Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The Ministry of Home Affairs extended till June 30 the validity of all FCRA registered NGOs whose licences are expiring on March 31.
What is Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)?
- The FCRA regulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect internal security.
- First enacted in 1976, it was amended in 2010 when a slew of new measures was adopted to regulate foreign donations.
- The FCRA is applicable to all associations, groups and NGOs which intend to receive foreign donations.
- It is mandatory for all such NGOs to register themselves under the FCRA.
- The registration is initially valid for 5 years and it can be renewed subsequently if they comply with all norms.
What contributes to Foreign Donations?
- Foreign Contribution’ means the donation, delivery or transfer made by any foreign source of any:
- Article (whose market value is not more than one lakh rupees);
- Currency (whether Indian or foreign);
- Securities
- Foreign donations may be those from Governments, international agencies, foreign companies, trusts, corporations, foreign citizens
- However, some agencies like the UN, World Bank, IMF etc. are EXEMPTED from the definition of foreign donors.
Who cannot accept donations under FCRA?
According to the FCRA, foreign donations cannot be accepted by:
- Election candidates
- Editors and publishers of newspapers
- Judges and government employees.
- Political parties and members of legislature etc.
What was the recent Amendment?
The FCRA was amended in September 2020 to introduce some new restrictions:
- There is now a capping of the administrative expenses of NGOs at 20% of their foreign donations.
- The new amendment requires them to have a State Bank of India account at a Delhi Branch.
- It also prohibits the transfer of grants received under FCRA to any other outfit.
- It also gives sweeping powers to the Ministry of Home Affairs to cancel the FCRA certificate of an NGO.
- It made legal for political parties to accept foreign aid through Indian subsidiaries.
- Under the Act, the government may suspend the registration of a person for a period not exceeding 180 days.
- Providing Aadhar is mandatory for all office bearers, directors or key functionaries of the organization.
PYQ:
2015: Examine critically the recent changes in the rule governing foreign funding of NGOs under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 1976.
2015: How can be the role of NGOs be strengthened in India for development works relating to protection of the Environment? Discuss throwing light on the major constraints.
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements regarding “Foreign Contribution (regulation) Act”:
1. World Bank is excluded from the definition of foreign sources under the act.
2. Political parties are prohibited from taking foreign donations under the act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Supreme Court has rejected review petitions challenging its ruling on the initiation of proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
- The judgment clarified that Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code cannot be invoked for PMLA proceedings unless the alleged conspiracy pertains to a scheduled offence.
Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002
- The PMLA was enacted in 2002 with the aim of preventing money laundering and providing for confiscation of property derived from money laundering.
- It applies to all financial institutions, banks (including the RBI), mutual funds, insurance companies, and their financial intermediaries.
- The Act empowers government authorities to confiscate property and/or assets earned from illegal sources and through money laundering.
- It has been amended three times, in 2005, 2009, and 2012.
- Under the PMLA, the burden of proof lies with the accused, who must demonstrate that the suspect property/assets have not been obtained through proceeds of crime.
Penalties under PMLA:
- Freezing or Seizure of property and records, and/or attachment of property obtained through crime proceeds.
- Rigorous imprisonment for a minimum of 3 years and a maximum of 7 years. In cases where money laundering is linked with the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, the punishment can extend up to 10 years, along with a fine.
- Fine imposition.
Authorities for investigation under PMLA:
- Enforcement Directorate (ED): It is responsible for investigating offenses under the PMLA.
- Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND): It is the national agency tasked with receiving, processing, analyzing, and disseminating information related to suspect financial transactions.
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What is Article 120 of Indian Penal Code (IPC)?
- Section 120 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with the concept of “Conspiracy to commit an offense”.
- It states that when two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated a criminal conspiracy.
- Section 120A defines “criminal conspiracy” as when two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means.
- Section 120B prescribes the punishment for criminal conspiracy, with death, imprisonment for life, or rigorous imprisonment for a term of two years or upwards, shall be punished in the same manner as if he had abetted such offense.
Punishment for Criminal Conspiracy
- Nature of Conspiracy: IPC 120B categorizes conspiracy based on the gravity of the offense and prescribes punishments accordingly.
- Serious Offenses: Conspiracy to commit serious crimes punishable by death, life imprisonment, or rigorous imprisonment for 2 years or more warrants severe punishment equivalent to the offense committed.
- Other Offenses: Conspiracy for illegal acts not falling under the serious category incurs imprisonment for up to six months, a fine, or both, as per Section 120B.
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements are correct regarding ‘Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002 (PMLA)’?
1. Enforcement Directorate (ED) is responsible for investigating offences under the PMLA
2. The Act enables government authorities to confiscate property earned through money laundering.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: H5N1 Bird Flu
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- Since 2020, the highly pathogenic H5N1 bird flu has been spreading globally, posing a significant threat to both birds and mammals.
H5N1 Bird Flu: Details
- H5N1 originated from a virus outbreak on a goose farm in China in 1996 and has since evolved into a highly pathogenic strain.
- The virus quickly spread from Europe to Africa, Asia, North America, and South America, and most recently, it reached mainland Antarctica.
- H5N1 is a subtype of the influenza A virus that causes severe respiratory disease in birds, known as avian influenza or “bird flu”.
- Influenza A viruses are classified by subtypes based on the properties of their surface proteins, with H5N1 being one subtype.
How widespread is it?
- The virus has affected birds in over 80 countries, resulting in mass culling of poultry and wild birds.
- Furthermore, it has now begun infecting mammals, including seals, sea lions, and marine mammals.
- While humans rarely contract bird flu, those at risk are typically individuals who have extensive contact with infected birds at poultry farms.
- Bird flu first broke out in Maharashtra in 2006.
- The H5N1 virus led to the culling of millions of poultry so as to contain the virus. But it has resurfaced from time to time.
Impact on Animals
- Bird Species Affected: Numerous bird species, including Great Skuas and Barnacle Geese, have experienced significant mortality rates due to H5N1.
- Endangered Species Threatened: Endangered birds like the California condors have been severely affected, with a notable percentage of the population succumbing to the virus.
- Mammalian Casualties: H5N1 has crossed species barriers, infecting mammals such as foxes, pumas, skunks, and marine mammals like sea lions and dolphins.
- Devastating Consequences: Mass mortalities of marine mammals, particularly elephant seals, have been reported, raising concerns about the long-term ecological impact.
Factors behind Spread
- Climate Change: Some scientists attribute the large-scale spread of bird flu to climate change, which alters bird behavior and facilitates the transmission of the virus.
- Warmer Seas: Warmer sea temperatures have weakened marine mammal populations, making them more susceptible to disease outbreaks.
PYQ:
2015: H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?
(a) AIDS
(b) Bird flu
(c) Dengue
(d) Swine flu
Practice MCQ:
How many of the given statements about H5N1 Virus is/are correct?
1. It is a type of influenza virus causing highly infectious, respiratory disease in birds.
2. It is highly contagious in humans.
3. Seals, sea lions, and other marine mammals are vulnerable to this Virus.
Select the correct codes from below –
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: SEAMA Ecoregion
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
A recent study has revealed about undocumented biodiversity in the newly recognized South East Africa Montane Archipelago (SEAMA) Ecoregion.
What is SEAMA Ecoregion?
- The SEAMA is a recently recognized ecoregion located in Southern Africa.
- It spans across northern Mozambique and incorporating Mount Mulanje in Malawi.
- SEAMA is distinguished by its mountainous terrain, encompassing diverse habitats such as montane forests, grasslands, and rock faces.
- Despite its relatively recent recognition, SEAMA has been identified as a hub of biodiversity, hosting numerous species of plants, vertebrates, and invertebrates.
Recent Findings on SEAMA Ecoregion
- Species Documentation: The researchers identified 127 plants, 45 vertebrates, and 45 invertebrate species, including two endemic genera of plants and reptiles.
- Endemic Reptiles: SEAMA is home to 22 strictly endemic reptile species, most of which are threatened by habitat loss due to deforestation.
- Global Significance: The remarkable diversity of SEAMA has prompted proposals to designate it as a new ecoregion of global biological importance.
Conservation Challenges
- Late Discovery: Despite being located in a region considered the birthplace of modern humans, the mountains of northern Mozambique remained largely unstudied until recent decades due to historical conflicts.
- Deforestation Threats: SEAMA faces severe deforestation threats, with up to 18% of its primary humid forest cover lost since 2000.
- Causes of Deforestation: Slash and burn shifting agricultural practices, along with charcoal production, are the primary drivers of deforestation in the region.
PYQ:
2013: Which one of the following pairs a correctly matched?
Geographical feature and region
(a) Abyssinian Plateau – Arabia
(b) Atlas Mountains – Northwest Africa
(c) Guiana Highlands – Southwest Africa
(d) Okavango Basin – Patagonia
Practice MCQ:
The SEAMA Ecoregion often seen in news is located in-
(a) Latin America
(b) Europe
(c) Africa
(d) Asia |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Food Waste Index Report
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The Food Waste Index Report, 2024 was recently released by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and Waste & Resources Action Programme (WRAP), a UK based non-profit organization.
Food Waste Index Report:
- It tracks the global and national generation of food and inedible parts wasted at the retail and consumer (household and food service) levels.
- It was first launched in 2011.
- It was conceived as a tool to monitor progress towards international targets, such as those outlined in the SDG 12.3, which calls for halving food waste by 2030.
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Key Findings of the 2024 Report
- Total Food Waste Generation in 2022:
- Globally, 1.05 billion tonnes of food waste were generated in 2022.
- Distribution of Food Waste by Sector:
- Households accounted for 60% of the total food waste.
- Food services were responsible for 28% of the total food waste.
- Retail accounted for 12% of the total food waste.
- Per Capita Food Waste:
- The average per capita food waste was 132 kilograms in 2022.
- Economic Cost of Food Waste:
- The economic toll of food loss and waste is estimated at $1 trillion.
- Contribution to Greenhouse Gas Emissions:
- Food loss and waste contribute significantly to greenhouse gas emissions, accounting for 8-10% of annual global emissions.
- Regional Trends:
- Food waste levels vary minimally across income groups.
- Hotter climates tend to generate more household food waste due to consumption patterns and infrastructure limitations.
- Rural areas generally exhibit lower levels of food waste compared to urban areas.
- Policy Integration:
- Only 21 countries, including Australia, Japan, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union, have included food loss and waste reduction in their climate plans or Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
PYQ:
2019: In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements is correct about the Food Waste Index Report?
(a) It tracks only the global generation of food waste at the retail level.
(b) It was first launched in 2011 to monitor progress towards reducing food waste in households and food service sectors.
(c) It is a tool aimed at monitoring progress towards international targets outlined in SDG 12.3 to halve food waste by 2030.
(d) It primarily focuses on tracking inedible parts wasted at the industrial level. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Art and Culture; Heritage Monuments in News;
Mains level: Art and Culture; Conservation of Historical Monuments; ASI;
Why in the news?
Recently, the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has decided to delist 18 “centrally protected monuments” because according to them, they lag in National Importance.
What does the “Delisting” of monuments mean?
- Delisting means that the monument will no longer be protected, conserved, or maintained by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). Once delisted, the restrictions on construction-related activities around the monument are lifted.
- Legal Mandate: Section 35 of the AMASR Act outlines the process for delisting monuments. It empowers the Central Government to declare, via official notification, that a monument no longer holds national importance, thereby removing its protected status.
Delisted Monuments: Kos Minar No.13 at Mujessar village in Haryana, Barakhamba Cemetery in Delhi, Gunner Burkill’s tomb in Jhansi district, a cemetery at Gaughat in Lucknow, and the Telia Nala Buddhist ruins in Varanasi. |
Challenges for the Archaeological Survey of India due to “untraceable” monument:
-
- Survival issue: Some monuments, especially smaller or lesser-known ones, have been lost over time due to various factors such as urbanization, encroachments, neglect, and construction activities like dams and reservoirs.
- Among the 50 missing monuments, 14 had been lost to rapid urbanization, 12 were submerged by reservoirs or dams, and the remaining 24 were untraceable.
- Difficulty in Locating Monuments: This could be due to factors like inadequate documentation, lack of historical records, changes in the landscape, or complete disappearance of the structure.
- Issue with Preservation and Conservation: Without knowing the monument’s location, it cannot be regularly inspected, assessed for its condition, or protected from encroachments or other forms of damage.
- Despite the recognized need for 7,000 security personnel, only 2,578 were deployed due to financial limitations.
- Therefore, ASI faces challenges in fulfilling this responsibility effectively, especially when dealing with monuments that are untraceable due to historical neglect or lack of resources.
How many historical monuments have been lost in this way?
- According to the Ministry of Culture’s submission to the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Transport, Tourism, and Culture in December 2022, a total of 50 out of India’s 3,693 centrally protected monuments were missing.
- In 2013, a report by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India highlighted the issue of missing monuments. The report stated that at least 92 centrally protected monuments across the country were missing.
Conclusion: The ASI has decided to delist 18 centrally protected monuments that are deemed to have lost national importance. This delisting means these monuments will no longer receive protection or conservation from the ASI.
Mains PYQs
Q Safeguarding the Indian art heritage is the need of the moment. Comment (UPSC IAS/2018)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: New Collective Quantitative Goal (NCQG)
Mains level: money is required to ensure effective climate action?
Why in the news?
As the climate bomb ticks, Global Climate negotiators are working on a new global climate finance budget ahead of COP29 in Baku this November.
-
In 2009, developed countries committed to paying $100 bn every year. However, they failed to do so.
Context:
- The 2022 climate change conference (COP 28) held in Sharm el-Sheikh decided to establish a Loss and Damage Fund.
- These funds would work as a “transition away” from fossil fuels, and a promise to triple global renewable energy capacity by 2030.
- On March 22, a two-day meeting was concluded in Copenhagen, Denmark, the first minister-level climate meeting for this year, and a ‘New Collective Quantitative Goal’ was finalized.
What is the New Collective Quantitative Goal (NCQG)?
- NCQG represents the yearly sum that developed countries must gather from 2025 onward to finance climate action in developing nations.
- It has to be higher than the $100 billion that developed countries, collectively, had promised to raise every year from 2020, but had failed to deliver.
Collective Funds need to ensure effective Climate Action:
- UN Climate Change Report (2021): According to a report by UN Climate Change, developing countries would need approximately $6 trillion annually between 2021 and 2030 to implement their climate action plans.
- Estimation in Sharm el-Sheikh Agreement: The final agreement at Sharm el-Sheikh included estimates suggesting that a global transition to a low-carbon economy could require about $4-6 trillion annually until 2050.
- Global GDP Percentage: While these estimates vary, an approximate range of $5-7 trillion annually is suggested to effectively address climate change. This would require deploying about 5-7% of the global GDP towards climate action.
- Renewable Energy Capacity: Meeting the target of tripling renewable energy capacity, as agreed in Dubai, is estimated to cost $30 trillion by 2030, according to the International Renewable Energy Association (IRENA).
Prospects for a Realistic New Annual Climate Finance Target:
- Current Funding Shortfall: The UNFCCC, responsible for organizing climate meetings and facilitating the implementation of climate agreements, is facing a severe shortage of funds. Its budget is currently less than half funded, which hampers its ability to fulfill its mandate effectively.
- Call for Increased Climate Finance: There is a call for developed countries to commit to significantly higher levels of climate finance. India, for instance, has called for the New Collective Quantitative Goal (NCQG) to be set at least at $1 trillion per year
- Need of Innovative Funding Sources: Simon Stiell, Executive Secretary of UN Climate Change, emphasized the need for innovative funding sources to meet the substantial financial requirements for climate action.
- Dependence on Contributions: The UNFCCC relies heavily on contributions from countries and voluntary organizations to carry out its work.
How will this money be used?
- On-time Delivery: Ensuring effective delivery of the new funding is essential for achieving meaningful impact.
- Transparent and Inclusive Monitoring: Developing countries emphasize the need for a transparent and inclusive process to monitor and measure the agreed-upon amount.
- Distribution Across Needs: The new funding is distributed across different climate action areas such as mitigation, adaptation, and addressing loss and damage as per need
Conclusion: Developed countries must commit to higher climate finance, possibly $1 trillion annually, for effective action. Innovative funding sources and transparent monitoring are crucial for impactful distribution across climate action areas.
Mains PYQs
Q Clean energy is the order of the day.’ Describe briefly India’s changing policy towards climate change in various international fora in the context of geopolitics.(UPSC IAS/2022)
Q ‘Climate change’ is a global problem. How India will be affected by climate change? How Himalayan and coastal states of India will be affected by climate change? (UPSC IAS/2017)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: law on Governor-state relations
Mains level: Reason behind the Governor-state friction
Why in the news?
Allegations by the regional government (Recently Kerala govt.) on the Centre using the Governor’s position to destabilize state governments have been made since the 1950s. This calls for Governor-state relations.
What is the law on Governor-state relations?
- The Governor, although meant to be apolitical and act on the advice of the council of ministers, holds significant powers granted under the Constitution.
- These include giving or withholding assent to bills passed by the state legislature and determining the time needed for a party to prove its majority in cases of a hung verdict in an election.
- While the Constitution grants powers to the Governor, there are no specific provisions on how the Governor and the state government should publicly engage when there is a difference of opinion.
What have been the friction points in recent years?
- Controversial Actions: Some actions by governors have sparked controversy, such as dissolving assemblies amidst government formation discussions (Jammu and Kashmir), and inviting leaders without public consultation (Maharashtra) this government lasted just 80 hours. And Six months later, the Governor refused to nominate CM Uddhav Thackeray.
- Interference in State Affairs: Governors have been criticized for allegedly interfering in state affairs, including commenting on law and order situations (West Bengal), and refusing requests from state governments (Kerala) regarding legislative matters.
- Legal Challenges: Some decisions made by governors have faced legal challenges, such as the invitation to the BJP to form the government in Karnataka, which was challenged and subsequently modified by the Supreme Court.
Dismissal after independence:
- Dismissals in the 1950s: Allegations of the Centre using the Governor’s position to destabilize state governments date back to the 1950s. In 1959, Kerala’s E M S Namboodiripad government was dismissed based on a report by the Governor.
- Dismissals in the Post-1960s: Several state governments were dismissed between 1965 and 1990 through President’s Rule orders issued by Governors. These dismissals included governments such as Birender Singh in Haryana (1967), M Karunanidhi in Tamil Nadu (1976), and N T Rama Rao in Andhra Pradesh (1984).
- Decrease in Dismissals: The frequency of state government dismissals decreased during the coalition era at the Centre and the emergence of strong regional parties. This suggests a shift in political dynamics and possibly less direct interference by the Centre through Governors in state politics.
Causes of such Governor-State Frictions:
- Answerable only to the Centre: The Governor is not directly accountable to the people and is answerable only to the Centre.
- Appointment and Tenure: The Governor is appointed by the President on the Centre’s advice and holds office at the pleasure of the President. Although the tenure is typically five years
- Lack of Impeachment Provision: There is no provision for impeaching the Governor, further limiting mechanisms for holding them accountable.
- Absence of Guidelines: The Constitution does not provide clear guidelines for the exercise of the Governor’s powers, including the appointment of a Chief Minister or the dissolution of the Assembly. Additionally, there are no limits set for how long a Governor can withhold assent to a Bill, raising questions about arbitrary use of power.
- Governor as Agent of the Centre: The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution highlighted concerns that Governors may act in accordance with instructions from the Union Council of Ministers, leading to perceptions that they are “agents of the Centre.”
Reform suggested by the ARC of 1968 to the Sarkaria Commission of 1988:
- Selection Process: Establishing a panel consisting of the Prime Minister, Home Minister, Lok Sabha Speaker, and Chief Minister to select Governors.
- Fixed Tenure: Recommendations advocate for fixing the Governor’s tenure for five years.
- Impeachment Provision: Suggestions include introducing a provision to impeach the Governor by the State Assembly.
Conclusion: Governors often side with the central government and aren’t accountable enough. Kerala’s case shows a problem with the law. Proposed changes aim to make things clearer and fairer.
Mains PYQs
Q Discuss the essential conditions for exercise of the legislative powers by the Governor. Discuss the legality of re-promulgation of ordinances by the Governor without placing them before the Legislature. (UPSC IAS/2022)
Q Whether the Supreme Court Judgement (July 2018) can settle the political tussle between the Lt. Governor and elected government of Delhi? Examine. (UPSC IAS/2018)
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/state-government-governors-powers-disagreements-9240141/
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: About Advisory Board
Mains level: distinction between 'Public order' and 'Law and Order', and the Preventive Detention
Why in the news?
Recently SCt said that advisory boards should act like a safety net, protecting people’s freedom from the government’s arbitrary use of power.
- They need to make sure there’s a balance between the government’s actions and people’s right to be free.
About Advisory Board:
- Article 22 of the Constitution makes it mandatory for preventive detention laws to form advisory boards consisting of persons qualified to be High Court judges.
- Objective: It must consider whether the detention is necessary not just in the eyes of the detaining authority but also in the eyes of the law.
- Case Background: The judgment came in an appeal filed by a man ordered by the Telangana police to be detained as a ‘goonda’ under the Telangana Prevention of Dangerous Activities Act, 1986.
- The claim by Telangana police: The man was a threat to “public order”. He was a cause of panic and fear among women. The appellant was accused of making a habit of snatching the ‘mangalsutras’ of his victims in broad daylight.
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SC on the Appeal filed under the Telangana Prevention of Dangerous Activities Act, 1986:
- Qualifications of Advisory Board Members: Justice Pardiwala emphasized that having qualified individuals, potentially fit to become High Court judges, on advisory boards was crucial. This ensures robust scrutiny of government detention orders.
- Responsibilities of Advisory Boards: These boards, mandated by various laws, are required to review detention orders every three months.
- Substantial Evidence to justify detention: Justice Pardiwala highlighted the unfairness of depriving someone of their Personal Liberty based merely on the assumption that they might commit a crime in the future. He stressed the importance of substantial evidence to justify detention.
- Absence of Evidence of Threat to Public Order: The Supreme Court observed that the state failed to provide sufficient material indicating that the detained individual posed a genuine threat to public order. Specifically, there was no substantial evidence linking him to activities that could disrupt public order.
The distinction between ‘Public order’ and ‘Law and Order’, and the Preventive Detention
- Differentiating ‘Public Order’ and ‘Law and Order’: Justice Pardiwala highlighted the distinction between ‘law and order’ issues, which affect only a few individuals, and ‘public order’ concerns, which have a broader impact on the community or even the entire country.
- Limitations on Preventive Detention: The SC emphasized that preventive detention should only be utilized in exceptional circumstances.
- Quashing of Detention Order: Justice Pardiwala ordered the quashing of the detention order against the appellant based on the absence of his direct involvement in any of the First Information Reports (FIRs).
Conclusion: The Supreme Court emphasizes advisory boards in preventive detention laws aren’t mere rubber stamps for the government but safeguards for personal liberty. They must ensure the necessity of detention, backed by substantial evidence, and limit preventive detention to exceptional circumstances.
Mains question for practice
Q Discuss the recent Supreme Court ruling emphasizing the role of advisory boards in preventive detention laws ( 150 words )
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: DMA's Objective:
Mains level: Present Challenges with Tech-giants
Why in the news?
The European Commission has initiated investigations into major tech companies like Apple, Meta, Google’s parent Alphabet, and Amazon to enforce fair and competitive markets in the digital industry, following the regulations of the Digital Markets Act (DMA).
What is the European Commission?
The European Commission is the executive arm of the European Union responsible for proposing and enforcing legislation, managing EU policies and spending programs, ensuring the proper application of EU laws, and representing the EU internationally.
About Gatekeepers: It refers to significant market players in the digital sector who hold considerable market power and provide core platform services. In September 2023, several tech companies, including Alphabet, Amazon, Apple, ByteDance (TikTok’s parent company), and Microsoft, were designated as ‘gatekeepers,’ expected to comply fully with DMA obligations by March 7 of the following year.
DMA’s Objective: The investigations align with the Digital Markets Act’s (DMA) goal to regulate ‘gatekeepers’ in the digital market and ensure fair competition and consumer access. |
Where is the context of these non-compliance investigations?
- Investigations into Tech Giants: Alphabet (Google), Apple, and Meta (formerly Facebook) are facing investigations over alleged violations related to unfair competitive practices.
- Specific Allegations: Alphabet is being investigated for steering customers towards its in-house services, Apple for similar practices in its App Store and Safari browser, Meta for its “pay or consent model.”
Steering rules are Non-Compliant:
- DMA Provisions: The Digital Markets Act (DMA) allows app developers to direct consumers to offers and services outside the gatekeeper’s app store without any charge.
- Commission’s Concerns: The European Commission expressed concerns about Alphabet (Google) and Apple’s noncompliance with DMA provisions, citing various restrictions and limitations imposed by these companies.
- Apple’s Defense: Apple defended its tight integration with the App Store, claiming it’s necessary for a secure and seamless user experience
Present Challenges with Tech-giants:
- Alphabet engaging in self-preferencing:
-
- Investigation on Google search: The Commission is investigating whether Google’s search results are discriminatory, particularly whether Google favors its own verticals over rival services, a practice known as self-preferencing
- U.S. Department of Justice’s Accusation: In October 2020, the U.S. Department of Justice (DoJ) accused Google of unlawfully maintaining monopolies in the search and search advertising markets through anti-competitive and exclusionary practices.
- Apple enabling choice:
- European Commission’s Investigation on IOS: The Commission is assessing whether Apple allows users to uninstall pre-installed or default software applications on iOS easily.
- Concerns Over User Choice: The investigation stems from concerns that Apple’s measures may prevent users from effectively exercising their choice of services within the Apple ecosystem.
- Concerns about Meta’s model:
- Meta’s Subscription Model: Meta (formerly Facebook) introduced a subscription model in the European Union (EU), European Economic Area (EEA), and Switzerland. This model offered users the choice to use Facebook and Instagram without ads by subscribing to a paid service.
- Commission’s Concerns: It expressed concerns that the binary choice offered by the model may not provide a real alternative for users who do not consent to personalized advertising. Consequently, the Commission doubted whether the model effectively prevented the accumulation of personal data by gatekeepers, as intended.
How will non-compliant companies be penalized?
- Potential Penalties: The companies under investigation face significant fines of up to 10% of their global turnover or 20% in the case of repeated infringements.
- Consequences of Systematic Infringement: If the investigation uncovers systematic infringement, the companies may be required to divest certain business units or sell parts of their business. Additionally, they could face a ban from acquiring related additional services.
Conclusion
EU investigates tech giants like Apple, Meta, Alphabet, and Amazon for unfair practices under the Digital Markets Act. Concerns arise over violations, including self-preferencing and restricting user choice. Penalties may include hefty fines and divestments for non-compliance.
Mains PYQ
Q Elucidate the relationship between globalization and new technology in a world of scarce resources, with special reference to India. (UPSC IAS/2022)
Q Examine the impact of liberalization on companies owned by Indians. Are they competing with the MNCs satisfactorily? Discuss. (UPSC IAS/2013)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Pandemic Agreement
Mains level: Key features of Pandemic Agreement
Why in the news?
In March 2021, a call for a pandemic treaty by 25 heads of government and international agencies marked a pivotal moment. The WHO Pandemic Agreement’s final negotiations began last week. With approval pending in May, its fate remains uncertain amid debates.
Key features of Pandemic Agreement
- Aim of the Pandemic Agreement: Address systemic failures revealed by COVID-19 crisis, strengthen global defenses, and prevent future pandemics from escalating into catastrophic human crises. Focus on pandemic prevention, preparedness, and response with equity as the goal.
- Coverage of Issues: Includes pathogen surveillance, healthcare workforce capacity, supply chain and logistics, technology transfer for vaccine production, and waivers of intellectual property rights. Aims to strengthen surveillance for pathogens with pandemic potential and manage antimicrobial resistance.
- Equitable Access: Emphasis on equitable access to medical products across provisions, including language on principles, preparedness, production, technology transfer, access, benefit-sharing, supply, and procurement.
- Establishment of Conference of Parties (COP): Proposed establishment to oversee the implementation of the Pandemic Agreement
Disagreements between Developing countries and Developed countries
- Developing vs. Developed Countries’ Perspectives: Developing countries largely embrace the revised negotiating text, emphasizing equity and clarity on obligations vs. responsibilities. Developed countries criticize the text, particularly regarding financing and intellectual property issues, considering them ‘redlines’.
- Disagreements: Major substantive disagreements exist alongside general disagreement on negotiation modalities. Developing countries, represented by India among others, stress the importance of clarity on obligations to operationalize equity within the Agreement.
Concerns related Pandemic Agreement
- Equity Concerns: Dissatisfaction among developed countries and the pharmaceutical industry regarding access and benefit-sharing provisions.
- Global Governance and Enforcement Challenges: Lack of adequate enforcement mechanisms poses a significant challenge. Without robust enforcement, the Agreement risks being symbolic. Enforcement capabilities are vital for coordination efforts, stockpile management, medical response teams, and data sharing.
- Issues related to technology transfer: Even with consensus on key issues like technology transfer and intellectual property waivers, the Agreement may be ineffective without robust enforcement mechanisms.
- International Health Regulations (IHR): Existing IHR are legally binding but failed to prevent unjust travel restrictions, vaccine hoarding during COVID-19. Proposals for a decision-making body and a secretariat within the Agreement aim to address these shortcomings.
Way Forward:
- Negotiations Conclusion: The current round of negotiations in Geneva is set to conclude this week, to achieve a consensus decision by the World Health Assembly by the end of May.
- Diluted Agreement: The possibility of a diluted Agreement looms large as there is pressure to achieve consensus. Contentious issues like intellectual property (IP) waivers may have diluted language, referring to national circumstances and using non-binding terms like “best endeavor.”
- Collective Effort: The Agreement acknowledges that no single government or institution can tackle the threat of future pandemics alone, emphasizing the importance of international collaboration and cooperation.
Conclusion: The Pandemic Agreement aims to address COVID-19 failures, emphasizing equity and preparedness. Disagreements persist, especially on access and enforcement. Negotiations aim for consensus, but risks of dilution remain amid pressure for agreement.
Mains PYQ
Q COVID-19 pandemic has caused unprecedented devastation worldwide. However, technological advancements are being availed readily to win over the crisis. Give an account of how technology was sought to aid management of the pandemic. (UPSC IAS/2020)
Q Critically examine the role of WHOin providing global health security during the Covid-19 pandemic. (UPSC IAS/2020)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: United Nation High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)
Mains level: The Rohingya Population in India and Legal provisions regarding 'Refugees' in India:
Why in the news?
The recent incident involving a wooden boat carrying nearly 150 Rohingya refugees capsizing off the Indonesian coast last week has once more spotlighted the dire situation faced by these refugees.
- According to the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR), more than 4,500 Rohingya refugees started risky trips across the Bay of Bengal and the Andaman Sea last year.
Who are the Rohingya refugees?
The Rohingya are a group of Muslims who come from the area called Arakan in Myanmar, which used to be called Burma. The word “Rohingya” comes from combining “Arakan” with “ga” or “gya,” which means “from” in the Rohingya language.
About Rohingya Crises:
- Labeled as ‘illegal immigrants’: Rohingya claim ancestral ties to Myanmar’s Rakhine State, but successive governments dispute this, labeling them illegal immigrants from Bangladesh.
- Distinct from the majority: They are culturally and religiously distinct from the majority Buddhist population in Myanmar because Rohingya speak a Bengali dialect, which is different from the common Burmese language.
- Strict criteria for citizenship: Myanmar has denied Rohingya recognition as an ethnic group and citizenship since 1982. Myanmar’s 1982 citizenship law imposes strict criteria for citizenship, requiring proof of ancestors residing in Myanmar before 1823.
- World’s largest stateless population: Consequently, Rohingya are considered the world’s largest stateless population, lacking fundamental rights and security.
Why have Rohingyas fled their homeland?
- Military crackdown: Decades of discrimination, violence, and persecution by security forces in Myanmar. Significant numbers of Rohingyas began fleeing Myanmar in 2012 after a military crackdown triggered by the rape and murder of a Rakhine woman in a Rohingya-dominated area, leading to tensions between Rohingyas and Rakhine’s Buddhist community.
- largest exodus: The largest exodus occurred in August 2017 following a massive wave of violence in Rakhine, driving over 750,000 people to seek sanctuary in Bangladesh.
- UN fact-finding commission: The United Nations described the 2017 violence as “ethnic cleansing” and the humanitarian situation as “catastrophic. In 2018, the UN fact-finding commission concluded that the Myanmar government had “genocidal” intent against the Rohingya
Why they are choosing sea journeys?
- Overcrowded refugee Camp: An estimated 9,60,000 Rohingya reside in refugee camps in Bangladesh, particularly near the Myanmar border in Cox’s Bazar, which houses some of the world’s largest and most densely populated refugee camps.
- Susceptible to weather disasters and outbreaks: The camps are highly susceptible to weather-related disasters and outbreaks of diseases due to unsanitary conditions, as well as security concerns such as gang violence and arson attacks. For example, over 60 Rohingya were killed in Bangladeshi camp clashes in 2023
- Returning to Myanmar impossible: With the option of returning to Myanmar virtually impossible and worsening conditions in relief camps in Bangladesh, an increasing number of Rohingya are undertaking dangerous sea journeys across the Bay of Bengal and the Andaman Sea.
The Rohingya Population in India:
- Groups of Rohingya people are found in Jammu, Hyderabad, and Delhi-NCR, as well as in the states of Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan.
- According to the Ministry of Home Affairs, India hosts over 40,000 Rohingya individuals. Among them, only 14,000 possess United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) refugee ID cards, providing them with protection against random arrest or detention.
Legal provisions regarding ‘Refugees’ in India:
- No specific law: In India, there is no specific law enacted solely for refugees. Consequently, Rohingya refugees are frequently categorized alongside illegal immigrants and deported by the Government under the Foreigners Act, 1946, and the Foreigners Order, 1948.
- Right to deport: Section 3 of The Foreigners Act, 1946 gives the Central government the right to deport a foreign national.
Conclusion: Rohingya refugees risk sea journeys due to impossible return to Myanmar and dire conditions in overcrowded camps. In India, with no specific refugee law, they face deportation under existing immigration acts.
Mains PYQ
Q At the international level, the bilateral relations between most nations are governed on the policy of promoting one’s own national interest without any regard for the interest of other nations. This leads to conflicts and tensions between the nations. How can ethical consideration help resolve such tensions? Discuss with specific examples. (150 words) UPSC IAS/2015
Source
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Why in the news?
Scientists from Nagoya University have made a discovery about the regulation of Stomatal opening in plants, a process vital for efficient photosynthesis by a type of amino acid threonine (Thr881).
What are Stomatal Openings?
- Stomata are microscopic pores on plant leaves crucial for gas exchange.
- They particularly uptake carbon dioxide necessary for photosynthesis.
How does Light make Stomata Open?
- Research unveiled a novel regulatory mechanism involving the phosphorylation of the 881st threonine residue (Thr881) of the plasma membrane proton pump in response to red and blue light.
- Phosphorylation, a process involving the addition or removal of a phosphate group from amino acids, acts as a regulatory switch, influencing protein structure and function.
- The researchers focused on the phosphorylation of Thr881 and its role in stomatal opening.
- They observed phosphorylation in response to both red and blue light conditions, highlighting the interplay between photosynthesis and light signaling.
Significance of Thr881 Phosphorylation
- Mutant studies confirmed the critical role of Thr881 phosphorylation in stomatal opening.
- Plants expressing a mutant proton pump lacking Thr881 phosphorylation exhibited reduced stomatal aperture and transpiration rates, emphasizing the regulatory significance of this amino acid residue.
- The study identified Thr881, along with Thr948, as crucial phosphorylation sites for the activation of the enzyme H+-ATPase, essential for stomatal opening.
- Manipulating Thr881 could offer avenues for promoting plant growth, enhancing carbon dioxide absorption, and reducing fertilizer usage.
PYQ:
2014: Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
a) Potential energy is released to form free energy
b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out
Practice MCQ:
What is the significance of phosphorylation of the threonine residue (Thr881) in the context of plants?
a) It helps in reducing carbon dioxide uptake and photosynthesis efficiency.
b) It enhances photosynthesis in dark conditions.
c) It reduces transpiration leading to enhanced water conservation.
d) It is essential for regulating stomatal aperture and facilitating gas exchange in plants. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: T+0 Settlement Cycle
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
India’s stock market will begin the with a ‘beta version’ of T+0 settlement system (same day settlement) from today. This is the world’s fastest stock settlement system.
About T+0 Settlement Cycle
- SEBI has planned to introduce the shorter cycle in two phases:
- T+0 Settlement Details: In Phase 1, trades executed until 1:30 PM will be settled by 4:30 PM on the same day.
- Instant Settlement Mechanics: Phase 2 envisages immediate trade-by-trade settlement, with trading continuing until 3:30 PM.
Features of the T+0 Settlement Mechanism
- Early Pay-In Trend: A large percentage of retail investors already make early pay-ins of funds and securities, indicating readiness for instant settlement.
- Instant Receipt Benefits: The mechanism enables instant receipt of funds and securities, reducing settlement shortages and enhancing investor control.
- Investor Protection: Direct crediting of funds and securities into investors’ accounts, especially for UPI clients, strengthens investor protection.
Settlement Cycle: A Quick History
- SEBI shortened the settlement cycle from T+5 to T+3 in 2002, and then to T+2 in 2003.
- The T+1 cycle was introduced in 2021 and fully implemented by January 2023.
- In T+1, the settlement of funds and securities occurs on the next day after the trade.
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Scope and Implementation of T+0
- Initially, the T+0 settlement will be available for the top 500 listed equity shares based on market capitalization, implemented in three tranches.
- The same surveillance measures applicable in the T+1 cycle will apply to the T+0 cycle.
- Trade-for-trade settlement securities will NOT be eligible for T+0.
Rationale behind T+O Cycle
- Market Growth and Efficiency: With the significant growth in market volumes and participants, SEBI aims to enhance market efficiency and safety, especially for retail investors.
- Technological Advancements: The evolution of payment systems like UPI and the sophistication of market infrastructure support the feasibility of shorter settlement cycles.
- Investor Attraction: Faster transactions, reliability, and low costs are key factors that attract investors, making Indian securities a more appealing asset class.
Benefits of the New Mechanism
- Flexibility for Clients: The new mechanism offers faster payouts of funds to sellers and securities to buyers, providing greater flexibility and control.
- Market Ecosystem Advantages: The faster settlement cycle is expected to enhance the operational efficiency of the securities market, benefiting the entire ecosystem.
PYQ:
2017: The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to
a) ASEAN
b) BRICS
c) EU
d) G20
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the T+0 Settlement Cycle, consider the following statements:
1. Trades executed until 1:30 PM will be settled by 4:30 PM on the same day.
2. Trade-for-trade settlement securities will also be eligible for T+0.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
A Czech citizen has spotted a comet in an image from the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) spacecraft, which has now been confirmed to be the 5,000th comet discovered using SOHO data.
Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO)
- The SOHO is a spacecraft jointly operated by the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA.
- Launched in December 1995, its primary mission is to study the Sun, particularly its outer atmosphere, known as the corona, and the solar wind.
- SOHO observes the Sun in various wavelengths of light, enabling scientists to study phenomena such as sunspots, solar flares, and coronal mass ejections.
- SOHO orbits the Sun at Lagrange Point L1, about 1.5 million kilometers (nearly 1 million miles) from Earth, providing an uninterrupted view of the Sun.
- Its observations have led to discoveries such as-
- Identifying the source regions of solar wind,
- Tracking solar eruptions, and
- Monitoring changes in the Sun’s activity over its 11-year solar cycle.
What are Lagrange Points?
- Lagrange Points are named after the French mathematician Joseph-Louis Lagrange who discovered them in 1772.
- They are specific points in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as the Earth and the Sun, or the Earth and the Moon, balance the centrifugal force felt by a smaller body.
- These points are stable locations where objects can maintain their relative positions concerning the larger bodies, without drifting away or falling towards them.
There are five Lagrange Points, denoted as L1, L2, L3, L4, and L5:
- L1: Located on the line connecting the two large bodies and closer to the smaller body, L1 is particularly useful for space observatories like the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) because it provides an unobstructed view of the Sun from Earth’s perspective.
- L2: Situated on the opposite side of the smaller body from the larger one, L2 is an excellent location for deep space observatories such as the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) because it remains relatively shielded from solar interference.
- L3: Located on the line connecting the two large bodies but on the opposite side of the larger body from the smaller one, L3 is less stable and less frequently used than the other Lagrange Points.
- L4 and L5: These points form equilateral triangles with the two large bodies, with the smaller body at the third vertex. L4 precedes the smaller body in its orbit, while L5 follows it. These points are stable and have been found to accumulate natural objects, such as asteroids, known as Trojan asteroids.
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PYQ:
2013: Consider the following phenomena:
1. Size of the sun at dusk
2. Colure of the sun at dawn
3. Moon being visible at dawn
4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
5. Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 5
Practice MCQ:
Regarding the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO), consider the following statement:
1. SOHO spacecraft was launched in December 1995.
2. It is jointly operated by the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA.
3. It orbits the Earth in sun-synchronous orbit.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) None |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: International Seabed Authority (ISBA), AN Seamount
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- India has applied to the International Seabed Authority (ISBA) for exploration rights in the Afanasy Nikitin (AN) Seamount in the Indian Ocean outside its jurisdiction.
- India’s application is motivated by reports of Chinese vessels conducting reconnaissance in the same region, raising concerns about strategic interests and resource competition.
About International Seabed Authority (ISBA)
- The ISBA is an intergovernmental organization established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
- It was established in 1994 and headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica.
- ISA is tasked with regulating mineral-related activities in the international seabed area beyond national jurisdiction, which includes polymetallic nodules, polymetallic sulphides, and cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts.
- The Authority issues exploration and exploitation contracts to countries and private entities for deep-sea mining activities, subject to certain regulations and environmental safeguards.
- ISA comprises various organs, including the Assembly, the Council, the Legal and Technical Commission, and the Secretariat, each with specific functions related to deep-sea mining regulation.
- According to Article 156(2) of the UNCLOS, all UNCLOS parties are members of ISBA.
- As of 2023 has 169 members, including 168 member states and the European Union.
- India became a member of the UNCLOS in 1994.
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About AN Seamount
- The AN Seamount, located about 3,000 km from India’s coast, is a substantial structural feature in the Central Indian Ocean Basin.
- A seamount is a large submarine landform that rises from the ocean floor without reaching the surface, and thus is not an island.
- It is 400 km-long and 150 km-wide. From an oceanic depth of about 4,800 metres it rises to about 1,200 metres.
- It was discovered during a marine research expedition, named after the Russian explorer Afanasy Nikitin.
- It is renowned for its polymetallic nodules containing cobalt, nickel, manganese, and copper
Continental Shelf Claims and Implications
- Sri Lanka has applied for continental shelf claims up to 500 nautical miles beyond its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), citing a special provision.
- India, noting Chinese presence, has staked a claim for exploration rights to prevent future consequences.
- India has also applied for permission to explore another region, spanning 3,00,000 square km, called the Carlsberg Ridge in the Central Indian Ocean to investigate for polymetallic sulphides, which are reportedly rich in copper, zinc, gold and silver.
PYQ:
2021: Consider the following statements:
- The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
- India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
- ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on seafloor in international waters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the International Seabed Authority (ISBA):
- ISBA is an intergovernmental organization established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
- All UN members are naturally parties to the ISBA.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Residential Envelope Transmittance Value (RETV)
Mains level: Measures to improve sustainable material
Why in the News?
Recently, post COVID-19, India is experiencing a sudden increase in construction. Although expansion offers economic prospects and enhanced living conditions, yet it also presents notable environmental hurdles.
The Major Environmental Concerns Due to the Construction Sector:
- The cement sector is a hard-to-abate sector in terms of greenhouse gas emissions, but it is an equally critical contributor to the economic development of the country.
- India is the second largest producer of cement in the world and plans to almost double its production by 2030. It accounts for over 33% of India’s electricity usage, contributing to environmental degradation and climate change.
- Globally, about 37% of global greenhouse gas emissions can be traced back to the built environment sector, which includes buildings, the distribution systems that supply water and electricity, and the roads, bridges, and transportation systems.
- The UNEP report makes a case for “Avoid-Shift-Improve” strategies to reduce emissions.
Government Initiatives to make the Construction Sector become energy efficient:
- The India Cooling Action Plan: It forecasts an eight-fold increase in cooling demand between 2017 and 2037, emphasizing the need for thermal comfort while reducing active cooling demand. Reducing cooling demand by 20-25% and refrigeration demand by 25-30% by the year 2037 are the goals of this plan.
- Eco-Niwas Samhita (ENS): Initiatives like the Eco-Niwas Samhita (ENS) and Residential Energy Conservation Building Code are crucial steps towards improving energy efficiency in residential buildings.
- Residential Envelope Transmittance Value (RETV): Introducing metrics such as the Residential Envelope Transmittance Value (RETV) play a significant role in measuring heat transfer through a building’s envelope, thereby enabling better energy efficiency. Lower RETV values are associated with cooler indoor environments and reduced energy consumption. The recommended RETV of 15W/m2 or less promotes optimal efficiency, improved occupant comfort, and lower utility expenses.
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Materials used in the Construction sector
- Popular Building Materials: Autoclaved Aerated Concrete (AAC) blocks, red bricks, fly ash, and monolithic concrete (Mivan) are commonly used materials in construction.
- Preference for Monolithic Concrete: Despite sustainability concerns, monolithic concrete construction is favored by developers for its speed, strength, quality, and scalability, particularly in high-rise buildings and skyscrapers.
- AAC Blocks as Thermally Efficient: RETV evaluation shows AAC blocks consistently have the lowest RETV across all climatic conditions, indicating their potential as a thermally efficient material.
- Embodied Energy Differences: The literature review reveals substantial differences in embodied energy among materials, with monolithic concrete having an embodied energy 75 times greater than AAC blocks.
- Sustainability Concerns: Sustainability concerns are prominent across all materials. Red bricks contribute to resource depletion, emissions, and waste, while AAC blocks and monolithic concrete also have environmental impacts
Measures to improve sustainable material
- Adopt “Avoid-Shift-Improve”: Implement policies and regulations that incentivize the use of sustainable building materials and practices, such as tax incentives, subsidies, and green building certifications.
- Investing in R&D: Allocate resources for research and development initiatives aimed at creating new, sustainable building materials with improved thermal performance, reduced embodied carbon, and enhanced climate resilience.
- Promote Market Collaborations: Foster partnerships between academia, government agencies, and industry stakeholders, in sustainable construction practices and materials development.
- Awareness: Create consumer awareness campaigns to highlight the benefits of sustainable construction and encourage demand for eco-friendly building materials, driving market demand and adoption.
Conclusion: India’s construction boom poses environmental challenges. Initiatives like Eco-Niwas Samhita improve energy efficiency. AAC blocks show promise for thermal efficiency. Future steps include R&D, industry collaboration, policy support, and fostering market demand for sustainable materials.
Mains PYQ
Q) Adoption of PPP model for infrastructure development of the country has not been free of criticism. Critically discuss the pros and cons of the model. (UPSC IAS/2013)
Q) Smart cities in India cannot sustain without smart vilages. Discuss this statement in the backdrop of rural urban integration. (UPSC IAS/2015)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Indian Economy; Trends in FDI
Mains level: Indian Economy; Trends in FDI
Why in the News?
India’s net Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows have dropped almost 31% to $25.5 billion over the first ten months of 2023-24 as per the Finance Ministry
Recent key Observations related to FDI inflow as per the Finance Ministry
Recent FDI in the context of India:
- From April 2023 to January 2024, the net inflows decreased more significantly due to increased repatriation of investment.
- India remains one of the top destinations for global greenfield projects, with a stable number of new project announcements.
- The country received significant FDI in sectors like services, pharmaceuticals, construction, and non-conventional energy.
- The Netherlands, Singapore, Japan, the USA, and Mauritius contribute around 70% of total FDI equity inflows into India.
- There’s a possibility of a modest increase in global FDI flows in the current year, driven by a decline in inflation and borrowing costs in major markets. However, significant risks remain, including geopolitical issues, high debt levels in many countries, and concerns about further economic fracturing.
Recent FDI scenario in the context of the world:
- Overall, global FDI flows rose by 3% to an estimated $1.4 trillion in 2023 due to economic uncertainty and higher interest rates led to a 9% fall in FDI flows to developing countries.
- Drivers of Global FDI: Capital-intensive projects, particularly in renewable energy, batteries, and metals sectors, drove a large proportion of global FDI in 2023, highlighting the importance of energy transition.
- Decline in International Investment Projects: Both greenfield projects and project finance (mainly infrastructure) and cross-border Mergers and Acquisitions (M&As) saw declines in 2023, attributed to higher financing costs. International project finance and M&A activity decreased by 21% and 16%, respectively.
What is Foreign direct investment (FDI)?
Foreign direct investment (FDI) is a category of cross-border investment in which an investor resident in one economy establishes a lasting interest in and a significant degree of influence over an enterprise resident in another economy.
Government Bodies regulating FDI:
India offers an automatic route for FDI in several sectors, simplifying the investment process for foreign investors in India. However, certain sectors require government approval, and reporting requirements, in line with the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), are in place to ensure transparency in foreign investments in India. FDI in India is subject to regulation and oversight by various government bodies, such as:
- Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT): DPIIT formulates and implements policies to promote and regulate foreign investment in India across sectors.
- Reserve Bank of India (RBI): RBI manages the monetary aspects of foreign investments in India.
- Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI): SEBI regulates FDI in the capital market.
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Conclusion: India remains a top destination for greenfield projects, but international investment projects declined due to higher financing costs. This is indeed a silver lining for the Indian government to plan and execute for targeting more FDI inflow considering the Global scenario.
Practice Question for mains
Q- Explain the reasons for India’s decline in net FDI inflows in 2023-24 and analyze its implications amid global trends
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: NA
Mains level: Reason behind the maintaining in China-Taiwan conflict
Why in the News?
India, with growing national interests, faces entanglements in disputes like Taiwan. While China claims Taiwan, India is unlikely to engage militarily, focusing on safeguarding its economic and security interests.
Context:
- The Democratic Progressive Party (DPP) recently achieved an unprecedented third consecutive term in Taiwan’s legislative elections, defying China’s threats and hostilities.
- Taiwan’s legislative assembly faces a unique scenario with no clear majority for the first time in twenty years, which complicates policymaking and interactions with China.
Three reasons for Indian Government to maintain the Status quo:
- Firstly, India is interested in maintaining the current state, wherein Taiwan operates as a self-governing territory without asserting independence.
- Secondly, Chinese aggression against Taiwan would be catastrophically costly for India. A recent Bloomberg study estimates that the costs of a conflict would amount to over 10% of global GDP. India’s economy would suffer a greater shock than the U.S. economy and its most valuable sectors, from electronics to pharmaceuticals, would run dry of components and materials.
- Thirdly, if China wins, it could become more confident and expand its influence, possibly reaching the Indian Ocean. This could pose significant challenges to India’s strategic interests and territorial integrity, potentially leading to increased tensions, especially in Arunachal Pradesh.
Scope for Indian Government:
- Utilize International Law: India can leverage international legal frameworks to advocate for peaceful resolutions and oppose aggression against Taiwan.
- Narrative Building: India can shape narratives against aggression, highlighting the risks and consequences of military conflict.
- Diplomatic Coordination: India can work with other nations to coordinate diplomatic efforts aimed at dissuading China from military action.
- Economic Measures: India can undertake economic de-risking measures to minimize vulnerabilities and reduce dependence on China like economic relations with other countries
- Information Operations: India can engage in information campaigns to support the Taiwanese people and raise awareness about the situation.
- Military Support: India can support U.S. forces in the Indian Ocean, enhancing deterrence capabilities and signalling commitment to regional stability.
Conclusion: India, prioritizing economic and security interests, maintains the Taiwan status quo. To prevent conflict, it leverages international law, builds narratives against aggression, coordinates diplomacy, and considers economic diversification while supporting regional stability.
Mains PYQ
Q China is using its economic relations and positive trade surplus as tools to develop potential military power status in Asia’, In the light of this statement, discuss its impact on India as her neighbor. (UPSC IAS/2017)
Q With respect to the South China sea, maritime territorial disputes and rising tension affaire the need for safeguarding maritime security to ensure freedom of navigation and ever flight throughout the region. In this context, discuss the bilateral issues between India and China. ( UPSC IAS/2014)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Mohiniyattam and its features
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The Kerala Kalamandalam, a deemed university for arts and culture, has unanimously lifted gender restrictions allowing boys for learning Mohiniyattam, a classical dance form.
About Mohiniyattam
|
Description |
| Name Meaning |
Mohini – female enchantress avatar of Vishnu;
Aattam – rhythmic motion or dance (Malayalam) |
| Roots |
Natya Shastra, ancient Hindu Sanskrit text on performance arts |
| Style |
Lasya Style – delicate, eros-filled, and feminine |
| Performers |
Traditionally women, but men also perform in contemporary times |
| Music |
Includes Carnatic music, singing, and enactment of plays through dance |
| Language |
Manipravalam : a Malayalam-Sanskrit hybrid |
| Posture |
Parted feet, gentle swaying of body, soft footwork synchronized with music beats |
| Gestures |
Follow the classical text of Hastha Lakshanadeepika with elaborate mudras (hand gestures) |
| Costumes |
Plain white or off-white sarees with golden brocade, pleated sheets for freedom of movement, adorned with jewellery |
| Accessories |
Jewellery on fingers, wrists, neck, and ears, ankle bells (for female performers), dhotis and similar accessories (for male performers) |
| Makeup |
Natural with brilliant red lips, tikka (Gobi) on forehead, lined eyes |
| Music |
Various rhythms and compositions in Manipravalam, accompanied by instruments like Mridangam, Idakka, flute, Veena, and Kuzhitalam |
| Ragas |
Rendered in the Sopana Style, a slow melodic style rooted in the Natya Shastra |
PYQ:
2012: How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?
- Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
- Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements about Mohiniyattam is not true?
- Mohiniyattam derives its name from “Mohini,” the female enchantress avatar of Vishnu, and “Aattam,” meaning rhythmic motion or dance in Malayalam.
- Its roots can be traced back to the Natya Shastra, an ancient Hindu Sanskrit text on performance arts.
- Mohiniyattam is characterized by the Tandava style, known for its vigorous movements.
- Performances of Mohiniyattam typically include enactment of plays through dance, accompanied by singing and Carnatic music.
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