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  • AIR SUVIDHA 2.0 Portal

    Why in News?

    The Ministry of Civil Aviation, in collaboration with Delhi International Airport Limited (DIAL), launched AIR SUVIDHA 2.0, an upgraded digital health declaration portal, to strengthen health surveillance at India’s international Points of Entry following the Ebola (Bundibugyo virus disease) outbreak in Central Africa.

    Why was AIR SUVIDHA 2.0 Introduced?

    • WHO declared the Ebola/Bundibugyo Virus Disease (BVD) outbreak in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) and Uganda a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) on 17 May 2026 under the International Health Regulations (IHR), 2005.
    • To prevent the import and spread of the disease through international travel.

    What is AIR SUVIDHA 2.0?

    AIR SUVIDHA 2.0 is a contactless online Passenger Health Self-Declaration Portal for international travellers arriving in India.

    Key Features

    • Passengers must submit an online Self-Declaration Form (SDF) before arrival.
    • Form can be filled up to 24 hours before travel.
    • Captures: 21-day travel history, Exposure history, and Symptoms, if any.
    • Enables paperless and contactless health screening.
    • Real-time data sharing with Airport Health Officer (AHO), Bureau of Immigration, Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), and State Surveillance Officers.
    • Enables early identification, screening, and referral of high-risk passengers.

    Benefits

    • Strengthens surveillance at Points of Entry (PoEs).
    • Supports rapid outbreak detection and response.
    • Reduces delays through digital processing.
    • Enhances coordination among aviation, immigration, and health authorities.

    What is a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC)?

    • The highest level of global public health alert declared by the World Health Organization (WHO) under the International Health Regulations (IHR), 2005.
    • Declared when an extraordinary public health event: Poses a risk of international disease spread and Requires a coordinated international response.

    What is Ebola (Bundibugyo Virus Disease)?

    • A severe viral hemorrhagic fever caused by the Bundibugyo ebolavirus, one of the species of the Ebola virus.
    • Spread through:
      • Direct contact with infected blood or body fluids.
      • Contaminated objects.
      • Infected animals.
    • Symptoms: Fever. Weakness. Vomiting and diarrhoea. Internal and external bleeding in severe cases.

  • Transition Facilitation (Quality Control) Order, 2026

    Why in News?

    The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) has notified the Transition Facilitation (Quality Control) Order, 2026 to ease industry compliance while maintaining product quality and strengthening domestic supply chains.

    What are Quality Control Orders (QCOs)?

    • Quality Control Orders (QCOs) are mandatory regulations issued by the Central Government under the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) Act, 2016.
    • They require specified products to conform to Indian Standards (IS) and obtain BIS certification before manufacture, import, sale, or distribution.
    • Objectives:
      • Ensure consumer safety and product quality.
      • Prevent substandard imports.
      • Promote standardisation and manufacturing excellence.
      • Improve global competitiveness of Indian products.

    What is the Transition Facilitation (Quality Control) Order, 2026?

    The Order introduces a risk-based alternative compliance mechanism to facilitate a smooth transition to QCO compliance without compromising quality standards.

    Key Features

    • Allows manufacturers to procure inputs from suppliers licensed under:
      • Scheme II of the BIS (Conformity Assessment) Regulations, 2018 (Product Certification Scheme),
      • instead of only relying on Scheme I (ISI Mark Scheme).
    • Permissions will be granted based on:
      • Technical capability.
      • Compliance history.
      • Technology adoption and innovation.
      • Research and design capabilities.
      • Contribution to domestic supply chains.
    • Manufacturers with three consecutive years of default-free QCO compliance are also eligible for the benefits.
    • Maintains consumer protection while reducing compliance bottlenecks.

    BIS Certification Schemes

    • Scheme I (ISI Mark Scheme): Product testing and factory inspection. Mandatory use of the ISI Mark. Applicable to products covered under QCOs.
    • Scheme II: Simplified product certification framework. Intended for specific categories where alternative conformity assessment is permitted. Facilitates flexible sourcing while ensuring quality.

    Significance

    • Strengthens domestic value chains.
    • Encourages technology upgradation and innovation.
    • Reduces regulatory burden on industry.
    • Enhances Ease of Doing Business.
    • Improves integration with global supply chains.
    • Ensures continued consumer confidence in product quality.

    Prelims Pointers

    • DPIIT: Department under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry responsible for industrial policy, startup promotion, and quality ecosystem.
    • Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):
      • National Standards Body of India.
      • Established under the BIS Act, 2016.
      • Functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
      • Formulates Indian Standards and operates certification schemes, including the ISI Mark.

  • Criminal Cases Among Rajya Sabha MPs (ADR Report)

    Why in News?

    A report by the Association for Democratic Reforms and National Election Watch found that 31% of sitting Rajya Sabha MPs have declared criminal cases, while 16% have declared serious criminal cases in their election affidavits.

    Key Findings

    • Analysis covered 226 of 233 Rajya Sabha MPs.
      • 4 seats (West Bengal) were vacant.
      • 3 MPs were excluded as affidavits were unavailable.
    • 69 MPs (31%) declared criminal cases.
    • 36 MPs (16%) declared serious criminal cases.
    • Serious offences include:
      • 1 MP with a murder case.
      • 4 MPs with attempt to murder cases.
      • 4 MPs with crimes against women.

    Party-wise Criminal Cases

    • BJP: 28 of 107 MPs (26%), Congress: 12 of 29 MPs (41%), AITC: 2 of 9 MPs (22%), DMK: 2 of 8 MPs (25%), SP: 2 of 4 MPs (50%), TDP: 3 of 4 MPs (75%), BRS: 3 of 3 MPs (100%), CPI(M): 3 of 3 MPs (100%), RJD: 2 of 3 MPs (67%), AIADMK: 1 of 4 MPs (25%), NCP: 1 of 4 MPs (25%), and AAP: 1 of 3 MPs (33%)

    Wealth Profile

    • 31 MPs (14%) declared assets exceeding ₹100 crore.
    • Major parties: BJP: 7 MPs, Congress: 6 MPs, YSRCP: 2 MPs, TDP: 2 MPs, BRS: 2 MPs, and NCP: 2 MPs

    About ADR

    • The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) is a non-governmental, non-partisan organization established in 1999.
    • It works to promote:
      • Electoral transparency.
      • Political and electoral reforms.
      • Informed voting through analysis of candidates’ affidavits.
    • ADR uses disclosures mandated by the Supreme Court and the Election Commission of India.

    Constitutional and Legal Background

    • Article 80: Composition of the Rajya Sabha.
    • Representation of the People Act, 1951
      • Section 8: Disqualification upon conviction for specified offences.
    • Mere pendency of criminal cases does not disqualify a candidate unless a conviction attracts disqualification under law.
    • Candidates must disclose criminal antecedents in nomination affidavits following Supreme Court judgments.

    [2020] Consider the following statements:

    1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State. 

    2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison. 

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    a . 1 only

    b . 2 only

    c. Both 1 and 2

    d . Neither 1 nor 2

  • SAIL Supplies Defence Grade Steel for Indian Navy Warships

    Why in News?

    The Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) supplied 5,700 tonnes of indigenous defence grade steel for three Indian Navy ships, INS Dunagiri, INS Agray, and INS Sanshodhak, commissioned on 21 June 2026. The move strengthens India’s defence indigenisation under Atmanirbhar Bharat and Make in India.

    Key Highlights

    • SAIL supplied 100% of the special steel requirement (5,700 tonnes) for INS Dunagiri (Stealth Frigate), INS Agray (ASW Shallow Water Craft), and INS Sanshodhak (Survey Vessel)
    • Steel supplied DMR 249A grade hot rolled sheets and plates (Defence grade steel).
    • Manufactured at Bokaro Steel Plant, Bhilai Steel Plant, and Rourkela Steel Plant
    • Production of DMR grade plates has been expanded, especially at the Special Plate Plant, Rourkela, to meet defence needs.

    What is DMR 249A Steel?

    • DMR (Defence Metallurgical Research) 249A is a high strength, low alloy steel developed for naval warships.
    • Features: High tensile strength, Excellent weldability, High toughness, Corrosion resistance in marine environments, and Better survivability under combat conditions.
    • Other Major Naval Platforms Using SAIL Steel: INS Vikrant, INS Nilgiri, INS Himgiri, INS Udaygiri, INS Ajay, INS Nistar, and INS Anjadeep

    Significance

    • Enhances self reliance in defence manufacturing.
    • Reduces dependence on imported naval steel.
    • Strengthens India’s indigenous shipbuilding capability.
    • Supports strategic maritime security and blue water naval ambitions.
    • Demonstrates collaboration between public sector steel manufacturing and defence production.

    [2016] Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently?

    [A] Amphibious warfare ship

    [B] Nuclear-powered submarine

    [C] Torpedo launch and recovery vessel

    [D] Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

  • Index of Services Production (ISP)

    Why in the news?

    The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) will launch the Index of Services Production (ISP) in July 2026 as India’s first monthly indicator to measure short term growth in the services sector.

    What is ISP?

    • Index of Services Production (ISP) is a monthly high frequency indicator that measures changes in the real output (volume) of the formal services sector relative to a base year.
    • It is the services sector counterpart of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

    Key Highlights

    • Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
    • Base Year: 2024-25.
    • First Trial Release: 14 July 2026 (for 2025-26 and April 2026).
    • Release Frequency: Monthly, with a 60 day time lag.
    • Compiled using a fixed weight Laspeyres Volume Index.
    • Weights are based on Gross Value Added (GVA) of service sectors.

    Objectives

    • Complement the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
    • Provide high frequency data on the services sector.
    • Improve economic forecasting and business cycle analysis.
    • Strengthen evidence based policymaking.

    Coverage

    • Included Sectors: Wholesale and retail trade, Transport, Banking and insurance, Telecommunications, Hotels and restaurants, Real estate, Professional, scientific and technical services, Arts, entertainment and recreation
    • To be Included Later: Health services and Education services (after availability of ASISSE data).

    Data Sources

    • Administrative data: Air Transport, Railways, Banking and Insurance.
    • GST (GSTR-1 outward supplies): Most service industries.
    • Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises (ASISSE): Health and Education.

    Why is ISP Important?

    • Services contribute over 50% of India’s Gross Value Added (GVA) since 2013-14.
    • Provides timely tracking of service sector performance.
    • Enables faster policy response and economic monitoring.
    • Aligns India with international statistical practices.

    Limitations

    • Covers only the formal services sector.
    • Excludes: Public administration and defence, Government health and education, Social work without accommodation, Household services, Activities of extraterritorial organisations, Gambling and betting, Other predominantly non market and informal services.

    What is the proposed compilation formula?

    • ISP is proposed to be compiled using a fixed-weight Laspeyres Volume Index
      • Measures changes in output using fixed base year weights.
      • Widely used for indices such as IIP due to ease of comparison over time.

    [2020] Consider the following statements:
    1.The weightage of food in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
    2.The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which the CPI does.
    3.The Reserve Bank of India uses WPI as its key measure of inflation to decide changes in policy rates.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 and 2 only

    [B] 2 and 3 only

    [C] 1 and 3 only

    [D] 1, 2 and 3

  • Centre Tightens FCRA Rules for NGOs

    Why in News?

    The Union Government amended the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Rules, 2011, introducing stricter norms for NGOs receiving foreign funds under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010.

    New Registration Requirements

    • NGOs must register under one or more of five categories: Social, Economic, Educational, Cultural, and Religious
    • Must specify: Exact purpose of foreign contribution. State/UT-wise area of operation.
    • Separate fee payable for each category and each State/UT.

    Enhanced Disclosure

    • NGOs must disclose: Websites, Social media accounts, Publications (books, magazines, newspaper articles), and Annual activities and geographical scope.

    Expanded Definition of “Key Functionary”

    • Now includes: Office-bearers, Directors, Trustees, Partners, Karta/Head of Hindu Undivided Family (HUF), Governing body members, and Any person controlling or managing the organization.

    Restrictions

    • NGOs with foreign nationals (except Persons of Indian Origin) as key functionaries will generally not be eligible unless specifically permitted by the Central Government.
    • Educational and cultural activities must remain strictly non-political.
    • Religious activities exclude proselytisation.

    Penalties

    • Minimum fine: ₹1 lakh.
    • Misuse of foreign funds or use for unapproved purposes/States: 30% of the amount involved or ₹1 lakh, whichever is higher.
    • Similar penalties for Excess administrative expenditure, Speculative investments, and Unauthorized receipt or utilization of foreign contributions.

    Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 (FCRA)

    • Regulates acceptance and utilization of foreign contributions and hospitality by individuals, associations, and NGOs.
    • Administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
    • Objectives: Ensure foreign funds do not adversely affect Sovereignty and integrity of India, National security, Public interest, and Democratic institutions

    [2021] At the national level, which ministry is the modal agency to ensure effective implementation of the scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

    [A] Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

    [B] Ministry of Panchayati Raj

    [C] Ministry of Rural Development

    [D] Ministry of Tribal Affairs

  • NITI Aayog Trade Watch Quarterly (Q4 FY 2025-26)

    Why in News?

    NITI Aayog released the 8th edition of “Trade Watch Quarterly” (Jan-Mar 2026), highlighting India’s trade performance and focusing on the pharmaceutical sector.

    India’s Trade Performance

    • Total merchandise and services trade: $1.84 trillion in FY 2025-26 (↑5.4% YoY).
    • Exports: Grew by 4.2%.
    • Imports: Grew by 6.5%.
    • Services exports: Increased by 9.0%, maintaining a strong services surplus.
    • India remained the 8th largest services exporter in 2025.
    • Services exports recorded a CAGR of 10.3% (2015-2025), higher than the global average.

    Pharmaceutical Sector

    • Global pharmaceutical and API market estimated at $1.3 trillion (2025).
    • India’s pharmaceutical and API exports reached $35.8 billion.
    • India is a leading supplier of Generic medicines, Vaccines, and Essential therapeutics

    Challenges

    • Export basket remains concentrated in generic formulations and retail medicaments.
    • Limited presence in biologics, biosimilars, immunologicals, and advanced therapeutics.
    • Continued dependence on imported Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs) and intermediates, especially from China.

    Leading Pharmaceutical States

    • Telangana, Gujarat, and Maharashtra
    • These states lead in production, exports, and integration into global pharmaceutical value chains.

    Way Forward

    • Expand into high-value pharmaceutical segments.
    • Strengthen domestic API manufacturing.
    • Increase investments in R&D, technology, and skill development.
    • Improve regulatory efficiency and market access.

    Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient (API)

    • The biologically active component of a medicine responsible for its therapeutic effect.
    • APIs are combined with excipients to produce the final dosage form.

    Biologics

    • Medicines produced from living organisms or biological processes.
    • Examples include monoclonal antibodies, vaccines, and recombinant proteins.

    [2021] With reference to international trade of India, which of the following statements are correct:
    1.The Top 3 export destinations of India are – USA, UAE, China.
    2.The Top 3 exports from India include – Petroleum Products, Drug Formulations, Agricultural Products.
    3.Agricultural exports have consistently risen from 2016-17 to 2021-22.
    4.India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
    Select the correct code from the options given below:

    [A] 1 and 4

    [B] 1 and 3

    [C] 2 and 4

    [D] 1, 2, 3 and 4

  • VOC Port: Model for Green Maritime Growth

    Why in News?

    Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal highlighted V. O. Chidambaranar Port Authority as a model for sustainable maritime development, releasing its first Sustainability Report and launching several green and digital initiatives.

    Key Highlights

    • Net carbon emissions reduced by 45%.
    • Renewable energy offsets nearly 94% of the port’s energy consumption equivalent.
    • Carbon intensity per tonne of cargo reduced by nearly 50% over the last four years.
    • Recognized as a Scope-2 Emission Free Port for its transition to clean energy.

    Green Hydrogen Initiative

    • Hosts India’s first Green Hydrogen pilot project at a major port.
    • Featured in an Indian Institute of Management Calcutta case study titled “The Hydrogen Pivot”.

    Education & Innovation

    • Kendriya Vidyalaya, VOC Port commenced academic activities for the 2026-27 session.
    • MoU signed with Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya for Maritime logistics research, Skill development, Sustainable port operations, and Centre of Excellence in Maritime Logistics & Port Management.

    Digital Transformation

    • Launched PortGPT, making VOC Port the first major port in India to introduce an enterprise-grade generative AI mobile application for Operational efficiency, Knowledge management, and Data-driven decision-making.

    Scope-2 Emissions

    • Indirect greenhouse gas emissions from purchased electricity, steam, heating, or cooling consumed by an organization.
    • Defined under the Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Protocol.

    Green Hydrogen

    • Produced through electrolysis of water using renewable energy.
    • Emits zero carbon dioxide during production.
    • Key pillar of India’s National Green Hydrogen Mission.

    [2023] Consider the following pairs :
    Port—–Well known as
    1.Kamarajar Port—-First major port in India registered as a company
    2.Mundra Port—–Largest privately owned port in India
    3.Visakhapatnam—-Largest container port in India

    [A] Only one pair

    [B] Only two pairs

    [C] All three pairs

    [D] None of the pairs

  • CPGRAMS 46th Monthly Report (May 2026)

    Why in the news?

    The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) released the 46th CPGRAMS Monthly Report for States/UTs, highlighting public grievance redressal performance and capacity-building initiatives.

    Public Grievance Redressal

    • Public Grievances (PG) received: 85,900
    • PG cases redressed: 84,365
    • Total pending cases (31 May 2026): 2,13,190
    • 22 States/UTs have more than 1,000 pending grievances.

    State Performance

    • Highest disposals:
      • Uttar Pradesh: 27,030 cases
      • Maharashtra: 9,476 cases

    User Participation

    • New CPGRAMS users registered: 65,174
    • Registrations from Uttar Pradesh: 11,365
    • Feedback collected by Call Centre:78,830
      • From States/UTs: 32,283

    Common Service Centres (CSCs)

    • CPGRAMS integrated with 5 lakh+ CSCs and 2.5 lakh Village Level Entrepreneurs (VLEs).
    • 8,562 grievances registered through CSCs during May 2026.

    Sevottam Scheme

    • FY 2022-23 to FY 2026-27 (till May): 1,175 training programmes conducted and 38,693 officers trained.
    • New Initiative: Samadhan Didi, an AI-enabled Voice Chatbot, launched on 30 May 2026 to improve digital public grievance redressal.

    CPGRAMS (Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System)

    • An online platform for citizens to lodge grievances against Central Ministries, Departments, and States/UTs.
    • Developed and managed by DARPG.
    • Enables tracking, monitoring, and time-bound disposal of grievances.
    • Sevottam Scheme: A quality management framework aimed at improving Citizen charters, Public grievance redressal, and Service delivery excellence

    [2021] With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
    1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
    2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 only

    [C] Both 1 and 2

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2

  • Indian Telecom Services Performance Indicator Report (Jan-Mar 2026)

    Why in News?

    TRAI released the Indian Telecom Services Performance Indicator Report for the quarter ending 31 March 2026, highlighting growth in telecom, internet, broadband, DTH, and broadcasting sectors.

    Telecom

    • Total telephone subscribers: 1,330.58 million (↑1.87% QoQ).
    • Tele-density:93.26%: Urban: 151.47% and Rural: 60.46%
    • Private operators’ market share: 92.32%.

    Internet & Broadband

    • Internet subscribers: 1,092.79 million (↑6.24% QoQ).
    • Broadband subscribers: 1,065.88 million.
    • Wireless internet: 1,046.26 million.
    • Wired internet: 46.54 million.
    • Internet penetration: 76.59 per 100 population.

    Wireless Services

    • Wireless (Mobile + FWA) subscribers: 1,282.33 million.
    • Wireless (Mobile) subscribers: 1,265.73 million.
    • 5G FWA subscribers: 16.61 million.
    • Average wireless data usage: 26.70 GB/subscriber/month.

    Revenue & Usage

    • Monthly Wireless ARPU: ₹196.04.
    • Minutes of Usage (MOU): 1,017 minutes/subscriber/month.
    • Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR): ₹86,716 crore.

    Broadcasting

    • Private satellite TV channels: 917
    • Pay TV channels: 342
    • Private FM channels: 390 across 120 cities
    • Pay DTH subscribers: 49.05 million
    • Community Radio Stations: 564.

    Prelims Pointer

    • TRAI is a statutory body established under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.
    • It regulates telecom services, ensures consumer protection, promotes competition, and recommends licensing and spectrum policies.
    • Tele-density = Number of telephone connections per 100 population.

    [2019] With reference to communications technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
    1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
    2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    [A] 1 only

    [B] 2 only

    [C] Both 1 and 2

    [D] Neither 1 nor 2