The Union Home Ministry empowered Foreigners Tribunals (FTs), especially in Assam, to detain suspected illegal immigrants in designated camps, a power earlier exercised only through executive orders.
About Foreigners Tribunal (FT):
Nature: Quasi-judicial bodies constituted under the Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 1964, framed under the Foreigners Act, 1946.
Purpose: Decide whether a person is a foreigner/illegal immigrant, especially in the context of Assam’s border migration issues.
Cases handled:
References from border police against suspected foreigners.
Cases of “D” (doubtful) voters flagged by the Election Commission.
Composition: Members drawn from retired judges, advocates, and civil servants with judicial experience; capped at 3 members per tribunal.
Functioning:
FTs exercise powers of a civil court (summons, evidence, witness examination).
Required to dispose of cases within 60 days of reference.
Burden of proof lies on the individual to establish citizenship (Section 9, Foreigners Act).
Present Status: About 100 FTs operational in Assam (expanded after NRC-2019). No FTs in other states, where suspected foreigners are tried in local courts.
New Provisions under the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025:
Replacement: Replaces the Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 1964, now part of the comprehensive Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025.
Detention Powers: For the first time, FTs are empowered to detain suspected illegal immigrants in designated transit camps, a power earlier exercised through executive orders.
Judicial Authority:
Powers of a civil court under CPC, 1908.
Powers of a judicial magistrate (first class) under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 — including issuing arrest warrants, ordering detention, and directing personal appearance.
Ex-parte Orders: Can be set aside if the appellant files a review within 30 days.
Scope: Though applicable nationwide, functional relevance remains in Assam.
Restrictions on Employment: Bars foreigners from working in strategic sectors (defence, nuclear energy, petroleum, power, water supply, space, human rights) without Central government approval.
Border Security Measures: Border forces/Coast Guard to record biometrics and demographic data of illegal entrants before pushing them back.
Grounds for Refusal of Stay: Foreigners convicted of terrorism, espionage, narcotics trafficking, organized crime, human trafficking, cybercrime, child abuse, crimes against humanity, etc., can be refused entry or deported.
Exemptions: Citizens of Nepal, Bhutan, Tibetans, and Sri Lankan Tamils exempted under a special 2025 order.
[UPSC 2009] Consider the following statements:
1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri.
2. The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only* (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The Ministry of Earth Sciences has formed a 12-member committee led by SC lawyer Sanjay Upadhyay to draft a new national law safeguarding India’s maritime and economic interests under the 2023 High Seas Treaty (BBNJ Agreement).
Objective: Conservation and sustainable use of marine biodiversity in international waters (covering ~64% of the world’s oceans).
Scope of Provisions:
Establishment of Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) in high seas.
Regulation of seabed mining and extractive activities.
Fair and equitable sharing of benefits from marine genetic resources.
Mandatory environmental impact assessments (EIAs) before major projects.
Use of both scientific and traditional knowledge, guided by the precautionary principle.
Relation to UNCLOS: Would be the third implementing agreement, alongside:
1994 Part XI Implementation Agreement (seabed mineral resources).
1995 UN Fish Stocks Agreement (conservation of migratory fish stocks).
Adoption & Status:
Agreed in March 2023, open for signature for 2 years from September 2023.
Enters into force 120 days after the 60th ratification (currently ratified by 55 countries).
[UPSC 2022] With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:
1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3*
Raman Research Institute (RRI) has devised the Probing ReionizATion of the Universe using Signal from Hydrogen (PRATUSH) Telescope to study the “Cosmic Dawn” by detecting radio signals from neutral hydrogen gas.
About the PRATUSH Mission:
Developer: Designed by the Raman Research Institute (RRI), Bengaluru, an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
Main Goal: To study the Cosmic Dawn – the period when the first stars and galaxies formed – by detecting the faint 21-cm radio signal from neutral hydrogen.
Why from the Moon? On Earth, these signals get lost due to radio noise (like FM signals) and atmospheric distortions. The lunar far side is the quietest place in the inner Solar System for radio astronomy, making it the best site.
Scientific Importance: Will help scientists understand how the first stars heated and ionized hydrogen gas, how the early Universe changed, and may even give clues about dark matter and fundamental physics.
Key Features:
Compact Design: Small, lightweight, low-power, and cost-effective – in line with the global trend of miniaturized space instruments.
Digital Receiver System:
Uses a single-board computer (like Raspberry Pi prototype).
Equipped with FPGA (Field Programmable Gate Array) for high-speed radio data processing.
How it Works:
Antenna collects faint hydrogen signals.
Analog receiver amplifies them.
Digital receiver + FPGA convert them into detailed spectral fingerprints of sky brightness.
Test Results: Lab trials (352 hours) showed extremely low noise (few millikelvins), proving it can detect faint cosmic signals.
SWaP Advantage: Optimized for Size, Weight, and Power (SWaP), making it highly suitable for space deployment.
[UPSC 2010] In the context of space technology, what is Bhuvan, recently in the news?
Options:
(a) A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in India
(b) The name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayaan-II
(c) A geoportal of ISRO with 3D imaging capabilities of India *
A recent controversy arose in Kerala, where the Governor (ex-officio Chancellor of State Universities) urged the Supreme Court to exclude the Chief Minister from the process of selecting Vice-Chancellors (VCs).
Who is the Vice-Chancellor?
Position: Serves as Principal Academic and Executive Officer of the university.
Functions: Bridges executive and academic wings; ensures compliance with Acts, Statutes, and Regulations.
Authority: Chairs key bodies such as the Executive Council, Academic Council, Finance Committee, and Selection Committees.
Union Minister for Electronics & IT has presented PM with a memento containing the first ‘Made in India’ Vikram 32-bit Launch Vehicle Grade Processor (VIKRAM3201).
AboutVikram 32-bit Processor (VIKRAM3201):
Overview: India’s first fully indigenous 32-bit space-grade microprocessor, developed by VSSC–ISRO with Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL), Chandigarh.
Lineage: Successor of 16-bit VIKRAM1601 (used since 2009 in ISRO launch vehicles), designed for avionics, navigation, guidance, and mission control.
Launch & Validation: Unveiled at Semicon India 2025 as a symbol of India’s semiconductor self-reliance. Validated in space during PSLV-C60 (2025) via POEM-4 experiments.
Applications: Primarily for space missions, but also suited for defence, automotive, and energy systems due to its rugged reliability.
A Madhya Pradesh High Court judge has recused himself from hearing a petition in an alleged illegal mining case, saying that a MLA had “attempted to call him” to have a discussion regarding the matter.
About Recusal:
Overview: Recusal is the act of a judge or official abstaining from a case due to conflict of interest or a possible perception of bias.
Legal Basis:
There are no codified laws, but multiple Supreme Court rulings provide guiding principles.
In Ranjit Thakur v. Union of India (1987), SC held that the test of bias is the reasonableness of the apprehension in the mind of the affected party.
Grounds for Recusal:
Prior personal/professional association with a party.
Having appeared for a party in the case earlier.
Ex parte communications with parties involved.
Cases where a judge may be reviewing his own earlier judgment (e.g., SC appeals against HC orders delivered by the same judge earlier).
Financial or personal interests (e.g., shareholding in a company party to the case).
Underlying Principle: Rooted in the maxim “nemo judex in causa sua” — no one should be a judge in their own cause.
Process of Recusal:
Judge’s Discretion:
Decision usually rests with the judge’s conscience and discretion.
Judges may orally inform the parties, record it in the order, or sometimes recuse silently without explanation.
On Request:
Lawyers or parties may request recusal; final decision still rests with the judge.
Some judges have recused even without conflict, merely to avoid doubt. Others refuse if no genuine bias exists.
Procedure: Once recusal is declared, the case is placed before the Chief Justice for reassignment to another Bench.
Concerns Related to Recusal:
Judicial Independence at Risk: Can be misused by litigants to bench hunt (cherry-pick a judge), undermining judicial impartiality.
Lack of Uniform Standards: Absence of formal rules might lead to inconsistent approaches by different judges.
Potential for Abuse:
Requests for recusal may be used to delay proceedings, intimidate judges, or obstruct justice.
This undermines both the integrity of courts and timely justice delivery.
[UPSC 2019] With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
Options:
(a) The decisions taken by the. Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament.
(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.
The NASA-ESA Solar Orbiter Mission has recently traced the origin of Solar Energetic Electrons (SEE), advancing knowledge of solar activity and space weather.
AboutNASA–ESA Solar Orbiter Mission:
Launch & Cost: Launched in Feb 2020 on an Atlas V from Cape Canaveral; joint ESA–NASA mission worth $1.5 billion.
Duration: Primary mission till 2026, extendable to 2030.
Orbit: Highly eccentric, approaching 0.28 AU (inside Mercury’s orbit); gradually tilts to image Sun’s poles.
Payload: 10 instruments — both in-situ (solar wind, magnetic fields, particles) and remote sensing (imaging, spectroscopy).
Firsts & Objectives: First to image solar poles; aims to study solar wind origin, solar cycle dynamics, causes of flares/CMEs, and their impact on heliosphere & space weather.
What are Solar Energetic Electrons (SEE)?
What are they: Streams of high-energy electrons released into space, travelling across the heliosphere.
Sources: Emerge from solar flares (sudden surface bursts) and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) (plasma + magnetic eruptions).
Patterns: Release not always immediate; often delayed by hours due to turbulence/scattering in interplanetary medium.
Solar Orbiter Observations: Detected 300+ bursts (2020–22), clearly linking SEE to solar flares/CMEs for the first time.
The Dongar cultivation, a hill-slope mixed cropping system of the Kondh tribals in Odisha’s Rayagada is now under decline due to eucalyptus monoculture.
What is Dongar Cultivation?
Overview: A traditional shifting/mixed cropping system practised on hill slopes (uplands) by the Kondh tribal community in Odisha.
Crops grown: Millets (finger millet, foxtail millet), pulses, oilseeds, and even uncultivated foods like wild tubers.
Benefits offered: Provides nutritional diversity, supports birds and biodiversity, and maintains soil fertility without chemical inputs.
Cultural practice: Linked to seed conservation, labour exchange, and community-based farming traditions, reflecting a holistic tribal food system.
Significance: Its poly-cropping nature makes it more resilient to rainfall variability and climate shocks, unlike monocultures.
Intensive valley wetland system; combines paddy farming with fish rearing; highly sustainable and productive.
[UPSC 2018] With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal rop sequencing/crop rotations.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options: (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5*
Matanomadh in Kutch, Gujarat, with jarosite deposits like those on Mars, is being considered by ISRO as a test site for future Mars missions.
What is Jarosite?
Composition: A yellow, iron-rich sulphate mineral containing iron, sulphur, oxygen, and potassium.
Formation: Develops when volcanic ash or sulphur-bearing minerals chemically react with water, making it a marker of past water–rock interaction.
Discovery in India: Reported in 2016 at Matanomadh, Kutch (Gujarat) by ISRO’s Space Applications Centre; also found at Varkala cliffs, Kerala. Kutch is more suitable for planetary research.
Martian Link: Detected in 2004 by NASA’s Opportunity Rover. This referred as terrestrial clone of Martian surface.
Global Occurrence: Found in Mexico, Spain, Canada, Japan, and the USA (Utah, California), all serving as Mars analogue sites.
Matanomadh’s Significance for Mars Study:
Mars Analogue Value: Geological dating shows deposits about 55 million years old (Paleocene period), resembling early Martian conditions.
Test Bed for ISRO: Provides ground for testing rover mobility, drilling systems, geochemical studies, and remote sensing for Mangalyaan-2 and future missions.
Astrobiology Potential: Since jarosite can trap organic molecules, it helps in shaping strategies to search for signs of past life on Mars.
Complement to Ladakh: While Ladakh sites simulate Martian climate, Matanomadh represents Martian geology and mineralogy, creating a comprehensive Mars-analogue ecosystem in India.
Conservation Importance: Facing threats from waterlogging and coal mining; scientists urge its declaration as a Planetary Geo-heritage Site.
Strategic Edge: Strengthens India’s role in planetary exploration, astrobiology research, and international collaborations.
[UPSC 2016] Consider the following statements:
1. The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO
2. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission
3. made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA
4. made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only * (d) 1, 2 and 3
A powerful earthquake in Afghanistan killed at least 800 people and injured thousands, highlighting the country’s extreme vulnerability to seismic hazards.
Why is Afghanistan so prone to Earthquakes?
Geological Setting: Afghanistan lies in the Hindu Kush mountains, part of the Alpide Belt, the world’s second most seismically active belt after the Circum-Pacific.
Tectonic Origin: The Alpide Belt was formed by the closure of the Tethys Ocean, following the collision of the African, Arabian, and Indian Plates with the Eurasian Plate.
Ongoing Collision: The Indian Plate’s continued movement into the Eurasian Plate builds mountain ranges (Himalayas, Hindu Kush) and drives strong seismic activity.
Seismic Characteristics: Afghanistan experiences both shallow-focus earthquakes (0–70 km depth) causing major destruction and rare deep-focus quakes (up to 200 km) unique to the Hindu Kush.
Fault Structures: Major faults occur where the Indian and Eurasian Plates meet, making Afghanistan heavily fractured and highly vulnerable to tremors.
Where do Afghanistan’s Earthquakes occur?
Hindu Kush Region (Northern Afghanistan): Produces both shallow and deep-focus quakes due to the Indian Plate’s lithosphere sinking into the mantle, making it one of the world’s most unique seismic zones.
Sulaiman Range (SE Afghanistan & Western Pakistan): Known for shallow, thrust fault quakes, often destructive at the surface.
Main Pamir Thrust Zone: Another hotspot for shallow, surface-level earthquakes that cause high damage.
Overall Vulnerability: These regions together make Afghanistan one of the most earthquake-prone countries, with repeated deadly events since the 1990s.
[UPSC 2023] Consider the following statements:
1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of waves propogation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 * (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Prelims Only | Polity | Mains Paper 2: Indian Constitution - historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure
Why in the News?
The Supreme Court has referred to a larger Bench the question of whether Minority Educational Institutions (MEIs) are completely exempt from the purview of the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
About Minority Educational Institutions (MEIs):
Constitutional Basis:
Article 30(1) grants religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
Article 29 protects their cultural and educational rights.
Legal Framework:
Defined under the National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions (NCMEI) Act, 2004.
The NCMEI adjudicates disputes, grants recognition, and safeguards the autonomy of such institutions.
Recognized Minority Communities: Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, and Zoroastrians (Parsis) are notified as minorities by the Government of India.
Judicial Principles:
In T.M.A. Pai Foundation vs. State of Karnataka (2002), SC held that minority status is determined state-wise, not nationally.
Minority institutions can reserve seats for their community and enjoy greater control over administration and recruitment.
Purpose and Role:
Preserve the cultural, linguistic, and religious heritage of minority groups.
Provide quality education with constitutional protection from excessive state interference.
What is the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009?
Genesis: Stemming from Unnikrishnan vs. State of Andhra Pradesh (1993), where SC declared education as a Fundamental Right under Article 21.
Later given constitutional backing through the 86th Amendment Act (2002), which inserted Article 21A – free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 years.
Enactment: To operationalize Article 21A, Parliament passed the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009.
Key Provisions:
Free and compulsory education for all children aged 6–14 in a neighbourhood school.
25% reservation in private schools for children from disadvantaged groups and weaker sections.
No detention, expulsion, or board exams up to Class VIII (amended in 2019 to allow states discretion).
Teacher norms: TET (Teachers Eligibility Test) qualification mandatory; ban on private tuitions by teachers.
School Management Committees (SMCs): Parents, local authority reps, and teachers oversee school functioning.
Curriculum & Standards: Developed by an academic authority (often NCERT/SCERT).
Amendments:
2012: Included children with disabilities; exempted minority/religious institutions.
2019: Abolished uniform “no-detention policy,” left to states’ choice.
[UPSC 2018] Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only* (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
The Ramon Magsaysay Award 2025 has been awarded to Educate Girls, an Indian NGO working to promote girls’ education in rural and disadvantaged regions.
Other winners include:
Shaahina Ali (Maldives): A noted environmental activist.
Fr. Flaviano Antonio L. Villanueva (Philippines): A human rights defender, critic of Duterte’s drug war.
About Educate Girls:
Founded as: Foundation to Educate Girls Globally; CEO: Gayatri Nair Lobo.
Mission: Address gender inequality in education and uplift rural communities through girls’ schooling.
Impact:
Operates in India’s most rural and remote regions.
Employs community workers (preraks, team balikas) to mobilise enrollment and retention.
Significance: It is the first Indian organisation to win the award since its inception in 1958.
About Ramon Magsaysay Award:
“Nobel Prize of Asia”: Awarded annually since 1958.
Purpose: Celebrate “greatness of spirit and transformative leadership” in Asia.
Recognition: Individuals/organisations showing integrity in governance, service, and idealism in democracy.
Origin:
Established April 1957 by Rockefeller Brothers Fund trustees with support of the Philippines govt.
Named in honour of Ramon Magsaysay, former Philippine President (1953–57), noted for administrative and military leadership.
Original Categories (1958–2008): Govt Service, Public Service, Community Leadership, Journalism & Arts, Peace & International Understanding, and later Emergent Leadership (2001).
Since 2009: Fixed categories dropped (except Emergent Leadership), award now honours diverse forms of excellence.
Notable Indian Recipients:
Vinoba Bhave (1958): Bhoodan movement.
Mother Teresa (1962): humanitarian service.
Satyajit Ray (1967): cinema.
M.S. Subbulakshmi (1974): music.
Arvind Kejriwal (2006): anti-corruption work.
Ravish Kumar (2019): journalism.
Sonam Wangchuk (2018): educational innovation.
Educate Girls (2025): first Indian organisation to be honoured.
[UPSC 2004] Sandeep Pandey, the winner of Ramon Magsaysay Award, is mainly an activist in:
Options: (a) a campaigner for urban sanitation (b) an anti-child labour activist (c) Environmental protection (d) Education and livelihood projects for Dalits*
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has launched the Beta Version of “Adi Vaani”, India’s first AI-based translator for tribal languages.
About Adi Vaani:
What is it: India’s first AI-powered translator for tribal languages.
Launch: Released in Beta Version (2025) by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Inception: Developed under Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh to empower tribal communities and safeguard endangered tribal languages.
Created by: A team led by IIT Delhi with BITS Pilani, IIIT Hyderabad, IIIT Nava Raipur, and Tribal Research Institutes.
Impact: Strengthens digital literacy, ensures inclusive governance, preserves cultural identity, and positions India as a global leader in AI for endangered languages.
Key Features:
Translation Modes: Text-to-Text, Text-to-Speech, Speech-to-Text, and Speech-to-Speech.
Languages (Beta): Santali, Bhili, Mundari, and Gondi. Kui and Garo to be added next.
AI Models: Based on NLLB(No Language Left Behind) and IndicTrans2, adapted for low-resource languages.
Community-Driven: Data collected, validated, and iteratively developed by local experts and Tribal Research Institutes.
Toolkit Additions: OCR for digitizing manuscripts, bilingual dictionaries, and curated repositories.
[UPSC 2020] With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?
1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units 2. Create meaningful short stories and songs
3. Disease diagnosis 4. Text-to-Speech Conversion
5. Wireless transmission of electrical energy
Options: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only* (c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Distribution: Found in tropical and temperate regions; most visible on humid monsoon nights.
Bioluminescence: Glow produced in abdominal light organ using luciferin, luciferase, oxygen, and ATP.
Light Nature: Cold and efficient, colours vary between green and yellow depending on species.
Courtship Function: Flashing used as mating signal; males emit species-specific codes, females respond if correct.
Ecological Role and Conservation Significance:
Sensitivity: Strongly affected by pesticides, habitat loss, artificial lights, and polluted water.
Habitat Health Indicator: Large synchronised gatherings reflect intact ecosystems; sparse numbers signal disturbance.
Light Pollution Impact: Artificial lighting disrupts flashing, forcing males to waste energy and reducing mating success.
Local Evidences: Communities like the Malasar and Irula report declines linked to pesticides and polluted streams.
Indicator Role: Act as proxy species for nocturnal biodiversity, signalling risks to moths, bats, and amphibians.
[UPSC 2024] Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?
The US President has stopped federal funds that allowed cashless bail, sparking debate on whether the system is fair to the poor.
Cashless Bail System in the US:
Cashless Bail: Removes upfront cash requirement, relying on non-financial conditions like monitoring or appearance assurance.
Criticism of Cash Bail: Disadvantages the poor, keeping undertrials jailed for minor offences. Imposes financial strain that may itself push individuals toward further crime.
About Bail Provisions in India (BNSS, 2023, replacing CrPC, 1973):
Bail is essentially a mechanism to release an accused from custody with assurances that they will not abscond or tamper with evidence.
Governed by Chapter 35 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023.
Types of Bail under BNSS:
Regular Bail:
For bailable offences (Sec. 478): Bail is a right.
For non-bailable offences (Secs. 480, 483): Bail is at court’s discretion, depending on seriousness of offence, evidence, risk of absconding, and public interest.
Anticipatory Bail (Sec. 482): Pre-arrest bail in non-bailable offences, granted by higher courts with conditions such as no interference in investigation or threats to witnesses.
Interim Bail: Temporary release while a regular or anticipatory bail application is pending.
Statutory/Default Bail (Sec. 187): Accused has the right to bail if chargesheet not filed within the stipulated period.
Bail Mechanisms in Practice:
Bond: Accused signs a bond and deposits cash as guarantee; refunded after trial unless terms are violated.
Bail Bond: Surety given by another person such as a friend, family member, or employer. Courts verify their documents, financial stability, and residence. In Mumbai, a solvency certificate issued by a revenue officer is required, which delays bail.
Personal Recognisance (PR) Bond: Accused released without immediate cash deposit but must arrange money within a specified time. Courts often hesitate to grant PR bonds citing trial integrity.
Challenges in India’s Bail System
Undertrials stuck despite bail:
Many accused cannot furnish surety or small sums (₹5,000 or less).
Maharashtra (2022): 1,600+ persons in jail unable to meet bail conditions; 600 in Mumbai Metropolitan Region alone.
Prisons overcrowded: Maharashtra prisons had 12,343 excess prisoners (July 2025).
Judicial concerns: 268th Law Commission Report (2017):
Monetary bail system is discriminatory & unconstitutional.
Violates right to fair trial; leads to arbitrary classifications.
Supreme Court (2023 guidelines):
If an accused remains in jail >1 week despite bail, jail superintendent must inform District Legal Services Authority (DLSA).
DLSA can send para-legal volunteers/lawyers to assist release.
Based on NALSA data: ~5,000 undertrials jailed despite bail.
Reform under BNSS (2023):
Jail authorities must apply for bail for undertrial prisoners who have:
Served 1/3 of maximum sentence (first-time offenders).
Served 1/2 of maximum sentence (repeat offenders).
Not applicable in life imprisonment or death penalty cases.
[UPSC 2021] With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1.Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate, and such an accused is locked up in the police station, not in jail.
2.During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only* (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Mount Etna has erupted again after its recent eruption in June.
About Mount Etna:
Location: Situated on the east coast of Sicily, Italy, near the city of Catania.
Type: Mount Etna is a stratovolcano (also called a composite volcano), which is formed from layers of hardened lava, volcanic ash, and rocks.
Height: It stands at approximately 3,300 meters, making it the tallest volcano in Europe south of the Alps.
Recognition: Declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013, with documented volcanic activity for at least 2,700 years.
Eruption Record: Etna is almost constantly active. Notable eruptions have occurred in 1400 B.C., 1669, 2001, 2018, 2021, 2024, and 2025.
Volcanic Activity Style: Known for Strombolian and effusive eruptions, with occasional Plinian eruptions (rare and more explosive).
Reasons Behind the Eruption:
Nature of Eruption: The eruption is classified as either Strombolian or possibly Plinian, depending on interpretation:
Strombolian Eruption: Characterized by moderate explosive bursts, caused by gas bubbles in magma suddenly bursting at the surface.
Plinian Eruption: Some volcanologists suggest this classification due to the large ash column that may have reached the stratosphere.
Eruption Trigger: The eruption likely began due to pressure buildup from gas within the magma chamber, leading to collapse of the southeast crater and lava flows.
[UPSC 2014] Consider the following geological phenomena:
1. Development of a fault
2. Movement along a fault
3. Impact produced by a volcanic eruption
4. Folding of rocks Which of the above cause earthquakes?
Options: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4*
