• Option C is correct.
• Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer from the Minister in the House and is required to be distinguished by him/her with an asterisk. Answer to such a question may be followed by supplementary questions by members.

• Statement 1 is correct. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
• Recently, a special CBI court convicted two policemen and awarded them life sentences for the custodial death of a murder accused who was burnt alive inside a police station. The judgment relied heavily on the ‘dying declaration’ made by the victim prior to his death.
• Statement 1 is correct. The Dying Declaration is the statement of a person who had died explaining the circumstances of his death. A dying declaration is considered credible and trustworthy evidence, based upon the general belief that most people who know that they are about to die, do not lie.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the cases related to that person who is dead or who cannot be found. It defines dying declaration as a statement written or verbal of relevant facts made by a person, who is dead. It is the statement of a person who had died explaining the circumstances of his death.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Anyone can record the dying declaration of the deceased as per law. The law does not compulsorily require the presence of a Judicial or Executive Magistrate to record a dying declaration. The only requirement for such a declaration to be held perfectly accountable in court is for the victim to volunteer the statement and be of conscious mind. The person who records the dying declaration must be satisfied that the victim is in a fit state of mind.

• All the options are correct.
• Fraternity essentially means that all the citizens should behave like members of the same family. No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior. The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things—the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. The word ‘integrity’ has been added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976).
• Option 1 is correct. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states. It promotes fraternity by upholding the dignity of the tribal people as they can govern themselves according to their customs and values and also within the larger framework of nationalism, Sixth Schedule fulfils their needs and aspirations, thus promoting unity and integrity of the nation.
• Option 2 is correct. Part-IV of Indian Constitution deals with directive principles of state policy which are instructions to the state. It aims to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state. It promotes fraternity by upholding dignity of an individual through provisions like Article 39(b) [the equitable distribution of material resoruces of the community for the common good], Article 39(c) [prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production], article 43 [living wage for workers], etc. Further, unity and integrity is upheld through provisions like article 44 [uniform civil code for the citizens], etc.
• Option 3 is correct. Part III deals with fundamental rights and does talk about the fraternity ideal implicitly. Fundamental rights are the basic human rights enshrined in the Constitution of India which are guaranteed to all citizens. They are applied without discrimination on the basis of race, religion, gender, etc. Value of Fraternity gets manifested in the Fundamental right through provisions like Article 17 [ban of untouchability to uphold dignity of an individual], Artucle 23 [ban on child labor], Article 25 [secularism promotes unity and integrity], etc.
• Option 4 is correct. The idea of fraternity finds mention in Art. 51A(e) of (Part-IV A) i.e., fundamental duties, where it is the duty of every citizen “to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practice derogatory to the dignity of women”.

• Options 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct. Option 2 is incorrect.
• About Postal ballots (Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS)):
• Postal ballots, in which a voter exercises his/her franchise through post is available only for service voters; and electors subject to preventive detention. (Hence Option 5 is correct)
• Under this method, ballot papers are distributed electronically to electors and returned via post.
• According to the Representation of People Act, 1950, service voter means:
1. Being a member of the armed Forces of the Union; or
2. Being a member of a force to which provisions of the Army Act, 1950 (46 of 1950), have been made applicable whether with or without modification;
3. Being a member of an Armed Police Force of a State, and serving outside that state; or (Hence Option 1 is correct)
4. Being a person who is employed under the Government of India, in a post outside India.
• In October 2019, the Law Ministry amended the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 to allow people with disabilities and those who are 80 or older to opt for postal ballots in the absentee voter list. (Hence Options 3 and 4 are correct)
1. The absentee voter refers to a vote cast by someone who is unable to go to the polling station.
• Recently, the Ministry allowed “COVID-19 suspect or affected persons” to use the postal ballot facility.
• The remaining eligible voters are expected to cast a vote in person at designated polling stations.
• According to the Election Commission of India, prisoners do not have voting rights under the Representation of People (RP) Act. Any person who is confined in prison while serving a sentence of imprisonment on his conviction for any offence or is under lawful confinement in a prison or in a police custody for any reason is not entitled to vote in an election. But this restriction does not apply to a person subjected to any kind of preventive detention. (Hence Option 2 is incorrect)

• Statement 3 is correct. Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
• Statement 1 is incorrect. The President enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned. However, after giving two months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no such provision of getting prior permission of the President of India to arrest a cabinet minister.
• If Parliament is not in session, a cabinet minister can be arrested by a law enforcement agency in case of a criminal case registered against him. As per Section 22 A of the Rules of Procedures and Conduct of Business of the Rajya Sabha, the Police, Judge or Magistrate would, however, have to intimate the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha about the reason for the arrest, the place of detention or imprisonment in an appropriate form.
• Statement 3 is correct. According to the collective privileges (privileges belonging to each House of Parliament collectively), no person (either a member or outsider) can be arrested, and no legal process (civil or criminal) can be served within the precincts of the House without the permission of the presiding officer.

• Option A is correct.
• Option A is correct. The Chief Secretary is the ex-officio head of the state Civil Services Board, the State Secretariat, the state cadre Indian Administrative Service. The Chief Secretary acts as the principal advisor to the chief minister on all matters of state administration.
• The recent Centre-West Bengal controversy over Political and administrative elements has brought attention towards the federal structure in India. Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under Ministry of Personnel directed that West Bengal Chief Secretary Alapan Bandyopadhyay report to its office.
• Option B is incorrect. The Chief Secretary is the top-most executive official and senior-most civil servant of the state government. The appointment of the Chief Secretary of a state is the exclusive preserve of the chief minister. The CS appointment is essentially a transfer order issued by the General Administration Department of the state government in the name of the Governor, but it can be effectively done only after the chief minister has made her choice.
• Option C is incorrect. The office of Chief Secretary has been excluded from the operation of the tenure system. There is no fixed tenure for this post. For the post of the Chief Secretary of a state, fixed tenure of three to four years has been recommended, but neither the Union Public Service Commission nor the DoPT or state governments has accepted this recommendation for the simple reason that a chief minister needs to hold the administrative reins in their hands and has received a public mandate to do so.
• Option D is incorrect. Chief Ministers of States used to retain trusted chief secretaries as advisers after retirement. Recently this trend has been observed in many states including West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Maharashtra. There is no provision which states that they cannot be appointed in any office to serve the government after retirement.

• Options 2 and 5 are correct. Options 1, 3 and 4 are incorrect.

• The Supreme Court will take up for final hearing the petitions challenging the constitutional validity of Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code dealing with the offence of sedition. It is expected that the ambiguity over the validity of Sedition Law (Section 124A) will get settled after the Supreme Court’s Judgment.
• The law was originally drafted in 1837 by Thomas Macaulay, the British historian-politician, but was inexplicably omitted when the Indian Penal Code (IPC) was enacted in 1860.
• Statement 2 and 5 are correct. The definition of Sedition includes an offence committed when “any person by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the government established by law in India”.
• Statement 1, 3 and 4 are incorrect.
1. In P. Alavi vs State of Kerala, 1982, Supreme Court held that sloganeering, criticising Parliament or Judicial setup does not amount to sedition.
2. Sedition law causes inhibition on free speech and is an unreasonable restriction on free expression, a fundamental right. However, violation of dignity of an individual does not attract sedition charges. Sedition offence can be brought if any person try to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the government.
3. In Balwant Singh v State of Punjab,1995, Supreme Court acquitted persons from charges of sedition for shouting slogans such as ‘Khalistan Zindabad’. The Court held that mere raising of slogans by two individuals alone cannot be said as sedition. Further, it is also not considered as an attempt aimed to excite hatred or disaffection against the government.

• Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Recently, the Supreme Court expressed concern about states withdrawing general consent to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) for investigating cases. At present, eight states have withdrawn general consent to the agency. The court observed this as “not a desirable position.”
• Statement 1 is correct. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) owes its origin to the Special Police Establishment, constituted by the British government in 1941, which was substituted by the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act, 1946. The CBI came into existence on 1 April, 1963, through a Government of India resolution. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962-64).
• Statement 2 is incorrect. According to Section 24 of the RTI act, intelligence and security organizations specified in the Second Schedule is exempted under the provisions of the act. However, Delhi high court in 2017 has directed the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) to reveal information related to corruption, so there is no absolute exemption.
• Also, the CIC has said that the CBI cannot take refuge in the exemption clause under the Right to Information (RTI) Act to deny information related to corruption cases. Thus, they are not completely exempted from the ambit of RTI.
• Statement 3 is correct. Section 5 of the DSPE Act empowers special police establishments (SPEs), including CBI, to investigate cases in the states. Section 6 of the DSPE Act restricts the powers of SPEs under section 5 and puts the condition of the consent of the state government to investigate any case in that state. So, the CBI must mandatorily obtain the consent of the state government concerned before beginning to investigate a crime in a state. Unlimited jurisdiction of CBI is confined to Union Territories and Railway areas (and not to states), under this Act.
• Statement 4 is correct. The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenure in office by the CVC Act, 2003.

• Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Statement 3 is correct.
• The State Finance Commission was created by the 73rd and 74th Constitutional (Amendment) Acts. SFCs were created to review the financial position of the panchayats and municipal corporations, and to make recommendations to the Governor.
• Statement 1 is incorrect. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) makes it mandatory for the Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not provide for the appointment and tenure of chairperson of the State Finance Commission. It is regulated by respective state legislation.
• Statement 3 is correct. A State Finance Commission reviews the financial position of the panchayats in a state and makes recommendations to the Governor about the principles that should govern the distribution of tax proceeds. Under Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution, the governor of a state ensures the laying of a State Finance Commission’s recommendations to the table of the state legislature. It also includes a memorandum of action taken by the government on the Commission’s report.

• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) plays a very important role in Indian society. It emphasizes the principle of universality and inviolability of child rights and recognizes the tone of urgency in all the child-related policies of the country.
• Statement 1 is correct. The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was set up in March 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005. The NCPCR is a statutory body under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Anyone who is a person of eminence and has done outstanding work for promoting the welfare of children can be appointed as Chairperson. There are no mandatory requirements such as being a retired Judge of either the High Court or the Supreme Court.
• Statement 3 is correct. One of the Core Mandates of the Commission is to inquire into complaints of violations of child rights. The commission is also required to take Suo moto cognizance of serious cases of violation of child rights and to examine factors that inhibit the enjoyment of rights of children.