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Dear students,

Q1,Q2,Q3 are controversial questions in UPSC prelims and UPSC can use its own logic to decide the answer. We have taken our stand based on our knowledge.

We are all aware that prelims is becoming very unpredictable. It requires a very targeted approach.

First, you need to be aware of all the recurring micro themes from which UPSC repeatedly asks questions year after year. You must develop a solid command of these themes and ensure you don’t miss a question. Questions on these themes are on the tougher side. Next, you need to master adjacent themes and CA themes that are prominent in the same year.

Finally, the art of attempting the paper, taking guesses based on previous year patterns.

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Q1. Consider the following:

Carabid beetles
Centipedes
Flies
Termites
Wasps

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?

a) only two

b)only three*

c) only four

d) all five

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Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Parasitoids are small insects whose immature stages develop either within or attached to the outside of other insects, referred to as hosts, eventually killing it. Parasitoids have characteristics of both predators and parasites.

Various resources only list Beetles, Wasps and flies.

https://australian.museum/learn/animals/insects/predators-parasites-and-parasitoids/

https://extension.umd.edu/resource/parasitoids

Termites and Centipedes dont seem to exhibit this mechanism.

Ichneumonidae, Phoridae, Calliphoridae, Coptoterms and others have been mentioned. We dont feel these are apt in this setting.

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Q2. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

Statement-II:

The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?”

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

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Answer: (d)

Explanation:
Statement-I: Is incorrect because you can always exercise claims. You will not get it is a separate issue.

Statement-II: This statement is correct. US Government debt, such as Treasury Bonds, is backed by the full faith and credit of the US Government rather than any specific physical assets.

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3. Consider the following activities:

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft

2. Monitoring of precipitation

3. Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) All three

d) None

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Answer B

Explanation

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft: This is typically done using X-ray scanners or advanced imaging technologies like millimetre wave scanners. Radars are unheard of in this context. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

A distinction between IDENTIFICATION and DETECTION is needed. Even if some RADAR system is being developed for the detection of potential narcotics, it cannot identify on its own whether it is narcotics or some other hard substance. Thats more nuanced information.

2. Monitoring of precipitation: Radars, specifically weather radars, are commonly used to monitor precipitation. They can detect rain, snow, and other weather conditions by bouncing radio waves off precipitation particles. Hence, statement 2 is correct

3. Tracking the migration of animals: Radars can be used to track the migration of birds and other animals. They are often used in ornithological studies to monitor bird migration patterns. Hence, Statement 3 is correct

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4. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.

Statement-II:

Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does explain Statement-I.

c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

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Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement I: The SUMED pipeline transports crude oil north through Egypt and has a capacity of 2.5 million barrels per day.

Total oil shipments via these routes accounted for about 12% of total seaborne-traded oil in the first half of 2023, and liquefied natural gas (LNG) shipments accounted for about 8% of worldwide LNG trade.

The Bab el-Mandeb Strait is between the Horn of Africa and the Middle East, connecting the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden and Arabian Sea. Most exports of petroleum and natural gas from the Persian Gulf to Europe and North America pass through multiple chokepoints, including the SUMED pipeline and both the Bab el-Mandeb and the Strait of Hormuz. Therefore, statement I is correct.

Fig: Data is given by U.S. Energy Information Administration

Statement II: The Suez Canal and SUMED pipeline are located in Egypt and connect the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. The Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. Therefore, statement II is also correct.

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5. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II:

The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I

c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect

d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

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Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Statement I: The European Parliament has approved the Net-Zero Industry Act to enhance net-zero technology production within the European Union. Therefore, statement I is correct.
Statement II: The Act targets Europe to produce 40% of its net-zero technology needs by 2030 and capture 15% of the global market for these technologies. Therefore, statement II is incorrect.

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6. Consider the following statements:

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.

2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer (A)

Explanation

Statement 1:The Red Sea is located in a desert region with very high temperatures and low humidity. This leads to very little rainfall or any form of precipitation.Hence statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2: Due to its location, there are no major rivers flowing into the Red Sea. The water in the Red Sea comes primarily from the inflow of saltier water from the Gulf of Aden through the Bab el-Mandeb Strait.

Many links claim the same-

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_rivers_of_Eritrea

Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

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7. Consider the following information:

Waterfall Region River

1. Dhuandhar Malwa Narmada

2. Hundru Chota Nagpur Subarnarekha

3. Gersoppa Western Ghats Netravati

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) All three

d) None

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Answer: (A)

Explanation

● Dhuandhar: This waterfall is located on the Narmada River, but the region is not Malwa. It is in Madhya Pradesh Mahakoshal region. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

The map is attached-

● Hundru: This waterfall is indeed located on the Subarnarekha River within the Chota Nagpur Plateau. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

● Gersoppa (also known as Jog Falls): This waterfall is on the Sharavati River in the Western Ghats, not the Netravati River. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

Therefore, Option A is correct

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Q8. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:

1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.

2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer B

Explanation

No provisions for post-delivery care. There is a separate program for that.

The program aims to provide assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal care, free of cost, universally to all pregnant women on the 9th of every month.

➔ PMSMA guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their 2nd / 3rd trimesters of pregnancy at designated government health facilities. There is no mention of Post pregnancy health care services. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

➔ The programme follows a systematic approach for engagement with the private sector which includes motivating private practitioners to volunteer for the campaign developing strategies for generating awareness and appealing to the private sector to participate in the Abhiyan at government health facilities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

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Q9. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members:

1. Governor of the Constituent State

2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State

3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India

4. The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Answer: A

Explanation

It is only a matter of chance that the Home Minister is appointed by the President to be the Chairman time and again. But the Act doesnt have a provision stating the Home Minister.

The NEC Act was amended by the Parliament in 2002 (Act No. 68 of 2002). The ‘North Eastern Areas’ now means the area comprising the States of Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Mizoram.

The Council now has as its members the Governors of the States mentioned above, the Chief Ministers of the said States and three Members nominated by the President. The President will nominate the Chairman of the Council and he need not be nominated from amongst the other Members.

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Q10. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.

2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer: (a)

Explanation

Statement I: Doesnt say ONLY. So it is true.

The Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of an All India Federation consisting of Provinces and Princely States as units. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
The Act also contains the provisions for Chief Commissioners’ Provinces of British Baluchistan, Delhi, Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The area known as Panth Piploda, and such other Chief Commissioners’ Provinces as may be created under this Act.

Statement II: Logically speaking, Defence and Foreign Affairs cant be given to federal units. They are too critical.

The Act divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of three lists, Federal List (for Centre containing 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces containing 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both containing 36 items). The creation of a ‘Federation of India’ that consisted of two levels:
Central Executive and Parliament,
Provinces and Princely states.
It discarded the ‘dyarchy’ system at the provincial level and allowed for the emergence of popularly elected provincial legislatures. Dyarchy was introduced at the central level, key subjects like defence and foreign affairs were under the direct control of the Governor General.
A federal court was established.
The franchise was expanded to 14% of the population from 3%.
Separate electorates were provided for Muslims, Sikhs and others, but not to Depressed Classes.
Governor enjoyed critical emergency powers.
Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy. However, the federation never came into being as the princely states did not join it. But this has formed the basis of Schedule VII of the Constitution of India, 1950.Therefore, Statement 2 is Incorrect.