incorrect
Statement 3 is Incorrect.
DPSP based on Socialist Principle:
To secure (a) the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens; (b) the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good; (c) prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production; (d) equal pay for equal work for men and women; (e) preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and (f) opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39A).
To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement (Article 41).
To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42).
To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers (Article 43).
To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43A).
To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47). -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct regarding Article 14 of the Constitution?
1. ‘Equal Protection of law’ is the positive obligation on the state to ensure equal protection of laws by bringing in necessary social and economic changes.
2. Fundamental Rights enshrined under Article 14 are only for Citizen of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes belowCorrect
Statement 2 is Incorrect.
Equality before Law:
– The absence of any special privileges in favour of any person.
– The equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts.
– No person (whether rich or poor, high or low, offi cial or non-offi cial) is above the law.
Equal Protection of Laws:
– The equality of treatment under equal circumstances, both in the privileges conferred and liabilities imposed by the laws.
– The similar application of the same laws to all persons who are similarly situated.
– The like should be treated alike without any discrimination.
Thus, the former is a negative concept while the latter is a positive concept. However, both of them aim at establishing equality of legal status, opportunity and justice.
Article 14 is available to both citizens & foreigners except enemy aliens.
Thus, the former is a negative concept while the latter is a positive concept. However, both of them aim at establishing equality of legal status, opportunity and justice.Incorrect
Statement 2 is Incorrect.
Equality before Law:
– The absence of any special privileges in favour of any person.
– The equal subjection of all persons to the ordinary law of the land administered by ordinary law courts.
– No person (whether rich or poor, high or low, offi cial or non-offi cial) is above the law.
Equal Protection of Laws:
– The equality of treatment under equal circumstances, both in the privileges conferred and liabilities imposed by the laws.
– The similar application of the same laws to all persons who are similarly situated.
– The like should be treated alike without any discrimination.
Thus, the former is a negative concept while the latter is a positive concept. However, both of them aim at establishing equality of legal status, opportunity and justice.
Article 14 is available to both citizens & foreigners except enemy aliens.
Thus, the former is a negative concept while the latter is a positive concept. However, both of them aim at establishing equality of legal status, opportunity and justice. -
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following Statements
1.The President can pardon death sentence while governor cannot.
2.Both President and Governor cannot pardon sentences inflicted by court martial (military courts).
Which of the above statements about pardoning power of the President & Governor is/are Correct?Correct
Statement 2 is Incorrect.
-The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial (military courts) while the governor cannot.
-The President can pardon death sentence while governor cannot. Even if a state law prescribes death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies with the President and not the governor. However, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence. In other words, both the governor and the President have concurrent power in respect of suspension, remission and commutation of death sentence.Incorrect
Statement 2 is Incorrect.
-The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial (military courts) while the governor cannot.
-The President can pardon death sentence while governor cannot. Even if a state law prescribes death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies with the President and not the governor. However, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence. In other words, both the governor and the President have concurrent power in respect of suspension, remission and commutation of death sentence. -
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements are correct regarding Ordinance?
1. An ordinance can be issued only when both the House are not in session.
2. It can be issued to amend the Constitution.
3. An ordinance cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights.
Select the correct answer from the codes given belowCorrect
Statements 1 and 2 are Incorrect.
-An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.
-It cannot be issued to amend the constitution.
-An ordinance cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights.
Tikdam:
“MASTER SHIFU”
Here you need to have a high risk appetite. Statement 2 states that an ordinance can amens the constitution. now, we know that an ordinance is an emergency measure when the Parliament is not in session. Also, even a beginner can say that a Constitutional Amendment requires a special majority.
Juxtaposing these two pieces of information, statement 2 looks highly improbable. If you eliminate statement 2, you are left only with the correct answer i.e. option B.Incorrect
Statements 1 and 2 are Incorrect.
-An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.
-It cannot be issued to amend the constitution.
-An ordinance cannot abridge or take away any of the fundamental rights.
Tikdam:
“MASTER SHIFU”
Here you need to have a high risk appetite. Statement 2 states that an ordinance can amens the constitution. now, we know that an ordinance is an emergency measure when the Parliament is not in session. Also, even a beginner can say that a Constitutional Amendment requires a special majority.
Juxtaposing these two pieces of information, statement 2 looks highly improbable. If you eliminate statement 2, you are left only with the correct answer i.e. option B.
Leaderboard: 7th March 2022 | Nikaalo Prelims Quiz- Polity Test 1: Laxmikant (From starting till States)
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