Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Zero FIR vs ordinary FIR
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Hyderabad Police have initiated a zero FIR case against former minister for alleged derogatory remarks against Telangana CM.
First Information Report (FIR)
- An FIR is a written document prepared by the police upon receiving information about a cognisable offence.
- It is when an officer can arrest a suspect without a court’s warrant if/she has “reason to believe” that the person committed the offence and arrest is necessary based on certain factors.
- It serves as the first step towards initiating the investigation process and subsequent police actions.
- Section 154(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) empowers the police to register an FIR for cognizable offences.
- Section 166A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) provides punishment for public servants failing to record information related to a cognizable offence, with imprisonment of up to two years and a fine.
|
What is Zero FIR?
- Provision and Purpose: Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognisable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.
- No diary: Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’. Hence the name.
Features of a Zero FIR:
- Swift Action: The relevant police station subsequently registers a fresh FIR and commences the investigation.
- Focus on Victims: It is designed to expedite complaint lodging, particularly for serious crimes involving women and children, without the need to approach multiple police stations.
- Preserving Evidence: Early registration helps prevent the loss or tampering of crucial evidence and witnesses.
- Transferred Jurisdiction: The Zero FIR is later transferred to the relevant police station where the offence occurred or where the investigation should be conducted.
How does it work?
- After a police station registers a zero FIR, it has to transfer the complaint to a police station that has the jurisdiction to investigate the alleged offence.
- Once a zero FIR is transferred, the police station with the appropriate jurisdiction assigns it a serial number, thereby converting it into a regular FIR.
Legal Provisions for Zero FIR
The provision of Zero FIR finds support in various judgments and recommendations:
- Satvinder Kaur vs. State (1999): The Delhi High Court held that a woman has the right to lodge her complaint from any place other than where the incident occurred.
- Justice Verma Committee (2012): The introduction of Zero FIR was based on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee, which was formed in response to the 2012 Nirbhaya gangrape case.
- Lalita Kumari vs. Govt. of UP (2014): The Supreme Court ruled that registration of an FIR is mandatory when information discloses the commission of a cognizable offence.
PYQ:
2021: With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked-up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Practice MCQ:
Regarding the Zero FIR, consider the following statements:
1. Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognizable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.
2. Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Environment; Solar Photovoltaic cells;
Mains level: Environment; Solar Energy;
Why in the news?
The government is finally bringing into effect the policy of an Approved list of Models and Manufacturers (ALMM) that will discourage solar power project developers from relying on imported panels.
About Approved Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules Order, 2019:
- Aim: To boost domestic manufacturing of solar panels by registering only those made with domestically manufactured cells, wafers, and polysilicon.
- Compulsory Registration: The order mandates compulsory registration for solar PV module and cell manufacturers, ensuring they meet certain quality and production standards.
- Lists: LIST-I for solar PV modules and LIST-II for solar PV cells.
- Only listed models and manufacturers in these lists are considered approved for use in various government projects and schemes.
- Eligibility Criteria: To be included in the lists, manufacturers must undergo inspections and meet specific criteria set by the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) to ensure the products are genuinely manufactured and not imported.
- This order ensures the reliability of solar PV products used in installations, promotes domestic manufacturing, and aligns with the government’s initiatives for renewable energy adoption and energy security.
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Efforts made by the Government to promote domestic Solar Manufacturing:
- Import Restrictions: The creation of the Approved Models and Manufacturers list was aimed at restricting imports from China, which dominates a significant portion of the global solar supply market.
- Ambitious Renewable Energy Targets: India aims to source about 500 GW of its electricity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030, with at least 280 GW coming from solar power. This necessitates adding at least 40 GW of solar capacity annually until 2030. So there is need to focus on indegenous solar project
Challenges ahead:
- Unrealistic Targets: Despite ambitious targets, India’s solar capacity additions have been relatively low in recent years, attributed in part to the COVID-19 pandemic. The country aims to ramp up installations to between 25 GW and 40 GW annually.
- Reliance on Imports: A significant fraction of India’s solar installations is met by imports, which affects domestic panel manufacturers who must pay for government certification but lose orders to cheaper Chinese panels. For example surge in Solar panel import in FY 24 around $1,136.28 million from FY23 imports $943.53 million
Conclusion: India’s ALMM policy aims to boost domestic solar manufacturing, aligning with ambitious renewable energy targets. Address challenges like meeting targets and reducing reliance on imports through strategic planning and support.
Mains PYQ
Q Describe the benefits of deriving electric energy from sunlight in contrast to conventional energy generation. What are the initiatives offered by our government for this purpose? (UPSC IAS/2020)
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/renewables/how-india-became-a-frontrunner-in-the-global-renewable-energy-market/articleshow/100271905.cms?from=mdr
https://mnre.gov.in/approved-list-of-models-and-manufacturers-almm/
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1944075
https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/renewable/indias-solar-panel-imports-set-to-remain-higher-in-fy24/106217488#:~:text=During%20the%20initial%20six%20months,million%2C%20according%20to%20Eninrac%20Consulting
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: NA
Mains level: Health Governance;
Why in the News?
The study released by IIT Madras highlights the concerns related to high rates of C-section deliveries among women in Tamil Nadu, particularly in private hospitals.
- This indicates the necessity for corrective measures to address the situation.
What is a Caesarean section?
It is also known as C-section or cesarean delivery, which is the surgical procedure by which one or more babies are delivered through an incision in the mother’s abdomen.
It is often performed because vaginal delivery would put the mother or child at risk. |
Changes in the share of births delivered by C-sections in public and private sector hospitals in India, Tamil Nadu, and Chhattisgarh between 2015-16 and 2019-21.
- High C-section Rate in Public Hospitals: In public sector hospitals in Tamil Nadu, nearly 40% of women underwent C-sections during 2019-21.
- High C-section Rate in Private Hospitals: Close to 64% of women underwent C-sections in private sector hospitals in Tamil Nadu during 2019-21, which is significantly higher than both the national average of around 50% and Chhattisgarh’s rate of 59%.
- Higher than the National Average: The rate of C-section deliveries in Tamil Nadu’s public sector hospitals is substantially higher than the national average, which is approximately 16%. Additionally, it surpasses the rate in Chhattisgarh, where it stands at 10%.
Reasons behind the increase in C-section rates despite a decrease in pregnancy complications:
- Regional Disparities: In Chhattisgarh, the likelihood of a woman undergoing a C-section in a private hospital is ten times higher than in a public hospital. This suggests potential disparities in access to high-quality healthcare services between public and private sectors, with implications for maternal health outcomes.
- Socioeconomic Factors: The study assumes that poorer households opt for public hospitals while richer households prefer private ones for deliveries. This socioeconomic divide may contribute to inequitable access to healthcare services at the national level.
- Higher Likelihood in Private Health Facilities: Women delivering in private health facilities are more likely to undergo C-sections compared to those in public facilities, with a notable disparity observed in Chhattisgarh.
- Maternal Age and Weight Status: Factors such as maternal age (35-49) and overweight status increase the likelihood of C-section delivery.
- High gap between Poor and Rich: In India, the gap in C-section prevalence between the poor and non-poor narrowed in private facilities, but Tamil Nadu exhibited a concerning trend where a higher percentage of the poor underwent C-sections compared to the non-poor.
Recommendations by the World Health Organization (WHO): Cesarean delivery rates should ideally not exceed 10-15% to achieve the lowest maternal and neonatal mortality rates. When C-section rates go beyond 10%, there is no significant decrease in maternal mortality. In 2021, global C-section rates surpassed 20%, and they are projected to increase to 30% by 2030.
Conclusion: Access to C-sections in Tamil Nadu shows disparities, with high rates in both public and private hospitals. Addressing regional, and socioeconomic factors and adhering to WHO recommendations are crucial for equitable maternal healthcare.
PYQ Mains
Q Appropriate local community level healthcare intervention is a prerequisite to achieve ‘Health for All’ in India. Explain. (UPSC IAS/2018)
https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/rise-in-c-section-deliveries-despite-decrease-in-pregnancy-complications-iit-madras-study-2521773-2024-04-01
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: India- Srilanka Bilateral Relations; Places in News;
Mains level: India- Srilanka Bilateral Relations; Places in News;
Why in the news?
Katchatheevu Island, a disputed stretch in the Palk Strait, was ceded to Sri Lanka during late PM Indira Gandhi, through an agreement.
- Fifty years later, PM Modi, has mounted an attack on the Congress and DMK for ‘callously’ giving it away to Sri Lanka.
About the Katchatheevu Island:
- Katchatheevu is an uninhabited area in the Palk Strait, between India and Sri Lanka. It was created due to volcanic eruption in the 14th century and is comparatively youthful in the realm of geological chronology.
- Historically, it was controlled by the Jaffna kingdom of Sri Lanka in the medieval period.
- However, in the 17th century, control passed to the Ramnad zamindari based out of Ramanathapuram, about 55 km northwest of Rameswaram.
- The Island became part of the Madras Presidency during the British Raj. But in 1921, both India and Sri Lanka, at the time were British colonies and claimed Katchatheevu to determine fishing boundaries.
- A British delegation from India challenged this, citing ownership of the island by the Ramnad kingdom. This dispute was not settled until 1974.
Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement of 1974:
- In 1974, the Indian government, led by Indira Gandhi at the time, endeavored to definitively resolve the maritime border between India and Sri Lanka.
- As a component of this arrangement, termed the ‘Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime agreement’, Katchatheevu was relinquished to Sri Lanka.
- During this period, it was perceived that the island held minimal strategic significance, and relinquishing India’s claim over it was anticipated to foster stronger relations with its southern neighbor.
- Limitations of the Agreement of 1974:
- Issue of fishing rights: The 1974 agreement failed to address the issue of fishing rights. Sri Lanka interpreted the access of Indian fishermen to Katchatheevu as being restricted solely to activities such as resting, drying nets, and visiting the Catholic shrine, without the requirement of a visa.
- The issue concerning EEZ: Further agreement was reached between the two countries, prohibiting fishing within each other’s Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs).
- However, the proximity of Katchatheevu to the edges of both countries’ EEZs left unresolved questions regarding fishing rights, contributing to ongoing uncertainty.
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India’s stand on the Kachchatheevu issue:
- August 2013: The Union government informed the Supreme Court that the question of reclaiming Kachchatheevu from Sri Lanka did not arise because no Indian territory was ceded to Sri Lanka. Moreover, it was historically disputed territory between British India and Ceylon (now Sri Lanka), and the matter was settled through agreements in 1974 and 1976.
- December 2022: The Union government reiterated the stance, emphasizing that Katchatheevu lies on the Sri Lankan side of the India-Sri Lanka International Maritime Boundary Line as per the agreements. Additionally, it mentioned that the matter was under judicial consideration in the Supreme Court.
Conclusion: The recent mention of Katchatheevu by Prime Minister Modi ahead of elections in Tamil Nadu highlights its contentious nature. To address fishermen’s issues, diplomatic dialogue and legal clarity are crucial.
Mains PYQ
Q What are the maritime security challenges in India? Discuss the organizational, technical, and procedural initiatives taken to improve maritime security. (UPSC IAS/2022)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
This year marks 125th Year of the Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO).
About Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO)
- The idea for an Indian solar observatory emerged in the late 19th century, with then government sanctioning the establishment of the Solar Physics Observatory in Kodaikanal in August 1893.
- Kodaikanal in the Palani hills of Tamil Nadu was chosen as the site for the observatory due to its favorable atmospheric conditions, following surveys conducted by Charles Michie Smith.
- The foundation stone for KoSO was laid by Lord Wenlock, the then Governor of Madras, in 1895.
- Systematic observations at KoSO began on March 14, 1901.
- KoSO initially housed instruments for solar observations, including telescopes for examining sunspots, prominences, and solar radiations.
- Presently, KoSO houses advanced instruments like the H-alpha telescope and the White light Active Region Monitor (WARM) for high-resolution solar imaging.
Do you know?
- The Bhavnagar Telescope, named after the Maharaja of Bhavnagar, was one of the more famous instruments at KoSO during the early decades of its operation.
- A 15cm telescope was used to capture solar images onto a photographic film or plate.
- Solar magnetic plages and prominences were recorded since 1911, taken on photographic films and plates.
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Historical Perspective
- Ancient Legacy: Throughout history, seafarers, mathematicians, astronomers, and physicists have meticulously studied the Sun and its celestial phenomena.
- British Era Initiatives: In 1792, the British East India Company established the pioneering Madras Observatory, marking a significant milestone in astronomical research in the region.
- Madras Observatory’s Legacy: The Madras Observatory documented crucial astronomical observations during 1812-1825, laying the groundwork for solar research in India.
- Shift to Systematic Observations: Dedicated solar observations commenced in 1878, fostering a deeper understanding of solar phenomena.
- Advancements in Methodology: The adoption of systematic observational techniques paved the way for more comprehensive and detailed studies of the Sun’s behavior.
Need for such Observatory
- Great Drought of 1875-1877: This event triggered by scanty rainfall, propelled the need for comprehensive solar studies to comprehend its implications on weather patterns.
- India’s Geographical Significance: India’s drought was part of a larger global phenomenon, affecting several countries and leading to widespread famine.
- Scientific Inquiry: Scientists recognized the potential role of solar variability in influencing climatic patterns, prompting inquiries into the Sun’s behavior and its correlation with environmental phenomena.
Scientific Endeavors of KoSO
- The observatory made significant contributions to solar physics, including the discovery of the radial motion of sunspots, known as the Evershed Effect.
- Over time, KoSO expanded its research areas beyond solar physics to include cosmic rays, radio astronomy, ionospheric physics, and stellar physics.
- In April 1971, KoSO was brought under the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), Bengaluru, as part of the separation of astrophysics from the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
Repository of the KoSO
- Between 1904 and 2017, all solar observations were traced onto photographic films and plates
- A new telescope mounted with CCD cameras has taken over and, since 2017, continued to observe the Sun.
- Digitization of the records was initiated in 1984 by Prof J C Bhattacharyya, and others continued the effort.
- KoSO is now home to a digital repository of a whopping 1.48 lakh solar images adding up to 10 terabyte of data.
- These include 33,500 white-light images (showing sunspots), 45,000 images of the Ca II K spectral line (which reveals plages), and 70,000 H-alpha photographic plates that show prominences.
PYQ:
2019:
On 21st June, the Sun-
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements correctly describes the ‘Evershed Effect’ in Sun?
(a) It refers to the bending of light waves around obstacles, demonstrated by the diffraction pattern observed in a single-slit experiment.
(b) It is the phenomenon of a magnetic field being generated by the motion of charged particles in the convective zone of the Sun.
(c) It describes the deflection of moving charged particles, such as electrons, in a magnetic field, leading to the creation of an electric potential difference.
(d) It is the radial flow of gases in the Sun’s outer atmosphere, observed as a redshift in the spectrum of light emitted by the photosphere. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
Mains level: NA
Why in the News?
- The Allahabad High Court clarified the appellate jurisdiction concerning orders issued by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) in contempt proceedings.
- The court ruled that appeals against CAT contempt orders must be filed exclusively before the Supreme Court under Section 19 of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
What is Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?
- The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body in India established under Article 323-A of the Constitution of India.
- Its primary function is to adjudicate disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.
- CAT was set up to provide a speedy and inexpensive remedy to government employees in matters concerning their service conditions and employment disputes.
Establishment of CAT:
- The Administrative Tribunals Act in 1985 enacted by the Parliament authorizes the central government to establish Central Administrative Tribunal and the State Administrative Tribunals.
- There are 17 Benches and 21 Circuit Benches in the Central Administrative Tribunal all over India.
Jurisdiction of CAT:
- The Administrative Tribunal is distinguishable from the ordinary courts with regard to its jurisdiction and procedure.
- It exercises jurisdiction only about the service matters of the parties covered by the Act.
- CAT exercises jurisdiction over all service matters concerning the following:
- A member of any All-India Service
- A person appointed to any civil service of the Union or any civil post under the Union
- A civilian appointed to any defence services or a post connected with defence
Services NOT Covered:
The following members are NOT covered under the jurisdiction of CAT:
- Defense forces, Officers,
- The staff of the Supreme Court and
- Secretarial staff of the Parliament.
Procedure:
- The CAT is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is NOT bound by the procedure, prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
- It is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice.
- Under Section 17 of the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985, the Tribunal has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court.
Composition:
- The CAT comprises of a chairman, and other members who are appointed by the President of India.
- The membership of CAT is filled by members from judicial and administrative fields.
- The term of the service is 5 years or until the age of 65 years for chairman; 62 years for members, whichever is earlier. (minimum age is 50 years)
- The chairman or any other member may address his resignation to the President in between his term of office.
PYQ:
2019: The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) which was established for redressal of grievances and complaints by or against central government employees nowadays is exercising its power as an independent judicial authority. Explain.
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):
1. The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body.
2. It adjudicates disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.
3. Personnel of the armed forces are covered in the jurisdiction of CAT.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: UNCTAD: its establishment, composition and members
Mains level: NA
What is the news?
- The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) Global Trade Report revealed an evolving trade landscape for India, marked by increased reliance on China and the European Union (EU).
About UNCTAD
- UNCTAD is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1964.
- It is part of the UN Secretariat.
- The UNCTAD Conference ordinarily meets once in four years.
- It reports to the UNGA and the Economic and Social Council, but has its own membership, leadership and budget.
- It is also a part of the United Nations Development Group.
- It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively.
- Reports published by the UNCTAD are-
- Trade and Development Report
- World Investment Report
- Technology and Innovation Report
- Digital Economy Report
Membership:
- UNCTAD’s membership consists of all 195 member states of the United Nations.
- India is an active member. The second UNCTAD Conference took place in New Delhi, India in 1968.
Key Highlights of the Report:
- Key Findings on India
- Trade Trends: India’s trade dependence on China and the EU rose by 1.2%, while reliance on Saudi Arabia declined by 0.6%.
- Factors: This shift occurred amidst supply chain disruptions caused by the pandemic and the Russia-Ukraine conflict, leading to record-high food and fuel prices.
- Policy Measures: Despite efforts to reduce dependency on China through initiatives like the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme and Quality Control Orders (QCOs), India’s trade relations with China strengthened.
- Insights from the Report
- Stable Proximity: Geographical proximity of international trade remained relatively constant, indicating minimal near-shoring or far-shoring trends.
- Political Proximity: However, there was a noticeable rise in the political proximity of trade, favouring countries with similar geopolitical stances.
- Concentration of Trade: Global trade increasingly favored major trade relationships, although this trend softened towards the end of 2023.
- Sectoral Trends: Most sectors experienced a decline in trade value, except for pharmaceuticals, transportation equipment, and electric cars.
- Global Forecast: Global merchandise trade is expected to contract by 5% in 2023, with services trade projected to gain 8%.
- Impact of Russia-Ukraine Conflict
- Shifts in Trade: The ongoing conflict led to a surge in Russia’s trade dependence on China by 7.1% while decreasing reliance on the EU by 5.3%.
- Oil Trade: Russian oil shifted from the EU to China and India, with China becoming a significant trade partner for Russia.
- US Trade Dynamics: The US managed to reduce reliance on China by 1.2% in 2023, while increasing dependence on the EU and Mexico.
PYQ:
The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an: (2017)
(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
(b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
(c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
(d) UNCTAD-funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), consider the following statements:
1. It is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly.
2. It is part of the UN Secretariat.
3. India has never hosted the UNCTAD Conference.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Lalit Kala Academy
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Ministry of Culture has restricted the powers of Lalit Kala Akademi (LKA) Chairman, V Nagdas, preventing him from taking any administrative actions without prior consultation with the ministry.
- The directive was issued, citing rule 19(1) of General Rules and Regulations of LKA, empowering the central government to intervene in administrative matters.
About Lalit Kala Akademi
|
Details |
| Established |
1954
Inaugurated by then Education Minister Maulana Azad (Based on French Academy) |
| Headquarters |
New Delhi, India |
| Founding Legislation |
Lalit Kala Akademi Act, 1954
Registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860. |
| Type |
Autonomous Institution under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India |
| Objective |
Promotion and development of visual arts in India |
| Functions |
Conducting exhibitions, workshops, seminars, and research programs
Granting scholarships, awards, and fellowships to artists
Publishing journals, catalogues, and other art-related publications
Collaborating with international art organizations and institutions |
| Programs |
1. National Exhibitions of Art
2. Rashtriya Kala Mela
3. International Exhibitions
4. Scholarships, Awards, and Fellowships
5. Workshops and Residencies
6. Seminars and Conferences |
| Key Initiatives |
Triennale India
National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA)
Art camps and symposiums |
| Membership |
Open to visual artists, art enthusiasts, and art scholars |
| Publications |
1. Lalit Kala Contemporary
2. Lalit Kala Series
3. Annual Reports
4. Catalogues and Journals |
| Awards |
1. Lalit Kala Akademi Fellowship
2. National Awards in various art categories
3. Kalidasa Samman |
| Gallery |
Lalit Kala Akademi Galleries in New Delhi and regional centers |
PYQ:
2021: Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000 :
1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statement about the Lalit Kala Akademi:
1. It was inaugurated in 1954 by then-Education Minister Maulana Azad.
2. It is an autonomous Institution under the Ministry of Culture.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Ozone, Jupiter's Compositions, Its moon
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
PRL Ahmedabad researchers has uncovered evidence of ozone presence on Jupiter’s moon Callisto, offering profound insights into celestial chemical processes.
About Jupiter and its Moons
|
Description |
| Discovery |
Known since ancient times;
Galileo Galilei observed Jupiter and its moons through a telescope in 1610 |
| Composition |
Mostly composed of hydrogen and helium, with traces of other gases such as ammonia, methane, and water vapor |
| Diameter |
139,822 kilometers |
| Mass |
1.898 × 10^27 kilograms (317.8 Earth masses) |
| Orbital Period |
Approximately 11.86 Earth years |
| Average Distance from Sun |
Approximately 778 million kilometers |
| Surface Temperature |
Approximately -145°C (-234°F) |
| Magnetic Field |
Strong magnetic field, the strongest in the solar system |
| Moons |
Jupiter has 79 known moons, including the four largest Galilean moons: Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto.
Other notable moons include Amalthea, Himalia, Elara, Leda, Thebe, Metis, Adrastea, and more.
The moons vary significantly in size, composition, and orbital characteristics. |
| Great Red Spot |
Enormous storm system, known to exist for at least 400 years |
| Exploration |
Explored by spacecraft such as Pioneer, Voyager, Galileo, Juno, and more |
Callisto and its Unique Environment
- Composition: Callisto’s predominantly icy surface, interspersed with rocky materials, sulphur dioxide, and organic compounds, positions it as a compelling candidate for extraterrestrial life exploration.
- Geological Stability: Despite extensive cratering, Callisto’s surface exhibits geological inactivity, suggesting long-term stability conducive to preserving subsurface oceans or potential habitats.
Significance of Ozone Findings
- Life-Sustaining Component: Ozone, a molecule composed of three oxygen atoms, plays a vital role in shielding celestial bodies from harmful ultraviolet radiation, fostering conditions conducive to life.
- Earthly Parallel: Just as the Earth’s ozone layer protects against harmful UV radiation, the presence of ozone on Callisto hints at stable atmospheric conditions and potential habitability, sparking scientific intrigue.
PYQ:
What is the difference between asteroids and comets?
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are made of ice, dust and rocky material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (2011)
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: NICES Programs
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The National Information System for Climate and Environment Studies (NICES) Program has extended invitations to Indian researchers to contribute to climate change mitigation efforts.
What is NICES Program?
- The NICES Programme is operated by the ISRO and the Department of Space.
- It was launched in 2012.
- It operates within the framework of the National Action Plan on Climate Change.
- NICES aims to enhance the participation of Indian researchers in addressing climate change-related challenges through multidisciplinary scientific investigations.
- Focus Areas: Potential areas for project submission include Space-based Essential Climate Variables (ECVs) and Climate Indicators, Climate Change Challenges, Weather Extremes, and Climate Services.
Activities held under NICES Program
- NICES invites project proposals from Indian scientists, academicians, and researchers affiliated with various governmental organizations, recognized institutions, universities, and departments.
- Project proposals should address climate change-related challenges.
- These projects are expected be completed within 3 years from the date of sanction.
Objective and Functionality
- The primary objective of the NICES Programme is to generate and disseminate long-term Essential Climate Variables (ECVs) derived from Indian and other Earth Observation (EO) satellites.
- These variables, spanning terrestrial, oceanic, and atmospheric domains, are crucial for characterizing Earth’s climate and monitoring changes over time.
Achievements and Impact:
- Since its inception in 2012, NICES has developed over 70 geophysical products meeting stringent quality standards.
- These products have been instrumental in documenting climate change and its impacts, contributing to scientific understanding and evidence-based decision-making.
PYQ:
2021: Describe the major outcomes of the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). What are the commitments made by India in this conference?
Practice MCQ:
The NICES Program is an initiative of:
(a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
(b) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
(c) Department of Science and Technology (DST)
(d) None of the above. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: HIV Drugs
Mains level: Objectives of India's National AIDS Control Programme (NACP)
Why in the news?
On April 1, 2004, the Indian government launched Free Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) for Persons living with HIV (PLHIV). This decision has been one of the most successful .
Emergence of HIV drugs
- First Antiretroviral Drug Approval: In March 1987, the US FDA approved the first antiretroviral drug, AZT (zidovudine), offering a glimmer of hope for treatment.
- Additional Drug Approvals: Three more antiretroviral drugs were approved shortly after in 1988, expanding treatment options for HIV/AIDS patients.
- Introduction of Protease Inhibitors: A significant milestone occurred in 1995 with the introduction of protease inhibitors, a new class of antiretroviral drugs.
The evolution to free ART
- Millennium Summit Declaration: In 2000, world leaders at the UN General Assembly’s Millennium Summit set a goal to stop and reverse the spread of HIV.
- Formation of the Global Fund: The Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis, and Malaria was established in 2002, advocating for universal access to HIV prevention, treatment, care, and support services.
- High HIV Prevalence in India: In 2004, India had an estimated 5.1 million PLHIV, with a population prevalence of 0.4%. However, very few were receiving ART, with only 7,000 PLHIV on treatment by the end of the year.
- Free ART Initiative: The Indian government’s decision to provide free ART to all adults living with HIV in 2004 was groundbreaking. This initiative aimed to address the barriers of cost and geographical access to treatment.
- Expansion of ART Facilities: Over two decades, the number of ART centers in India expanded significantly, from less than 10 to around 700. Additionally, 1,264 Link ART centers have provided free ART drugs to approximately 1.8 million PLHIV.
- ART Eligibility Criteria Evolution: The criteria for initiating ART evolved over the years, starting from CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm3 in 2004, to less than 350 cells/mm3 in 2011, and less than 500 cells/mm3 in 2016. Finally, in 2017, the “Treat All” approach was adopted, initiating ART regardless of CD4 count.
- Rapid ART Initiation Policy: In 2021, India adopted a policy of rapid ART initiation, starting individuals on treatment within seven days of HIV diagnosis, and sometimes even on the same day. This swift initiation aimed to improve treatment outcomes and prevent transmission.
- Complementary initiatives to stop the HIV epidemic: Provision of free diagnostic facilities; attention on prevention of parent to child transmission of HIV (PPTCT) services; prevention, diagnosis and management of opportunistic infections including management of co-infections such as tuberculosis (TB).
Objectives of India’s National AIDS Control Programme (NACP) phase 5 by 2025
Ambitious 95-95-95 Targets: The NACP phase 5 sets ambitious targets known as the 95-95-95 targets, aligned with global targets agreed upon by UNAIDS. These targets aim for:
- 95% of all people living with HIV to know their HIV status.
- 95% of all people diagnosed with HIV infection to receive sustained antiretroviral therapy (ART).
- 95% of all people receiving antiretroviral therapy to achieve viral suppression.
- These targets are aligned with global targets agreed by the UNAIDS.
Challenges
- Delayed Enrolment to ART Facilities: Late presentation poses challenges to timely initiation of treatment and optimal disease management.
- Missed doses : Patients often start feeling better after initiating ART, leading to missed doses or discontinuation of treatment that lead to drug resistance
Measures
- Sustained Supply and Availability of ART: Ensuring consistent and uninterrupted access to ART drugs across all regions of the country
- Private Sector Engagement: Enhancing engagement with the private sector in the care of PLHIV .
- Training and Capacity Building: Continuous training and capacity building of healthcare staff are essential to ensure high-quality service delivery.
- Integration with Other Health Programs: Strengthening integration with other health programs, such as hepatitis, non-communicable diseases (NCDs
Conclusion
India’s ART initiative, launched in 2004, has been pivotal in combating HIV/AIDS. With evolving criteria, rapid initiation policies, and ambitious targets, challenges persist, but measures like sustained supply, private sector engagement, and training are being implemented.
Mains PYQ
Q What are the research and developmental achievements in applied biotechnology? How will these achievements help to uplift the poorer sections of the society? ( UPSC IAS/2021)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS)?
Mains level: Key challenges related to The Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS)
Why in the news?
The Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS) has attracted significant attention, mainly because of the many difficulties it encounters
What is Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS)?
- The Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS) is a unique payment system that utilizes the Aadhaar number as a central key for electronically channelizing government payments
Aim of ABPS
- Objective: Provide socio-economically deprived households with work security facilitated by digital technology.
- Rooted in ideals: Inclusion in the development process, mitigation of inequality and socioeconomic distress.
- Recognition: Internationally recognized, such as by the United Nations Development Programme, for contributing to a productive, equitable, and connected society.
Key challenges related to The Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS):
- Internet Connectivity Issues: Accessibility to stable internet connections in rural areas poses a challenge for implementing the ABPS effectively.
- Fingerprint Recognition Problems: The ABPS relies on fingerprint recognition for authentication, but issues with fingerprint recognition can hinder the smooth functioning of the system.
- Difficulties Faced by the Disabled: The system may not be accommodating to individuals with disabilities, leading to exclusion or difficulties in accessing benefits.
- Unrecorded Working Days: There are instances where the system fails to record the days of work performed by individuals, leading to discrepancies in payment.
- Name Duplication: Duplicate entries in the system can lead to confusion and errors in identifying beneficiaries and processing payments.
- Lack of Awareness: Insufficient awareness among beneficiaries about the ABPS and its processes can result in underutilization or misuse of the system.
- Errors in Linking and Authentication: Issues may arise during the linking of Aadhaar details with the payment system, leading to authentication errors and payment delays.
Potential of (ABPS) technology
- Progressive Principles: Technology has the potential to serve progressive principles globally and historically, contributing to the advancement of societies.
- Alignment with Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): Technological interventions can play a crucial role in achieving the SDGs, with rural employment guarantee schemes in India serving as effective pathways towards several SDGs, both directly and indirectly.
- Effective Utilization of Budgetary Allocation: The substantial budgetary allocation to schemes like MGNREGS should be channeled through a technologically sound system to ensure efficient utilization of funds.
Conclusion
The Aadhaar-Based Payment System faces numerous challenges, highlighting the need for prioritizing workers over technology. While technology holds potential, its alignment with socio-economic goals must ensure inclusivity, efficiency, and effective utilization of resources.
Practice Question for mains
Q Examine the objectives, challenges, and potential of the Aadhaar-Based Payment System (ABPS) in India. (150 words )
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: district Kancheepuram, trend in export of electronic goods
Mains level: Trend in export of electronic goods
Why in the news?
Nearly 40% of India’s smartphone shipments over the past two fiscal years originated from a single district Kancheepuram.
Context
- In FY23, Tamil Nadu emerged as India’s foremost exporter of electronic goods, contributing 30% to the country’s total electronic goods exports in FY24.
- Historically, the state lagged behind Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka in this sector until FY22.
- However, in recent years, Tamil Nadu has experienced consistent growth in electronic goods exports, unlike other states where figures have either declined or remained static.
Chart 1 shows the electronic goods exported from Tamil Nadu in $ billion, year-wise.
- Between April 2023 and January 2024, Tamil Nadu exported electronic goods valued at over $7.4 billion.
Chart 2 shows the exports of electronic goods of the top five States in India in $ billion, year-wise
- In FY24, Tamil Nadu’s exports exceeded the combined exports of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka, which totaled $6.7 billion during that period.
- Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka were ranked second and third, respectively, in terms of electronic goods exports.
- Gujarat and Maharashtra, also among the top five exporting states, have experienced stagnant growth in recent years.
Chart 3 shows the commodity wise share in total exports from India for FY24 (till February) in $ billion
- Engineering goods were the dominant category of exports from India during the specified period, with a total value of $98 billion.
- Petroleum products followed closely behind, with exports valued at $78 billion.
- Gems and jewellery constituted another significant export category, with a total export value of $30 billion.
- Electronics goods were also notable, although they ranked lower compared to other categories, with exports totaling $25 billion. In FY18, electronics goods were not among the top 10 most exported commodities from India.
Biggest markets
- Top most importor of India’s Electronic goods: The United States and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) are the largest markets for India’s electronic goods export. In FY24 (up to February), the U.S. accounted for approximately 35% of India’s electronic goods exports, amounting to $8.7 billion, while the UAE accounted for 12% with $3 billion.
- Other countries share:The Netherlands and the United Kingdom (U.K.) each held a share of about 5% in India’s electronic goods exports.
- The primary destination : Since FY21, the United States has consistently been the primary destination for India’s electronics exports, with its share increasing significantly in recent years.
Conclusion
Tamil Nadu’s emergence as a key electronics exporter, with 30% of India’s exports, is highlighted. Kancheepuram district’s significant role, alongside Tamil Nadu’s surpassing of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka, underscores its growth in electronic goods exports.
Mains PYQ
Q Can the strategy of regional-resource based manufacturing help in promoting employment in India? (UPSC IAS/2019)
Q Account for the failure of manufacturing sector in achieving the goal of labour-intensive exports. Suggest measures for more labour-intensive rather than capital-intensive exports.(UPSC IAS/2017)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 Act
Mains level: Application of Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 Act
Why in the news?
A Delhi Court on Thursday extended the Enforcement Directorate’s (ED) custody of Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal till April 1 in the money laundering case
Context
Mr Kejriwal was arrested on March 21, hours after his plea for interim protection from arrest was rejected by the Delhi High Court. This is the first instance of a Chief Minister in India being put behind bars while still in office.
ED’s allegations against the Chief Minister
- Influence on Elections: The ED contends that Money received by AAP leaders from operators of alcohol businesses were used to influence the 2022 Assembly elections in Punjab and Goa.
- Favours to South Group: The excise policy was allegedly drafted with the intention of granting favors to the South Group
Legal issues
- Potential Involvement of AAP: If Kejriwal’s vicarious liability (This principle holds a person responsible for the actions of others, based on the concept of agency) is established, AAP could be impleaded as an accused in the case. This could lead to the attachment or confiscation of the party’s assets under the provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA).
- Application of Section 70 of the PMLA: This section is often invoked to investigate companies involved in money laundering offenses. It holds individuals responsible if they were in charge or responsible for the company at the time of the offense. However, individuals may not be prosecuted if they can prove lack of knowledge or due diligence to prevent the offense.
- Definition of “Company”: Explanation 1 of Section 70 of the PMLA defines “company” broadly to include any body corporate, firm, or association of individuals. This could potentially encompass a political party under the definition, as per the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
What is (PML) Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 Act?
An Act to prevent money-laundering and to provide for confiscation of property derived from, or involved in, money-laundering and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
Reliance on approver’s testimony
- Definition of an Approver testimony: An approver is someone who has been charged with a crime but later confesses and agrees to testify for the prosecution.
- Potential Consequences of False Deposition: An approver who provides false testimony can be retried for the offense for which the pardon was granted, according to Section 308 of the CrPC. This provision acts as a deterrent against perjury by the approver.
- Caution in Reliance: Courts exercise caution when relying on the testimony of an approver due to its inherently suspect nature. The testimony of an accomplice is considered tainted, and courts are wary of potential biases or falsehoods.
- Corroboration Requirement: To ensure the reliability of the approver’s testimony, corroboration from independent evidence is typically required.
- Judicial Precedents: The Supreme Court, in cases like Mrinal Das and Ors. v. State of Tripura (2011), has emphasized the importance of corroborative evidence in convicting the accused based on the testimony of an approver.
- Judicial Scrutiny: Courts meticulously scrutinize the testimony of an approver and assess its credibility in light of corroborative evidence and other factors.
Conclusion
Arvind Kejriwal’s arrest in a money laundering case raises legal complexities, including potential involvement of AAP, application of PMLA, and reliance on approver’s testimony, necessitating cautious judicial scrutiny.
Mains PYQ
Q Money laundering poses a serious security threat to a country’s economic sovereignty. What is its significance for India and what steps are required to be taken to control this menace? (UPSC IAS/2013)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Katchatheevu Island
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
Prime Minister recently claimed that the then PM Indira Gandhi had given away the island of Katchatheevu to Sri Lanka for no reason.
About Katchatheevu Island
- Katchatheevu is a small, uninhabited island measuring merely 285 acres, lying between India and Sri Lanka.
- It is situated in the Palk Strait.
- It was originally owned by the king of Ramnad (present-day Ramanathapuram, Tamil Nadu).
- The island is used by fishermen to dry their nets.
- Despite its modest size, the island holds significant religious significance, housing Anthony’s church, a centuries-old Catholic shrine revered by devotees from both nations.
- Beyond its religious connotations, Katchatheevu is a vital ecosystem, supporting diverse flora and fauna endemic to the region’s maritime environment.
A Quick Recap of its History
- During the British rule, it was administered jointly by India and Sri Lanka.
- In the early 20th century, Sri Lanka claimed territorial ownership over the islet.
- India ceded the island to Sri Lanka, through a joint agreement in 1974; India further gave up its fishing rights in the region in 1976.
Present Issue
- In 1974 and 1976 treaties were signed between the two countries to demarcate the International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL).
- However, the agreement could not stop the fishermen from fishing in these waters, as fishermen know no boundary.
Culmination of the Political Dispute
- Unresolved Issue: While Indian fishermen retained certain access rights to the island, the agreements failed to address key concerns regarding fishing rights, leading to simmering discontent among fishing communities.
- Sri Lankan Atrocities: The civil war in Sri Lanka overshadowed the Katchatheevu issue, with Indian fishermen facing arrests and allegations of mistreatment by the Sri Lankan navy.
- Renewed Demands: Instances of fishermen’s rights violations reignited calls for the retrieval of Katchatheevu by Tamil Nadu politicians, who highlighted the plight of affected fishing communities.
- Present Backlash: The agreement sparked widespread protests and political backlash in Tamil Nadu, with regional parties and activists condemning the perceived abandonment of Indian sovereignty over Katchatheevu.
PYQ:
Consider the following statements:
1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade.
2. “Textile and textile articles” constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh.
3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2020)
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the Katchatheevu Island recently seen in news, consider the following statements:
1. During the British rule, it was administered by India.
2. India ceded the island to Sri Lanka, through a joint agreement in 1974 but holds fishing rights in the region.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Vaikom Satyagraha and the people associated
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
This year April 1st marks 100 years of the Vaikom Satyagraha, in Kottayam, Kerala.
About Vaikom Satyagraha
- Vaikom was the epicentre of the Vaikom Satyagraha, which began in 1924.
- This movement aimed to challenge the ban imposed on marginalized communities from entering the vicinity of the Vaikom Mahadevar Temple in the princely state of Travancore.
- It sparked similar temple entry movements across India, advocating for the rights of untouchables and backward castes.
- It introduced nonviolent public protest as a method of resistance in Kerala.
A Precursor to the Vaikom Satyagraha
- Social and Political Developments
- Backdrop of Social Injustice: Travancore, characterized by feudal and caste-based governance, imposed stringent restrictions on lower castes, denying them entry to temples and public spaces.
- Emergence of Social Consciousness: By the late 19th century, progressive reforms and missionary activities led to increased awareness and education among lower castes, particularly the Ezhavas.
- Rise of Educated Elite: Educated individuals from diverse backgrounds, including lower castes, began to challenge social norms and demand equality in opportunities and rights.
- Beginning of Agitation
- Advocacy for Change: Ezhava leader T K Madhavan spearheaded efforts to challenge temple entry restrictions, advocating for direct action to confront discriminatory practices.
- Influence of Gandhi’s Ideals: Inspired by Gandhi’s principles of non-cooperation, Madhavan sought support from the Indian National Congress (INC) to mobilize a mass movement against untouchability.
Actual Course of Events
- Agitation
- Leaders such as T.K. Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon, and George Joseph spearheaded the agitation.
- Despite facing resistance and arrests by the police, the Satyagrahis persisted in their protest for over a year, resulting in numerous arrests and jails.
- Notable figures like Mahatma Gandhi, Chattampi Swamikal, and Sree Narayana Guru extended their support to the movement, which gained nationwide recognition.
- The involvement of women and support from various regions, including Punjab, highlighted the widespread impact of the Satyagraha.
- Suspension:
- Initially suspended in April 1924 at Gandhi’s suggestion, the movement resumed when attempts to resolve the issue with caste Hindu leaders failed.
- The absence of leaders like T.K. Madhavan and K.P. Kesava Menon, who were arrested, posed challenges to the movement.
- V. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar) lent support from Tamil Nadu before also being arrested.
- The resolution for the right to temple entry faced resistance in the Assembly, thwarted by traditionalist support and government pressure.
- Aftermath
- On October 1, 1924, a procession of Savarnas (forward castes) submitted a petition to the Regent Maharani Sethu Lakshmi Bai of Travancore, signed by around 25,000 individuals, urging for the temple’s open entry.
- Gandhi’s meeting with the Regent Maharani and the procession led by Mannath Padmanabhan Nair underscored the growing support for the cause.
- Eventually, on November 23, 1925, all temple gates were opened to Hindus except the eastern gate, marking a significant victory.
- The Vaikom Satyagraha laid the groundwork for the temple entry proclamation of Kerala in 1936 and inspired similar movements’ nationwide, promoting social justice and equality.
PYQ:
Satya Shodhak Samaj organized (2016):
(a) a movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar’
(b) a temple-entry movement in Gujarat
(c) an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
(d) a peasant movement in Punjab
Practice MCQ:
The Vaikom Satyagraha of 1924 was essentially a:
(a) Temple Entry Movement
(b) Peasants’ Uprising
(c) Salt Satyagraha
(d) Swadeshi Movement |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: GI, Various GI tags mentioned in the news
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
What is a GI Tag?
- A GI is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
- Nodal Agency: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 w.e.f. September 2003.
- GIs have been defined under Article 22 (1) of the WTO Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.
- The tag stands valid for 10 years and can be renewed.
Various GI Tags Awarded:
|
Details |
| Bihu Dhol (Assam) |
Traditional drum used during Bihu festivals |
| Jaapi (Assam) |
Bamboo headgear worn in rural Assam |
| Sarthebari metal craft (Assam) |
Traditional metal craft producing utensils and artifacts |
| Mishing handloom products (Assam) |
Handwoven textiles including shawls and sarees |
| Asharikandi terracotta craft (Assam) |
Terracotta pottery and decorative items |
| Pani Meteka craft (Assam) |
Brass and copper utensils adorned with intricate designs |
| Bodo Dokhona (Assam) |
Traditional attire of Bodo women |
| Bodo Eri silk (Assam) |
Silk fabric produced from eri silkworms, known for its soft texture and eco-friendly production |
| Bodo Jwmgra (Assam) |
Traditional scarf worn by Bodo community members |
| Bodo Gamsa (Assam) |
Traditional dress of Bodo men |
| Bodo Thorkha (Assam) |
Traditional musical instrument made from bamboo or wood |
| Bodo Sifung (Assam) |
Long flute used in traditional Bodo music |
| Banaras Thandai (Uttar Pradesh) |
Traditional drink made from milk, nuts, seeds, and spices |
| Banaras Tabla (Uttar Pradesh) |
Pair of drums used in classical Indian music |
| Banaras Shehnai (Uttar Pradesh) |
Traditional wind instrument used in Indian classical music |
| Banaras Lal Bharwamirch (Uttar Pradesh) |
Red chili grown in the Banaras region |
| Banaras Lal Peda (Uttar Pradesh) |
Popular Indian sweet made from condensed milk and sugar |
| Pachra-Rignai (Tripura) |
Traditional dress worn by women, consisting of a wrap-around skirt and blouse |
| Matabari Peda (Tripura) |
Sweet delicacy made from condensed milk, sugar, and ghee |
| Garo Textile weaving (Meghalaya) |
Traditional weaving craft practiced by the Garo tribe |
| Lyrnai Pottery (Meghalaya) |
Traditional pottery making characterized by unique designs and techniques |
| Chubitchi (Meghalaya) |
Traditional dish made with meat, local herbs, and spices |
PYQ:
Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status? (2015)
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
3. Tirupathi Laddu
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to (2016):
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the Geographical Indications (GI) Tag:
1. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for GI.
2. A GI tag stands valid for 10 years and cannot be renewed.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
|
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Empathic Voice Interface (EVI)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- Hume, a prominent research lab and tech firm based in New York, has unveiled Empathic Voice Interface (EVI), world’s first conversational AI endowed with emotional intelligence.
What is Empathic Voice Interface (EVI)?
- Hume’s Empathic Voice Interface (EVI) is powered by its proprietary empathic large language model (eLLM).
- It can decipher tones, word emphasis, and emotional cues, improving the quality of interactions.
- As an API, EVI can integrate seamlessly with various applications, offering developers a versatile solution for implementing human-like interactions.
Potential Applications and Future Prospects
- Enhanced AI Assistants: Hume’s technology enables AI assistants to engage in nuanced conversations, enhancing productivity and user satisfaction.
- Improved Customer Support: By infusing empathy into customer support interactions, Hume’s AI promises to deliver more personalized service and foster stronger relationships.
- Therapeutic Potential: Hume’s empathetic AI holds promise in therapeutic settings, offering support and guidance by understanding and responding to human emotions.
PYQ:
- What is ’emotional intelligence’ and how can it be developed in people? How does it help an individual in taking ethical decisions? (2013)
- “Emotional Intelligence is the ability to make your emotions work for you instead of against you.” Do you agree with this view? Discuss. (2019)
- How will you apply emotional intelligence in administrative practices? (2017)
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements correctly describes the Empathic Voice Interface (EVI)?
(a) EVI operates as a standalone application, devoid of integration capabilities with other software systems.
(b) It relies on conventional language models, neglecting emotional cues and word emphasis during interactions.
(c) EVI, powered by its proprietary empathic large language model (eLLM), detects emotional nuances such as tones, word emphasis, and cues, enhancing interaction quality.
(d) EVI is developed by the Microsoft. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Hepatitis B
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- A recent study by Sir Ganga Ram Hospital, New Delhi, revealed alarming deficiencies in public knowledge (transmission, effects & vaccination) about Hepatitis B in India.
- Despite the availability of a vaccine for over 30 years, HBV infection rates remain high in India, with prevalence estimates ranging from 2% to 8% and approximately 37 million carriers nationwide.
About Hepatitis
- Hepatitis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the liver.
- It can be caused by various factors, including viral infections (hepatitis viruses), alcohol consumption, certain medications, toxins, autoimmune diseases, and metabolic disorders.
|
Hepatitis A |
Hepatitis B |
Hepatitis C |
| Causative Virus |
Hepatitis A Virus (HAV) |
Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) |
Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) |
| Transmission |
Fecal-oral route (contaminated food/water) |
Blood and body fluids (unsafe sex, sharing needles) |
Blood-to-blood contact (sharing needles, transfusions) |
| Vaccine Available |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
| Chronic Infection |
No (usually acute) |
Yes (can become chronic) |
Yes (often becomes chronic) |
| Symptoms |
Mild flu-like symptoms, jaundice |
Variable, from none to severe symptoms |
Often asymptomatic, but can lead to liver damage |
| Chronic Complications |
None |
Cirrhosis, liver cancer |
Cirrhosis, liver cancer |
| Preventable by Vaccine |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
| Treatment |
Supportive care |
Antiviral medications |
Antiviral medications |
PYQ:
Which one of the following statements is not correct? (2019)
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing? (2013)
1. Chikungunya
2. Hepatitis B
3. HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements regarding Hepatitis C virus:
1. It is spread mainly through contaminated water and food.
2. It primarily affects the functioning of respiratory system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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