Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: About Advisory Board
Mains level: distinction between 'Public order' and 'Law and Order', and the Preventive Detention
Why in the news?
Recently SCt said that advisory boards should act like a safety net, protecting people’s freedom from the government’s arbitrary use of power.
- They need to make sure there’s a balance between the government’s actions and people’s right to be free.
About Advisory Board:
- Article 22 of the Constitution makes it mandatory for preventive detention laws to form advisory boards consisting of persons qualified to be High Court judges.
- Objective: It must consider whether the detention is necessary not just in the eyes of the detaining authority but also in the eyes of the law.
- Case Background: The judgment came in an appeal filed by a man ordered by the Telangana police to be detained as a ‘goonda’ under the Telangana Prevention of Dangerous Activities Act, 1986.
- The claim by Telangana police: The man was a threat to “public order”. He was a cause of panic and fear among women. The appellant was accused of making a habit of snatching the ‘mangalsutras’ of his victims in broad daylight.
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SC on the Appeal filed under the Telangana Prevention of Dangerous Activities Act, 1986:
- Qualifications of Advisory Board Members: Justice Pardiwala emphasized that having qualified individuals, potentially fit to become High Court judges, on advisory boards was crucial. This ensures robust scrutiny of government detention orders.
- Responsibilities of Advisory Boards: These boards, mandated by various laws, are required to review detention orders every three months.
- Substantial Evidence to justify detention: Justice Pardiwala highlighted the unfairness of depriving someone of their Personal Liberty based merely on the assumption that they might commit a crime in the future. He stressed the importance of substantial evidence to justify detention.
- Absence of Evidence of Threat to Public Order: The Supreme Court observed that the state failed to provide sufficient material indicating that the detained individual posed a genuine threat to public order. Specifically, there was no substantial evidence linking him to activities that could disrupt public order.
The distinction between ‘Public order’ and ‘Law and Order’, and the Preventive Detention
- Differentiating ‘Public Order’ and ‘Law and Order’: Justice Pardiwala highlighted the distinction between ‘law and order’ issues, which affect only a few individuals, and ‘public order’ concerns, which have a broader impact on the community or even the entire country.
- Limitations on Preventive Detention: The SC emphasized that preventive detention should only be utilized in exceptional circumstances.
- Quashing of Detention Order: Justice Pardiwala ordered the quashing of the detention order against the appellant based on the absence of his direct involvement in any of the First Information Reports (FIRs).
Conclusion: The Supreme Court emphasizes advisory boards in preventive detention laws aren’t mere rubber stamps for the government but safeguards for personal liberty. They must ensure the necessity of detention, backed by substantial evidence, and limit preventive detention to exceptional circumstances.
Mains question for practice
Q Discuss the recent Supreme Court ruling emphasizing the role of advisory boards in preventive detention laws ( 150 words )
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: DMA's Objective:
Mains level: Present Challenges with Tech-giants
Why in the news?
The European Commission has initiated investigations into major tech companies like Apple, Meta, Google’s parent Alphabet, and Amazon to enforce fair and competitive markets in the digital industry, following the regulations of the Digital Markets Act (DMA).
What is the European Commission?
The European Commission is the executive arm of the European Union responsible for proposing and enforcing legislation, managing EU policies and spending programs, ensuring the proper application of EU laws, and representing the EU internationally.
About Gatekeepers: It refers to significant market players in the digital sector who hold considerable market power and provide core platform services. In September 2023, several tech companies, including Alphabet, Amazon, Apple, ByteDance (TikTok’s parent company), and Microsoft, were designated as ‘gatekeepers,’ expected to comply fully with DMA obligations by March 7 of the following year.
DMA’s Objective: The investigations align with the Digital Markets Act’s (DMA) goal to regulate ‘gatekeepers’ in the digital market and ensure fair competition and consumer access. |
Where is the context of these non-compliance investigations?
- Investigations into Tech Giants: Alphabet (Google), Apple, and Meta (formerly Facebook) are facing investigations over alleged violations related to unfair competitive practices.
- Specific Allegations: Alphabet is being investigated for steering customers towards its in-house services, Apple for similar practices in its App Store and Safari browser, Meta for its “pay or consent model.”
Steering rules are Non-Compliant:
- DMA Provisions: The Digital Markets Act (DMA) allows app developers to direct consumers to offers and services outside the gatekeeper’s app store without any charge.
- Commission’s Concerns: The European Commission expressed concerns about Alphabet (Google) and Apple’s noncompliance with DMA provisions, citing various restrictions and limitations imposed by these companies.
- Apple’s Defense: Apple defended its tight integration with the App Store, claiming it’s necessary for a secure and seamless user experience
Present Challenges with Tech-giants:
- Alphabet engaging in self-preferencing:
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- Investigation on Google search: The Commission is investigating whether Google’s search results are discriminatory, particularly whether Google favors its own verticals over rival services, a practice known as self-preferencing
- U.S. Department of Justice’s Accusation: In October 2020, the U.S. Department of Justice (DoJ) accused Google of unlawfully maintaining monopolies in the search and search advertising markets through anti-competitive and exclusionary practices.
- Apple enabling choice:
- European Commission’s Investigation on IOS: The Commission is assessing whether Apple allows users to uninstall pre-installed or default software applications on iOS easily.
- Concerns Over User Choice: The investigation stems from concerns that Apple’s measures may prevent users from effectively exercising their choice of services within the Apple ecosystem.
- Concerns about Meta’s model:
- Meta’s Subscription Model: Meta (formerly Facebook) introduced a subscription model in the European Union (EU), European Economic Area (EEA), and Switzerland. This model offered users the choice to use Facebook and Instagram without ads by subscribing to a paid service.
- Commission’s Concerns: It expressed concerns that the binary choice offered by the model may not provide a real alternative for users who do not consent to personalized advertising. Consequently, the Commission doubted whether the model effectively prevented the accumulation of personal data by gatekeepers, as intended.
How will non-compliant companies be penalized?
- Potential Penalties: The companies under investigation face significant fines of up to 10% of their global turnover or 20% in the case of repeated infringements.
- Consequences of Systematic Infringement: If the investigation uncovers systematic infringement, the companies may be required to divest certain business units or sell parts of their business. Additionally, they could face a ban from acquiring related additional services.
Conclusion
EU investigates tech giants like Apple, Meta, Alphabet, and Amazon for unfair practices under the Digital Markets Act. Concerns arise over violations, including self-preferencing and restricting user choice. Penalties may include hefty fines and divestments for non-compliance.
Mains PYQ
Q Elucidate the relationship between globalization and new technology in a world of scarce resources, with special reference to India. (UPSC IAS/2022)
Q Examine the impact of liberalization on companies owned by Indians. Are they competing with the MNCs satisfactorily? Discuss. (UPSC IAS/2013)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Pandemic Agreement
Mains level: Key features of Pandemic Agreement
Why in the news?
In March 2021, a call for a pandemic treaty by 25 heads of government and international agencies marked a pivotal moment. The WHO Pandemic Agreement’s final negotiations began last week. With approval pending in May, its fate remains uncertain amid debates.
Key features of Pandemic Agreement
- Aim of the Pandemic Agreement: Address systemic failures revealed by COVID-19 crisis, strengthen global defenses, and prevent future pandemics from escalating into catastrophic human crises. Focus on pandemic prevention, preparedness, and response with equity as the goal.
- Coverage of Issues: Includes pathogen surveillance, healthcare workforce capacity, supply chain and logistics, technology transfer for vaccine production, and waivers of intellectual property rights. Aims to strengthen surveillance for pathogens with pandemic potential and manage antimicrobial resistance.
- Equitable Access: Emphasis on equitable access to medical products across provisions, including language on principles, preparedness, production, technology transfer, access, benefit-sharing, supply, and procurement.
- Establishment of Conference of Parties (COP): Proposed establishment to oversee the implementation of the Pandemic Agreement
Disagreements between Developing countries and Developed countries
- Developing vs. Developed Countries’ Perspectives: Developing countries largely embrace the revised negotiating text, emphasizing equity and clarity on obligations vs. responsibilities. Developed countries criticize the text, particularly regarding financing and intellectual property issues, considering them ‘redlines’.
- Disagreements: Major substantive disagreements exist alongside general disagreement on negotiation modalities. Developing countries, represented by India among others, stress the importance of clarity on obligations to operationalize equity within the Agreement.
Concerns related Pandemic Agreement
- Equity Concerns: Dissatisfaction among developed countries and the pharmaceutical industry regarding access and benefit-sharing provisions.
- Global Governance and Enforcement Challenges: Lack of adequate enforcement mechanisms poses a significant challenge. Without robust enforcement, the Agreement risks being symbolic. Enforcement capabilities are vital for coordination efforts, stockpile management, medical response teams, and data sharing.
- Issues related to technology transfer: Even with consensus on key issues like technology transfer and intellectual property waivers, the Agreement may be ineffective without robust enforcement mechanisms.
- International Health Regulations (IHR): Existing IHR are legally binding but failed to prevent unjust travel restrictions, vaccine hoarding during COVID-19. Proposals for a decision-making body and a secretariat within the Agreement aim to address these shortcomings.
Way Forward:
- Negotiations Conclusion: The current round of negotiations in Geneva is set to conclude this week, to achieve a consensus decision by the World Health Assembly by the end of May.
- Diluted Agreement: The possibility of a diluted Agreement looms large as there is pressure to achieve consensus. Contentious issues like intellectual property (IP) waivers may have diluted language, referring to national circumstances and using non-binding terms like “best endeavor.”
- Collective Effort: The Agreement acknowledges that no single government or institution can tackle the threat of future pandemics alone, emphasizing the importance of international collaboration and cooperation.
Conclusion: The Pandemic Agreement aims to address COVID-19 failures, emphasizing equity and preparedness. Disagreements persist, especially on access and enforcement. Negotiations aim for consensus, but risks of dilution remain amid pressure for agreement.
Mains PYQ
Q COVID-19 pandemic has caused unprecedented devastation worldwide. However, technological advancements are being availed readily to win over the crisis. Give an account of how technology was sought to aid management of the pandemic. (UPSC IAS/2020)
Q Critically examine the role of WHOin providing global health security during the Covid-19 pandemic. (UPSC IAS/2020)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: United Nation High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)
Mains level: The Rohingya Population in India and Legal provisions regarding 'Refugees' in India:
Why in the news?
The recent incident involving a wooden boat carrying nearly 150 Rohingya refugees capsizing off the Indonesian coast last week has once more spotlighted the dire situation faced by these refugees.
- According to the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR), more than 4,500 Rohingya refugees started risky trips across the Bay of Bengal and the Andaman Sea last year.
Who are the Rohingya refugees?
The Rohingya are a group of Muslims who come from the area called Arakan in Myanmar, which used to be called Burma. The word “Rohingya” comes from combining “Arakan” with “ga” or “gya,” which means “from” in the Rohingya language.
About Rohingya Crises:
- Labeled as ‘illegal immigrants’: Rohingya claim ancestral ties to Myanmar’s Rakhine State, but successive governments dispute this, labeling them illegal immigrants from Bangladesh.
- Distinct from the majority: They are culturally and religiously distinct from the majority Buddhist population in Myanmar because Rohingya speak a Bengali dialect, which is different from the common Burmese language.
- Strict criteria for citizenship: Myanmar has denied Rohingya recognition as an ethnic group and citizenship since 1982. Myanmar’s 1982 citizenship law imposes strict criteria for citizenship, requiring proof of ancestors residing in Myanmar before 1823.
- World’s largest stateless population: Consequently, Rohingya are considered the world’s largest stateless population, lacking fundamental rights and security.
Why have Rohingyas fled their homeland?
- Military crackdown: Decades of discrimination, violence, and persecution by security forces in Myanmar. Significant numbers of Rohingyas began fleeing Myanmar in 2012 after a military crackdown triggered by the rape and murder of a Rakhine woman in a Rohingya-dominated area, leading to tensions between Rohingyas and Rakhine’s Buddhist community.
- largest exodus: The largest exodus occurred in August 2017 following a massive wave of violence in Rakhine, driving over 750,000 people to seek sanctuary in Bangladesh.
- UN fact-finding commission: The United Nations described the 2017 violence as “ethnic cleansing” and the humanitarian situation as “catastrophic. In 2018, the UN fact-finding commission concluded that the Myanmar government had “genocidal” intent against the Rohingya
Why they are choosing sea journeys?
- Overcrowded refugee Camp: An estimated 9,60,000 Rohingya reside in refugee camps in Bangladesh, particularly near the Myanmar border in Cox’s Bazar, which houses some of the world’s largest and most densely populated refugee camps.
- Susceptible to weather disasters and outbreaks: The camps are highly susceptible to weather-related disasters and outbreaks of diseases due to unsanitary conditions, as well as security concerns such as gang violence and arson attacks. For example, over 60 Rohingya were killed in Bangladeshi camp clashes in 2023
- Returning to Myanmar impossible: With the option of returning to Myanmar virtually impossible and worsening conditions in relief camps in Bangladesh, an increasing number of Rohingya are undertaking dangerous sea journeys across the Bay of Bengal and the Andaman Sea.
The Rohingya Population in India:
- Groups of Rohingya people are found in Jammu, Hyderabad, and Delhi-NCR, as well as in the states of Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan.
- According to the Ministry of Home Affairs, India hosts over 40,000 Rohingya individuals. Among them, only 14,000 possess United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) refugee ID cards, providing them with protection against random arrest or detention.
Legal provisions regarding ‘Refugees’ in India:
- No specific law: In India, there is no specific law enacted solely for refugees. Consequently, Rohingya refugees are frequently categorized alongside illegal immigrants and deported by the Government under the Foreigners Act, 1946, and the Foreigners Order, 1948.
- Right to deport: Section 3 of The Foreigners Act, 1946 gives the Central government the right to deport a foreign national.
Conclusion: Rohingya refugees risk sea journeys due to impossible return to Myanmar and dire conditions in overcrowded camps. In India, with no specific refugee law, they face deportation under existing immigration acts.
Mains PYQ
Q At the international level, the bilateral relations between most nations are governed on the policy of promoting one’s own national interest without any regard for the interest of other nations. This leads to conflicts and tensions between the nations. How can ethical consideration help resolve such tensions? Discuss with specific examples. (150 words) UPSC IAS/2015
Source
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Why in the news?
Scientists from Nagoya University have made a discovery about the regulation of Stomatal opening in plants, a process vital for efficient photosynthesis by a type of amino acid threonine (Thr881).
What are Stomatal Openings?
- Stomata are microscopic pores on plant leaves crucial for gas exchange.
- They particularly uptake carbon dioxide necessary for photosynthesis.
How does Light make Stomata Open?
- Research unveiled a novel regulatory mechanism involving the phosphorylation of the 881st threonine residue (Thr881) of the plasma membrane proton pump in response to red and blue light.
- Phosphorylation, a process involving the addition or removal of a phosphate group from amino acids, acts as a regulatory switch, influencing protein structure and function.
- The researchers focused on the phosphorylation of Thr881 and its role in stomatal opening.
- They observed phosphorylation in response to both red and blue light conditions, highlighting the interplay between photosynthesis and light signaling.
Significance of Thr881 Phosphorylation
- Mutant studies confirmed the critical role of Thr881 phosphorylation in stomatal opening.
- Plants expressing a mutant proton pump lacking Thr881 phosphorylation exhibited reduced stomatal aperture and transpiration rates, emphasizing the regulatory significance of this amino acid residue.
- The study identified Thr881, along with Thr948, as crucial phosphorylation sites for the activation of the enzyme H+-ATPase, essential for stomatal opening.
- Manipulating Thr881 could offer avenues for promoting plant growth, enhancing carbon dioxide absorption, and reducing fertilizer usage.
PYQ:
2014: Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
a) Potential energy is released to form free energy
b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out
Practice MCQ:
What is the significance of phosphorylation of the threonine residue (Thr881) in the context of plants?
a) It helps in reducing carbon dioxide uptake and photosynthesis efficiency.
b) It enhances photosynthesis in dark conditions.
c) It reduces transpiration leading to enhanced water conservation.
d) It is essential for regulating stomatal aperture and facilitating gas exchange in plants. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: T+0 Settlement Cycle
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
India’s stock market will begin the with a ‘beta version’ of T+0 settlement system (same day settlement) from today. This is the world’s fastest stock settlement system.
About T+0 Settlement Cycle
- SEBI has planned to introduce the shorter cycle in two phases:
- T+0 Settlement Details: In Phase 1, trades executed until 1:30 PM will be settled by 4:30 PM on the same day.
- Instant Settlement Mechanics: Phase 2 envisages immediate trade-by-trade settlement, with trading continuing until 3:30 PM.
Features of the T+0 Settlement Mechanism
- Early Pay-In Trend: A large percentage of retail investors already make early pay-ins of funds and securities, indicating readiness for instant settlement.
- Instant Receipt Benefits: The mechanism enables instant receipt of funds and securities, reducing settlement shortages and enhancing investor control.
- Investor Protection: Direct crediting of funds and securities into investors’ accounts, especially for UPI clients, strengthens investor protection.
Settlement Cycle: A Quick History
- SEBI shortened the settlement cycle from T+5 to T+3 in 2002, and then to T+2 in 2003.
- The T+1 cycle was introduced in 2021 and fully implemented by January 2023.
- In T+1, the settlement of funds and securities occurs on the next day after the trade.
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Scope and Implementation of T+0
- Initially, the T+0 settlement will be available for the top 500 listed equity shares based on market capitalization, implemented in three tranches.
- The same surveillance measures applicable in the T+1 cycle will apply to the T+0 cycle.
- Trade-for-trade settlement securities will NOT be eligible for T+0.
Rationale behind T+O Cycle
- Market Growth and Efficiency: With the significant growth in market volumes and participants, SEBI aims to enhance market efficiency and safety, especially for retail investors.
- Technological Advancements: The evolution of payment systems like UPI and the sophistication of market infrastructure support the feasibility of shorter settlement cycles.
- Investor Attraction: Faster transactions, reliability, and low costs are key factors that attract investors, making Indian securities a more appealing asset class.
Benefits of the New Mechanism
- Flexibility for Clients: The new mechanism offers faster payouts of funds to sellers and securities to buyers, providing greater flexibility and control.
- Market Ecosystem Advantages: The faster settlement cycle is expected to enhance the operational efficiency of the securities market, benefiting the entire ecosystem.
PYQ:
2017: The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to
a) ASEAN
b) BRICS
c) EU
d) G20
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the T+0 Settlement Cycle, consider the following statements:
1. Trades executed until 1:30 PM will be settled by 4:30 PM on the same day.
2. Trade-for-trade settlement securities will also be eligible for T+0.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
A Czech citizen has spotted a comet in an image from the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) spacecraft, which has now been confirmed to be the 5,000th comet discovered using SOHO data.
Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO)
- The SOHO is a spacecraft jointly operated by the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA.
- Launched in December 1995, its primary mission is to study the Sun, particularly its outer atmosphere, known as the corona, and the solar wind.
- SOHO observes the Sun in various wavelengths of light, enabling scientists to study phenomena such as sunspots, solar flares, and coronal mass ejections.
- SOHO orbits the Sun at Lagrange Point L1, about 1.5 million kilometers (nearly 1 million miles) from Earth, providing an uninterrupted view of the Sun.
- Its observations have led to discoveries such as-
- Identifying the source regions of solar wind,
- Tracking solar eruptions, and
- Monitoring changes in the Sun’s activity over its 11-year solar cycle.
What are Lagrange Points?
- Lagrange Points are named after the French mathematician Joseph-Louis Lagrange who discovered them in 1772.
- They are specific points in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as the Earth and the Sun, or the Earth and the Moon, balance the centrifugal force felt by a smaller body.
- These points are stable locations where objects can maintain their relative positions concerning the larger bodies, without drifting away or falling towards them.
There are five Lagrange Points, denoted as L1, L2, L3, L4, and L5:
- L1: Located on the line connecting the two large bodies and closer to the smaller body, L1 is particularly useful for space observatories like the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) because it provides an unobstructed view of the Sun from Earth’s perspective.
- L2: Situated on the opposite side of the smaller body from the larger one, L2 is an excellent location for deep space observatories such as the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) because it remains relatively shielded from solar interference.
- L3: Located on the line connecting the two large bodies but on the opposite side of the larger body from the smaller one, L3 is less stable and less frequently used than the other Lagrange Points.
- L4 and L5: These points form equilateral triangles with the two large bodies, with the smaller body at the third vertex. L4 precedes the smaller body in its orbit, while L5 follows it. These points are stable and have been found to accumulate natural objects, such as asteroids, known as Trojan asteroids.
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PYQ:
2013: Consider the following phenomena:
1. Size of the sun at dusk
2. Colure of the sun at dawn
3. Moon being visible at dawn
4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
5. Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 5
Practice MCQ:
Regarding the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO), consider the following statement:
1. SOHO spacecraft was launched in December 1995.
2. It is jointly operated by the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA.
3. It orbits the Earth in sun-synchronous orbit.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) None |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: International Seabed Authority (ISBA), AN Seamount
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- India has applied to the International Seabed Authority (ISBA) for exploration rights in the Afanasy Nikitin (AN) Seamount in the Indian Ocean outside its jurisdiction.
- India’s application is motivated by reports of Chinese vessels conducting reconnaissance in the same region, raising concerns about strategic interests and resource competition.
About International Seabed Authority (ISBA)
- The ISBA is an intergovernmental organization established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
- It was established in 1994 and headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica.
- ISA is tasked with regulating mineral-related activities in the international seabed area beyond national jurisdiction, which includes polymetallic nodules, polymetallic sulphides, and cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts.
- The Authority issues exploration and exploitation contracts to countries and private entities for deep-sea mining activities, subject to certain regulations and environmental safeguards.
- ISA comprises various organs, including the Assembly, the Council, the Legal and Technical Commission, and the Secretariat, each with specific functions related to deep-sea mining regulation.
- According to Article 156(2) of the UNCLOS, all UNCLOS parties are members of ISBA.
- As of 2023 has 169 members, including 168 member states and the European Union.
- India became a member of the UNCLOS in 1994.
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About AN Seamount
- The AN Seamount, located about 3,000 km from India’s coast, is a substantial structural feature in the Central Indian Ocean Basin.
- A seamount is a large submarine landform that rises from the ocean floor without reaching the surface, and thus is not an island.
- It is 400 km-long and 150 km-wide. From an oceanic depth of about 4,800 metres it rises to about 1,200 metres.
- It was discovered during a marine research expedition, named after the Russian explorer Afanasy Nikitin.
- It is renowned for its polymetallic nodules containing cobalt, nickel, manganese, and copper
Continental Shelf Claims and Implications
- Sri Lanka has applied for continental shelf claims up to 500 nautical miles beyond its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), citing a special provision.
- India, noting Chinese presence, has staked a claim for exploration rights to prevent future consequences.
- India has also applied for permission to explore another region, spanning 3,00,000 square km, called the Carlsberg Ridge in the Central Indian Ocean to investigate for polymetallic sulphides, which are reportedly rich in copper, zinc, gold and silver.
PYQ:
2021: Consider the following statements:
- The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
- India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
- ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on seafloor in international waters.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the International Seabed Authority (ISBA):
- ISBA is an intergovernmental organization established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
- All UN members are naturally parties to the ISBA.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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