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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the Purchasing Managers Index (PMI)
1. PMI is an indicator of business activity both in the manufacturing as well as services sectors.
2. It is calculated separately for the manufacturing and services sectors and then a composite index is constructed.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
Purchasing Managers’ Index
● PMI is an indicator of business activity — both in the manufacturing and services sectors.
● It is a survey-based measure that asks the respondents about changes in their perception of some key business variables from the month before.
● It is calculated separately for the manufacturing and services sectors and then a composite index is constructed.
● The PMI is compiled by IHS Market based on responses to questionnaires sent to purchasing managers in a panel of around 400 manufacturers.Incorrect
Purchasing Managers’ Index
● PMI is an indicator of business activity — both in the manufacturing and services sectors.
● It is a survey-based measure that asks the respondents about changes in their perception of some key business variables from the month before.
● It is calculated separately for the manufacturing and services sectors and then a composite index is constructed.
● The PMI is compiled by IHS Market based on responses to questionnaires sent to purchasing managers in a panel of around 400 manufacturers. -
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
1 pointsThe GST (Goods and Services Tax) regime has recently completed four years of its implementation. Consider the following statements with respect to the GST
1. Central GST is the tax collected by the Central Government on an intra-state sale.
2. Integrated GST is a tax collected by the Central as well as State Government for an inter-state sale.
3. Monthly GST collection has been on a consistent rise since its implementation.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
Only statement 1 is CORRECT.
Goods and Services Tax
● GST is an indirect tax that has replaced many indirect taxes in India such as excise duty, VAT, services tax, etc.
● The Goods and Service Tax Act was passed in Parliament on 29th March 2017 and came into effect on 1st July 2017.
● It is a single domestic indirect tax law for the entire country.
There are three taxes applicable under this system:
1. CGST: It is the tax collected by the Central Government on an intra-state sale (e.g., a transaction happening within Maharashtra)
Hence statement 1 is correct.
2. SGST: It is the tax collected by the state government on an intra-state sale (e.g., a transaction happening within Maharashtra)
3. IGST: It is a tax collected by the Central Government for an inter-state sale (e.g., Maharashtra to Tamil Nadu). Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.
GST collection was lowest in April 2020 on grounds of nationwide lockdown. Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT.Incorrect
Only statement 1 is CORRECT.
Goods and Services Tax
● GST is an indirect tax that has replaced many indirect taxes in India such as excise duty, VAT, services tax, etc.
● The Goods and Service Tax Act was passed in Parliament on 29th March 2017 and came into effect on 1st July 2017.
● It is a single domestic indirect tax law for the entire country.
There are three taxes applicable under this system:
1. CGST: It is the tax collected by the Central Government on an intra-state sale (e.g., a transaction happening within Maharashtra)
Hence statement 1 is correct.
2. SGST: It is the tax collected by the state government on an intra-state sale (e.g., a transaction happening within Maharashtra)
3. IGST: It is a tax collected by the Central Government for an inter-state sale (e.g., Maharashtra to Tamil Nadu). Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.
GST collection was lowest in April 2020 on grounds of nationwide lockdown. Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT. -
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Ministry launched the NISHTHA initiative?
Correct
NISHTHA Initiative
NISHTHA – National Initiative for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic Advancement is an initiative to build capacities of teachers and school principals at the elementary stage.
The initiative is an Integrated Teacher Training Programme of the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of HRD as part of its National Mission to improve learning outcomes at the Elementary level under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme of Samagra Shiksha during 2019-20.Incorrect
-
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries has recently become the first country to adopt India’s Unified Payment Interface (UPI) standards for its quick response (QR) code?
Correct
Bhutan has become the first country to adopt India’s Unified Payment Interface (UPI) standards for its quick response (QR) code. It is also the second country after Singapore to have BHIM-UPI acceptance at merchant locations, NPCI International Payments Ltd (NIPL).
Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM)
● BHIM is an Indian mobile payment App developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), based on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
● Named after B. R. Ambedkar and launched on 30 December 2016 it is intended to facilitate e-payments directly through banks and encourage cashless transactions.
● The application supports all Indian banks which use UPI, which is built over the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) infrastructure and allows the user to instantly transfer money between bank accounts of any two parties.
● It can be used on all mobile devices.Incorrect
Bhutan has become the first country to adopt India’s Unified Payment Interface (UPI) standards for its quick response (QR) code. It is also the second country after Singapore to have BHIM-UPI acceptance at merchant locations, NPCI International Payments Ltd (NIPL).
Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM)
● BHIM is an Indian mobile payment App developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), based on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
● Named after B. R. Ambedkar and launched on 30 December 2016 it is intended to facilitate e-payments directly through banks and encourage cashless transactions.
● The application supports all Indian banks which use UPI, which is built over the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) infrastructure and allows the user to instantly transfer money between bank accounts of any two parties.
● It can be used on all mobile devices. -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)
1. PKVY is an elaborated component of Soil Health Management (SHM) of the major project National Mission of Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA).
2. Under PKVY Organic farming is promoted through the adoption of the organic village by cluster approach.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
● “PKVY” is an elaborated component of Soil Health Management (SHM) of the major project National Mission of Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA).
● Under PKVY Organic farming is promoted through the adoption of the organic village by cluster approach and PGS certification.
The Scheme envisages:
● Promotion of commercial organic production through certified organic farming.
● It will raise farmer’s income and create a potential market for traders.
Program implementation
● Fifty or more farmers will form a cluster having 50 acres of land to take up organic farming under the scheme.
● In this way, during three years 10,000 clusters will be formed covering a 5.0 lakh acre area under organic farming.
● There will be no liability on the farmers for expenditure on certification.
● Every farmer will be provided Rs. 20,000 per acre in three years for the seed to harvesting crops and to transport produce to the market.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
● “PKVY” is an elaborated component of Soil Health Management (SHM) of the major project National Mission of Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA).
● Under PKVY Organic farming is promoted through the adoption of the organic village by cluster approach and PGS certification.
The Scheme envisages:
● Promotion of commercial organic production through certified organic farming.
● It will raise farmer’s income and create a potential market for traders.
Program implementation
● Fifty or more farmers will form a cluster having 50 acres of land to take up organic farming under the scheme.
● In this way, during three years 10,000 clusters will be formed covering a 5.0 lakh acre area under organic farming.
● There will be no liability on the farmers for expenditure on certification.
● Every farmer will be provided Rs. 20,000 per acre in three years for the seed to harvesting crops and to transport produce to the market. -
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with references to Digital Currencies
1. Digital currency refers to the electronic form of fiat money issued by governments.
2. It can also be termed as a Digital Coin.
3. It is protected by strong encryption.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Only statement 1 is CORRECT.
Digital Currency Vs. Cryptocurrency
● Digital currency refers to the electronic form of fiat money issued by governments.
● They are used for contactless transactions between parties, like when you electronically transfer an amount from your bank account to someone else’s.
● When you pay from your bank account or digital wallet, which stores value corresponding to the actual fiat money via an electronic transfer mechanism for a product or service, you are using digital currency.
● When you withdraw money from an ATM, the digital currency is turned into liquid cash.
● Cryptocurrencies, on the other hand, is a store of value secured by encryption. They are often referred to as digital coins. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.
● Digital currency does not require encryption, but users need to secure their digital wallets (banking apps) with strong passwords to minimize the risk of theft or hacking. Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT.
● Users also need to secure their debit/credit cards with passwords. They can use any of these means to transact digital currency from their bank accounts.
● Cryptocurrency is protected by strong encryption.Incorrect
Only statement 1 is CORRECT.
Digital Currency Vs. Cryptocurrency
● Digital currency refers to the electronic form of fiat money issued by governments.
● They are used for contactless transactions between parties, like when you electronically transfer an amount from your bank account to someone else’s.
● When you pay from your bank account or digital wallet, which stores value corresponding to the actual fiat money via an electronic transfer mechanism for a product or service, you are using digital currency.
● When you withdraw money from an ATM, the digital currency is turned into liquid cash.
● Cryptocurrencies, on the other hand, is a store of value secured by encryption. They are often referred to as digital coins. Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.
● Digital currency does not require encryption, but users need to secure their digital wallets (banking apps) with strong passwords to minimize the risk of theft or hacking. Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT.
● Users also need to secure their debit/credit cards with passwords. They can use any of these means to transact digital currency from their bank accounts.
● Cryptocurrency is protected by strong encryption. -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) Annual Report, consider the following statements:
1. PLFS is released by the Labour Bureau.
2. The unemployment rate has seen a significant rise in 2019-20, according to the survey.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are INCORRECT.
Periodic Labour Force Survey
● The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) Annual Report for July, 2019 to June 2020 was recently released by the National Statistical Office (NSO). Hence statement 1 is INCORRECT.
● The objective of PLFS is primarily twofold:
1. to estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (viz. Worker Population Ratio, Labour Force Participation Rate, Unemployment Rate) in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the Current Weekly Status (CWS).
2. to estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both Usual Status and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
Highlights of the third report
● The Labour force participation ratio has increased to 40.1% in 2019-20 from 37.5% and 36.9%, respectively, in the last two years.
● Worker population rate improved to 38.2% in 2019-20 compared with 35.3% in 2018-19 and 34.7% in 2017-18.
● The unemployment rate fell to 4.8% in 2019-20. In 2018-19, it stood at 5.8% and 6.1% in 2017-18.
Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.Incorrect
Both statements are INCORRECT.
Periodic Labour Force Survey
● The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) Annual Report for July, 2019 to June 2020 was recently released by the National Statistical Office (NSO). Hence statement 1 is INCORRECT.
● The objective of PLFS is primarily twofold:
1. to estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (viz. Worker Population Ratio, Labour Force Participation Rate, Unemployment Rate) in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the Current Weekly Status (CWS).
2. to estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both Usual Status and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
Highlights of the third report
● The Labour force participation ratio has increased to 40.1% in 2019-20 from 37.5% and 36.9%, respectively, in the last two years.
● Worker population rate improved to 38.2% in 2019-20 compared with 35.3% in 2018-19 and 34.7% in 2017-18.
● The unemployment rate fell to 4.8% in 2019-20. In 2018-19, it stood at 5.8% and 6.1% in 2017-18.
Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT. -
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement(s) about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India is/are correct?
1. Any private/public/joint sector or state government or its agencies can set up an SEZ.
2. A foreign agency can set up SEZs in India.
3. The sunset clause offers indefinite 100 percent income tax exemption to the SEZs.
Select the correct code from the following options given belowCorrect
Statements 1 and 2 are CORRECT, Only statement 3 is INCORRECT.
Special Economic Zone
● A SEZ is an area in which the business and trade laws are different from the rest of the country.
● SEZs are located within a country’s national borders, and their aims include increasing trade balance, employment, increased investment, job creation and effective administration.
● The SEZ policy in India first came into inception on April 1, 2000. Subsequently, the SEZ Act 2005, was enacted to provide the umbrella legal framework, covering all important legal and regulatory aspects of SEZ development as well as for units operating in SEZs.
Who can set up SEZs?
● Any private/public/joint sector or state government or its agencies can set up an SEZ.
● A foreign agency can set up SEZs in India.
Hence, statements 1 and 2 are CORRECT.
Advantages for SEZ
● Duty free import and domestic procurement of goods for the development, operation, and maintenance of the company.
● 100 percent income tax exemption on export income for first five years, 50 percent for five years thereafter, and 50 percent of the export profit reinvested in the business for the next five years.
These incentives were set to be withdrawn from April 1, 2020 (Sunset Clause), pending an extension, which is currently under discussion.
Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT.Incorrect
Statements 1 and 2 are CORRECT, Only statement 3 is INCORRECT.
Special Economic Zone
● A SEZ is an area in which the business and trade laws are different from the rest of the country.
● SEZs are located within a country’s national borders, and their aims include increasing trade balance, employment, increased investment, job creation and effective administration.
● The SEZ policy in India first came into inception on April 1, 2000. Subsequently, the SEZ Act 2005, was enacted to provide the umbrella legal framework, covering all important legal and regulatory aspects of SEZ development as well as for units operating in SEZs.
Who can set up SEZs?
● Any private/public/joint sector or state government or its agencies can set up an SEZ.
● A foreign agency can set up SEZs in India.
Hence, statements 1 and 2 are CORRECT.
Advantages for SEZ
● Duty free import and domestic procurement of goods for the development, operation, and maintenance of the company.
● 100 percent income tax exemption on export income for first five years, 50 percent for five years thereafter, and 50 percent of the export profit reinvested in the business for the next five years.
These incentives were set to be withdrawn from April 1, 2020 (Sunset Clause), pending an extension, which is currently under discussion.
Hence statement 3 is INCORRECT. -
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy (NIPUN Bharat) Scheme:
1. It has been launched under the aegis of the centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha.
2. It focuses on reading proficiency and basic numeracy of school going children as well as adults in the country.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
NIPUN Bharat Scheme
● This scheme aims for ensuring that every child in the country necessarily attains foundational literacy.
● It has been launched under the aegis of the centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha.
● It would cover the learning needs of children in the age group of 3 to 9 years.
Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.
● The unique feature is that the goals of the Mission are set in the form of Lakshya Soochi or Targets for Foundational Literacy and Numeracy.
● The Lakshyas are based on the learning outcomes developed by the NCERT and international research and ORF studies.Incorrect
NIPUN Bharat Scheme
● This scheme aims for ensuring that every child in the country necessarily attains foundational literacy.
● It has been launched under the aegis of the centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha.
● It would cover the learning needs of children in the age group of 3 to 9 years.
Hence statement 2 is INCORRECT.
● The unique feature is that the goals of the Mission are set in the form of Lakshya Soochi or Targets for Foundational Literacy and Numeracy.
● The Lakshyas are based on the learning outcomes developed by the NCERT and international research and ORF studies. -
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the given statements about the Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO) in India is/are correct?
1. RPO mandates that all electricity distribution licensees should purchase or produce a minimum specified quantity of their requirements from Renewable Energy Sources.
2. The mechanism provides for purchase of renewable energy certificates (RECs) in lieu of purchasing renewable power directly.
Select the correct code from the options given belowCorrect
Both statements are CORRECT.
Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO)
● Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO) is the obligation mandated to purchase minimum level of renewable energy out of the total consumption by the Obligated Entity.
● To provide a fillip to the ambitious renewable energy targets, obligations have been imposed on certain entitles to purchase energy from renewable sources by various state electricity regulatory commissions (SERCs) based on each state’s varying renewable energy potentials.
● Known as renewable purchase obligations (RPOs), power distribution companies, captive power plants and other large electricity consumers are bound to meet them by purchasing a certain percentage of their requirements from renewable energy sources.
● Applicable regulations also provide for purchase of renewable energy certificates (RECs) in lieu of purchasing renewable power by obligated entities from the National Load Dispatch Centre.Incorrect
Both statements are CORRECT.
Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO)
● Renewable Purchase Obligation (RPO) is the obligation mandated to purchase minimum level of renewable energy out of the total consumption by the Obligated Entity.
● To provide a fillip to the ambitious renewable energy targets, obligations have been imposed on certain entitles to purchase energy from renewable sources by various state electricity regulatory commissions (SERCs) based on each state’s varying renewable energy potentials.
● Known as renewable purchase obligations (RPOs), power distribution companies, captive power plants and other large electricity consumers are bound to meet them by purchasing a certain percentage of their requirements from renewable energy sources.
● Applicable regulations also provide for purchase of renewable energy certificates (RECs) in lieu of purchasing renewable power by obligated entities from the National Load Dispatch Centre. -
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
1 pointsThe Gatekeeper Model and Buddy System recently seen in news are related to which of the following given below?
Correct
What is the ‘Gatekeeper Model’?
● It is a model where selected inmates, trained to identify prisoners at risk of suicide, would refer them to treatment or supportive services.
● Prisoners with mental disorders will be regularly assessed for the severity of the suicidal risk and also put on regular and supervised medication.
● To address the prisoner’s mental health needs, the correctional facility would have links to community-based initiatives like the District Mental Health Programme.
Buddy system
● The concept of a ‘Buddy System’ — social support through trained prisoners called “buddies” or “listeners” — was found to have a good impact on the well-being of suicidal prisoners.
● Periodic telephone conversations with friends and family would also foster support.Incorrect
What is the ‘Gatekeeper Model’?
● It is a model where selected inmates, trained to identify prisoners at risk of suicide, would refer them to treatment or supportive services.
● Prisoners with mental disorders will be regularly assessed for the severity of the suicidal risk and also put on regular and supervised medication.
● To address the prisoner’s mental health needs, the correctional facility would have links to community-based initiatives like the District Mental Health Programme.
Buddy system
● The concept of a ‘Buddy System’ — social support through trained prisoners called “buddies” or “listeners” — was found to have a good impact on the well-being of suicidal prisoners.
● Periodic telephone conversations with friends and family would also foster support. -
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Tele-Law Scheme
1. Tele-Law Scheme offers free legal aid to an aggrieved person who is a citizen of India.
2. It covers litigation on civil as well criminal matters.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Tele-Law Scheme
● Tele-law is a service that uses video conferencing facilities and telephone services to connect lawyers to litigants who need legal advice.
● It was launched by the Ministry of Law and Justice in collaboration with the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in 2017 to address cases at the pre–litigation stage.
● It enables anyone to seek legal advice without wasting precious time and money.
● The service is free for those who are eligible for free legal Aid as mentioned under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987.
● For all others a nominal fee of 30 Rs is charged.
Legal matters in which advice can be taken through Tele-Law service :
● Dowry, family dispute, divorce, protection from domestic violence.
● Sexual harassment, sexual abuse, eve teasing at the workplace.
● Maintenance of women, children and senior citizens.
● Rights regarding property and land.
● Equal wages for males and females etc.Incorrect
Tele-Law Scheme
● Tele-law is a service that uses video conferencing facilities and telephone services to connect lawyers to litigants who need legal advice.
● It was launched by the Ministry of Law and Justice in collaboration with the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in 2017 to address cases at the pre–litigation stage.
● It enables anyone to seek legal advice without wasting precious time and money.
● The service is free for those who are eligible for free legal Aid as mentioned under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987.
● For all others a nominal fee of 30 Rs is charged.
Legal matters in which advice can be taken through Tele-Law service :
● Dowry, family dispute, divorce, protection from domestic violence.
● Sexual harassment, sexual abuse, eve teasing at the workplace.
● Maintenance of women, children and senior citizens.
● Rights regarding property and land.
● Equal wages for males and females etc. -
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the recently announced LEAF (Lowering Emissions by Accelerating Forest Finance) Coalition:
1. LEAF Coalition is a collective of the United Nations Environment Program.
2. It is a step towards concretizing the aims and objectives of the Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) mechanism.
3. India is a foundational member of this Coalition.
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?Correct
LEAF Coalition
● LEAF Coalition is a collective of the US, UK and Norway governments. Hence statements 1 and 3 are INCORRECT.
● It is a public-private effort, thus supported by transnational corporations (TNCs) like Unilever plc, Amazon, Nestle, Airbnb etc.
● It came up with a $1 billion fund plan that shall be offered to countries committed to arresting the decline of their tropical forests by 2030.
● The LEAF coalition initiative is a step towards concretizing the aims and objectives of the Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) mechanism. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.
● It empowers tropical and subtropical forest countries to move more rapidly towards ending deforestation while supporting them in achieving their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement.Incorrect
LEAF Coalition
● LEAF Coalition is a collective of the US, UK and Norway governments. Hence statements 1 and 3 are INCORRECT.
● It is a public-private effort, thus supported by transnational corporations (TNCs) like Unilever plc, Amazon, Nestle, Airbnb etc.
● It came up with a $1 billion fund plan that shall be offered to countries committed to arresting the decline of their tropical forests by 2030.
● The LEAF coalition initiative is a step towards concretizing the aims and objectives of the Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) mechanism. Hence statement 2 is CORRECT.
● It empowers tropical and subtropical forest countries to move more rapidly towards ending deforestation while supporting them in achieving their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement. -
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the Adarsh Smarak scheme
1. It is implemented by the Ministry of Tourism.
2. The objective is to make the monument accessible to differently-abled people.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Adarsh Smarak scheme
• Hence statement 1 is wrong and 2 is correct.
• Monuments at Nagarjunakonda, Budhhist remains at Salihundam and Veerabhadra Temple at Lepakshi are identified as ‘Adarsh Smarak’ in Andhra Pradesh for providing additional facilities.
• About the Adarsh Smarak scheme:
o Launched in 2014 for providing improved visitor amenities, especially for the physically challenged.
o Implemented by the Ministry of Culture. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
o The civic amenities are being augmented at the protected sites under the scheme.
o Archaeological Survey of India had identified 100 monuments as “Adarsh Smarak” for upgradation.
• Objectives of the Scheme:
1. To make the monument visitor friendly.
2. To provide interpretation and audio-video centers.
3. To make the monument accessible to differently-abled people. Hence statement 2 is correct.
4. To implement Swachh Bharat Abhiyan.Incorrect
Adarsh Smarak scheme
• Hence statement 1 is wrong and 2 is correct.
• Monuments at Nagarjunakonda, Budhhist remains at Salihundam and Veerabhadra Temple at Lepakshi are identified as ‘Adarsh Smarak’ in Andhra Pradesh for providing additional facilities.
• About the Adarsh Smarak scheme:
o Launched in 2014 for providing improved visitor amenities, especially for the physically challenged.
o Implemented by the Ministry of Culture. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
o The civic amenities are being augmented at the protected sites under the scheme.
o Archaeological Survey of India had identified 100 monuments as “Adarsh Smarak” for upgradation.
• Objectives of the Scheme:
1. To make the monument visitor friendly.
2. To provide interpretation and audio-video centers.
3. To make the monument accessible to differently-abled people. Hence statement 2 is correct.
4. To implement Swachh Bharat Abhiyan. -
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
1. Supreme Court has appellate jurisdiction, not only over High Courts but also over other courts and tribunals but they are not declared to be subordinate to it.
2. The High Courts have wider powers to issue prerogative writs than Supreme Court.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
• Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• The judiciary is designed in the Constitution to ensure that the Supreme Court, the tallest court in the country, has no superintendence over the High Court.
• Though the Supreme Court has appellate jurisdiction, not only over High Courts but also over other courts and tribunals, they are not declared to be subordinate to it. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In fact, the High Courts have wider powers to issue prerogative writs despite having the power of superintendence over the district and subordinate courts. Hence statement 2 is correct.Incorrect
• Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• The judiciary is designed in the Constitution to ensure that the Supreme Court, the tallest court in the country, has no superintendence over the High Court.
• Though the Supreme Court has appellate jurisdiction, not only over High Courts but also over other courts and tribunals, they are not declared to be subordinate to it. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In fact, the High Courts have wider powers to issue prerogative writs despite having the power of superintendence over the district and subordinate courts. Hence statement 2 is correct. -
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding grounds for disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law:
1. If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party.
2. If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party.
3. If any nominated member joins any political party before the expiry of six months.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Anti-Defection Law
• Statement 3 is wrong and statement 1 and 2 are correct.
• The Leader of Opposition in the Goa Legislative Assembly is set to move a private member’s resolution to recommend to the Central government to address the various issues associated with the anti-defection law.
• The Tenth Schedule — popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act — was included in the Constitution via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 and sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party.
• The grounds for disqualification under the Anti Defection Law are as follows:
1. If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party. Hence statement 1 is correct.
2. If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party or anyone authorized to do so, without obtaining prior permission. Hence statement 2 is correct.
3. If any independently elected member joins any political party. z If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
• As per the 1985 Act, a ‘defection’ by one-third of the elected members of a political party was considered a ‘merger’. But the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, changed this and now at least two-thirds of the members of a party have to be in favour of a “merger” for it to have validity in the eyes of the law.Incorrect
Anti-Defection Law
• Statement 3 is wrong and statement 1 and 2 are correct.
• The Leader of Opposition in the Goa Legislative Assembly is set to move a private member’s resolution to recommend to the Central government to address the various issues associated with the anti-defection law.
• The Tenth Schedule — popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act — was included in the Constitution via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 and sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party.
• The grounds for disqualification under the Anti Defection Law are as follows:
1. If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party. Hence statement 1 is correct.
2. If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party or anyone authorized to do so, without obtaining prior permission. Hence statement 2 is correct.
3. If any independently elected member joins any political party. z If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months. Hence statement 3 is wrong.
• As per the 1985 Act, a ‘defection’ by one-third of the elected members of a political party was considered a ‘merger’. But the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, changed this and now at least two-thirds of the members of a party have to be in favour of a “merger” for it to have validity in the eyes of the law. -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)
1. Under the Act, the government is empowered to designate individuals as terrorists..
2. Maximum period of judicial custody before the filing of a charge sheet is 90 days.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)
• Statement 2 is wrong and statement 1 is correct.
• Recently, the death of Father Stan Swamy, a Jesuit priest and tribal rights activist, while in judicial custody, has brought the stringent provisions of Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) into the focus.
• In its present form, the UAPA has been amended in 2004 and 2013, to expand its scope.
• The ban on organizations was initially for two years, but from 2013, the period of proscription has been extended to five years.
• In 2019, the Act was amended to empower the government to designate individuals as terrorists. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Just like other special laws dealing with narcotic drugs and the now-defunct laws on terrorism, the UAPA also modifies the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) to give it more teeth. For example,
• Maximum period of judicial custody before the filing of a charge sheet is extendable from the usual 90 days to 180 days. Hence statement 2 is wrong.Incorrect
Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA)
• Statement 2 is wrong and statement 1 is correct.
• Recently, the death of Father Stan Swamy, a Jesuit priest and tribal rights activist, while in judicial custody, has brought the stringent provisions of Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) into the focus.
• In its present form, the UAPA has been amended in 2004 and 2013, to expand its scope.
• The ban on organizations was initially for two years, but from 2013, the period of proscription has been extended to five years.
• In 2019, the Act was amended to empower the government to designate individuals as terrorists. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Just like other special laws dealing with narcotic drugs and the now-defunct laws on terrorism, the UAPA also modifies the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) to give it more teeth. For example,
• Maximum period of judicial custody before the filing of a charge sheet is extendable from the usual 90 days to 180 days. Hence statement 2 is wrong. -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statement regarding National Education Policy, 2020
1. It will emphasize on developing Home Universities and forbids the way of foreign universities to set up campuses in India.
2. Vocational Education to start from Class 6 with Internships.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
National Education Policy, 2020
• Statement 1 is wrong and statement 2 is correct.
• Universalization of education from preschool to secondary level with 100% Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school education by 2030.
• Vocational Education to start from Class 6 with Internships.
• It also paves the way for foreign universities to set up campuses in India.Incorrect
National Education Policy, 2020
• Statement 1 is wrong and statement 2 is correct.
• Universalization of education from preschool to secondary level with 100% Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school education by 2030.
• Vocational Education to start from Class 6 with Internships.
• It also paves the way for foreign universities to set up campuses in India. -
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
1. WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
2. CPI is the most widely used inflation indicator in India.
3. CPI calculates the difference in the price of commodities and services.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?Correct
CPI and WPI
• Recently, the Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade has released the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
• Statement 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is wrong.
• Wholesale Price Index
o It measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.
o Published by the Office of Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry. WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o It is the most widely used inflation indicator in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Consumer Price Index
o It measures price changes from the perspective of a retail buyer. It is released by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
o The CPI calculates the difference in the price of commodities and services such as food, medical care, education, electronics etc, which Indian consumers buy for use. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o The CPI has several sub-groups including food and beverages, fuel and light, housing and clothing, bedding and footwear.Incorrect
CPI and WPI
• Recently, the Office of the Economic Adviser, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade has released the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
• Statement 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 is wrong.
• Wholesale Price Index
o It measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.
o Published by the Office of Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry. WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o It is the most widely used inflation indicator in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Consumer Price Index
o It measures price changes from the perspective of a retail buyer. It is released by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
o The CPI calculates the difference in the price of commodities and services such as food, medical care, education, electronics etc, which Indian consumers buy for use. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o The CPI has several sub-groups including food and beverages, fuel and light, housing and clothing, bedding and footwear. -
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statement regarding RBI’s Retail Direct’ Scheme
1. Retail investors will have the facility to open and maintain the ‘Retail Direct Gilt Account’ (RDG Account) directly with the RBI,
2. A Gilt Account is debited or credited with only treasury bills or government securities.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?Correct
RBI’s Retail Direct Scheme
• Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
• Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced the ‘RBI Retail Direct’ Scheme.
• Under the scheme, retail investors (individuals) will have the facility to open and maintain the ‘Retail Direct Gilt Account’ (RDG Account) with the RBI. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Retail Investor is a non-professional investor who buys and sells securities or funds that contain a basket of securities such as mutual funds and Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs).
• A Gilt Account can be compared with a bank account, except that the account is debited or credited with treasury bills or government securities instead of money. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• RDG accounts can be opened through an online portal provided for the purpose of the scheme. The online portal will give registered users access to primary issuance of G-secs and access to Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching system (NDS-OM).
• It is a one-stop solution to facilitate investment in G-secs by individual investors. RBI seeks to democratize the ownership of government debt securities beyond banks and managers of pooled resources such as mutual funds.Incorrect
RBI’s Retail Direct Scheme
• Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
• Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced the ‘RBI Retail Direct’ Scheme.
• Under the scheme, retail investors (individuals) will have the facility to open and maintain the ‘Retail Direct Gilt Account’ (RDG Account) with the RBI. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Retail Investor is a non-professional investor who buys and sells securities or funds that contain a basket of securities such as mutual funds and Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs).
• A Gilt Account can be compared with a bank account, except that the account is debited or credited with treasury bills or government securities instead of money. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• RDG accounts can be opened through an online portal provided for the purpose of the scheme. The online portal will give registered users access to primary issuance of G-secs and access to Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching system (NDS-OM).
• It is a one-stop solution to facilitate investment in G-secs by individual investors. RBI seeks to democratize the ownership of government debt securities beyond banks and managers of pooled resources such as mutual funds.
Leaderboard: 9th March 2022 | Nikaalo Prelims- Current Affairs Test 1: July 2021
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