Why in the News?
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has prohibited tourist entry to the Nata Mandap (Hall of Dance) at the Sun Temple, Konark, citing safety concerns.
About the Konark Sun Temple:
- It is located approximately 64 km from Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
- It was built in the 13th century (around 1250 CE) during the reign of King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
- It is dedicated to Surya, the Sun God.
- It is designed as a massive chariot drawn by 7 horses with 24 intricately carved wheels.
- It was constructed from Khondalite stone, known for its durability and intricate carvings.
- The structure originally included a sanctum (deul) and an assembly hall (jagamohan) that have largely collapsed.
Historical Significance:
- The Konark Wheel, featured on Indian currency (old âč20 and new âč10 notes), symbolizes Odishaâs rich cultural heritage and national identity.
- It reflects 13th-century advancements in timekeeping and astronomy through its sundial functionality.
- It embodies the cycle of life and serves as a testament to the worship of Surya, the Sun God.
- It is a key example of the Kalinga architectural style, highlighting the Eastern Ganga Dynasty’s achievements.
Architectural Significance:
- Design: Represents a chariot of the Sun God, drawn by 7 horses, with 24 intricately carved wheels.
- Wheel Details:
- Diameter: 9 feet 9 inches.
- Spokes: 8 wide and 8 thin, symbolising prahars (three-hour periods).
- Symbolism:
- 7 horses: 7 days of the week.
- 12 pairs of wheels: 12 months.
- 24 wheels: 24 hours in a day.
- Sundial Functionality: Two wheels act as sundials, showing time from sunrise to sunset using the axel’s shadow.
- Carvings: Features intricate designs of foliage, animals, and human figures, showcasing exceptional craftsmanship.
[UPSC 2021] With reference to the Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements:
1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
2. It is the only circular temple built in India.
3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4* (d) 2, 3, and 4 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
China has rejected President Trumpâs claim of secret nuclear tests, reaffirming its commitment to the CTBT amid renewed U.S. calls for nuclear testing and revived Cold Warâstyle tensions.
About Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO):
- Establishment: Formed in 1996 under the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) to build and operate a verification regime ensuring compliance with the global ban on nuclear explosions.
- Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
- Mandate: To monitor adherence to the CTBT through a global verification system capable of detecting any nuclear test anywhere in the world.
- Verification System: Operates the International Monitoring System (IMS) with 337 facilities, including seismic, hydroacoustic, infrasound, and radionuclide stations to detect underground, underwater, or atmospheric nuclear tests.
- Data Centre: The International Data Centre (IDC) analyses and distributes real-time data to member states, providing early warning of suspicious activities.
- Preparatory Commission: Functions until the CTBT formally enters into force, maintaining operational readiness and supporting statesâ verification capabilities.
- Scientific Applications: The IMS also contributes to tsunami warning systems, atmospheric research, and disaster response, reinforcing the CTBTOâs global utility beyond disarmament.
Back2Basics: How are CTBT and NPT related?
- Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) and the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) are closely linked pillars of the global nuclear arms control regime:
-
- Shared Goal: Both aim to prevent nuclear proliferation and promote disarmament.
- Scope Difference: The NPT focuses on stopping the spread of nuclear weapons and promoting peaceful nuclear use; the CTBT bans all nuclear explosions for any purpose.
- Chronological Link: The NPT (1970) came first, creating the legal framework for non-proliferation; the CTBT (1996) built on it by prohibiting testing, reinforcing the NPTâs disarmament pillar.
- Verification and Compliance: The CTBT adds technical verification through the International Monitoring System, complementing NPTâs safeguards under the IAEA.
- Disarmament Pathway: Ratification of the CTBT is often viewed as a key step toward fulfilling Article VI of the NPT, which obliges nuclear powers to pursue disarmament.
|
Status of the Treaty and Ratification Gap:
- Adoption: It was adopted by the UN General Assembly in 1996 and opened for signature on September 24, 1996.
- Membership: As of 2025, 187 states have signed and 178 have ratified the treaty.
- Enforcement: It will become legally binding only after 44 specific âAnnex 2â states, those with nuclear technology at the time ratify it.
- Pending Ratifications: Eight critical states have not ratified the treaty- China, Egypt, Iran, Israel, and the United States (signatories but unratified), and India, Pakistan, and North Korea (non-signatories).
- Recent Setback: In 2023, Russia revoked its ratification, though it continues to observe a testing moratorium, weakening the treatyâs political momentum.
- Global Compliance: Despite legal limbo, a de facto moratorium on nuclear testing has largely held since the 1990s; only North Korea has violated it with tests since 2006.
- Significance: The CTBT remains a cornerstone of the global non-proliferation regime, its verification network providing both deterrence and transparency even without formal legal enforcement.
| [UPSC 2015] Consider the following countries:
1. China 2. France 3. India 4. Israel 5. Pakistan
Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
(a) 1 and 2 only * (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The Winter Session of Parliament will be held from December 1 to 19, 2025.
About Parliamentary Sessions:
- Parliamentary Sessions are formal periods when the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha meet to legislate, deliberate, and hold the government accountable.
- Each session has several sittings for debates, questions, and lawmaking. Under Article 85(1), the President must summon both Houses so that not more than six months elapse between two sessions.
- Types of Sessions:
-
- Budget Session (FebâMar): Begins with the Presidentâs Address; includes Union Budget presentation and debate.
- Monsoon Session (JulâAug): Focuses on legislative work and national issues.
- Winter Session (NovâDec): Reviews policies, finalises pending legislation.
- Special Session: Called for urgent or commemorative matters (e.g., emergencies or milestones).
Key Terms Related to Sessions:
- Summoning (Art. 85(1)): President summons Parliament on Cabinet Committee advice; at least two sessions yearly, with †six-month gap.
- Adjournment: Temporary suspension of a sitting; business resumes when House reassembles.
- Adjournment Sine Die: Ends a sitting without fixing a date for the next meeting; followed by presidential prorogation.
- Prorogation (Art. 85(2)(a)): Formal end of a session by the President; pending bills do not lapse.
- Dissolution (Art. 85(2)(b)): Ends the Lok Sabhaâs tenure; triggers new elections; pending bills in Lok Sabha lapse.
- Recess: Period between the prorogation of one session and the start of the next.
- Lame Duck Session: Last session of an outgoing Lok Sabha before the new one forms.
- Quorum (Art. 100): Minimum attendance for businessâ55 in Lok Sabha, 25 in Rajya Sabha.
- Voting (Art. 100):
- Voice Vote: Members respond âAyeâ/âNo.â
- Division Vote: Contested results recorded electronically.
- Casting Vote: Presiding officerâs tie-breaking vote.
| [UPSC 2024] With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die, but there is no bar to the President of India proroguing the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3* (d) 3 only |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
At the Leadersâ Summit in Belem, Brazil, preceding the COP30, India has announced its decision to join the Tropical Forest Forever Facility (TFFF) as an Observer.
About Tropical Forest Forever Facility (TFFF):
- What is it: A global blended-finance mechanism rewarding Tropical Forest Countries (TFCs) for conserving intact forests through annual conservation-linked payments.
- Payment Design: Provides $4 per hectare annually for protected forest area, with deductions for deforestation or ecosystem degradation verified via satellite data.
- Institutional Setup: Managed by a TFFF Secretariat (policy and oversight) and a Tropical Forest Investment Fund (TFIF) (financial operations and investment management).
- Investment Model: The TFIF channels sponsor contributions into sovereign, corporate, green, and blue bonds, explicitly excluding fossil fuel industries.
- Community Allocation: 20% of total payments earmarked for Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (IPLCs) to support sustainable livelihoods and rights-based forest governance.
- Monitoring Mechanism: Conservation outcomes tracked via satellite and third-party verification systems ensuring full transparency and performance-based accountability.
- Financial Sustainability: Operates as a budget-neutral model, where investment returns fund long-term conservation payments rather than temporary grants.
- Initial Pledges: Founding commitments include Brazil ($1 bn), Indonesia ($1 bn), Norway ($3 bn over 10 years), Colombia ($250 mn), Netherlands ($5 mn), Portugal (âŹ1 mn); France, China, and UAE have expressed political support.
Relation to REDD+ Framework:
- REDD+ Genesis: Launched in 2008 under the UNFCCC, REDD+ stands for Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation Plus, providing result-based payments for verified emission reductions.
- Core Difference: While REDD+ rewards verified carbon reductions, TFFF offers annual standing forest payments, maintaining steady conservation incentives.
- Approach: REDD+ focuses on carbon metrics and offset markets, whereas TFFF bypasses carbon dependency, offering investment-backed, non-offset finance.
- Objectives Alignment: Both aim to promote sustainable forest management, biodiversity conservation, and enhanced carbon stock in developing nations.
- Institutional Partners: REDD+ is jointly administered by FAO, UNDP, UNEP, and implemented in 65+ countries; TFFF aligns with these frameworks through transparency and inclusivity principles.
- Added Value: TFFF strengthens long-term financial resilience of conservation efforts by combining public and private investments with community-centric benefit-sharing.
Indiaâs Role and Climate Record:
- Emission Reduction Record: From 2005â2020, India cut emission intensity by 36%, achieving 50% non-fossil installed power capacity ahead of 2030 goals.
- Carbon Sink Achievement: Between 2005â2021, India added 2.29 billion tonnes COâ equivalent through expanded forest and tree cover.
- NDC Commitments: Indiaâs updated Nationally Determined Contribution (to 2035) targets deeper emission cuts and enhanced carbon sink creation.
- Strategic Importance: Strengthens SouthâSouth cooperation and Indiaâs advocacy for equitable climate responsibility within global negotiations.
| [UPSC 2025] Which one of the following launched the âNature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacificâ?
(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)*
(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
(c) The New Development Bank (NDB)
(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The sacred Piprahwa relics of Lord Buddha have reached Thimphu, Bhutan, as a goodwill gift from India for the Global Peace Prayer Festival (GPPF).
About the Piprahwa Relics:
- Discovery: Unearthed in 1898 by William Claxton Peppe, a British engineer, at Piprahwa (Siddharthnagar, Uttar Pradesh), near the Nepal border.
- Historical Significance: Identified as ancient Kapilavastu, capital of the Shakya republic, where Prince Siddhartha (Buddha) lived before renunciation.
- Findings at the Site: A buried stupa yielded a large stone coffer containing:
- Bone fragments believed to be Buddhaâs relics
- Caskets made of soapstone and crystal
- A sandstone coffer
- Over 1,800 ornaments: pearls, rubies, sapphires, gold sheets
- Legal Custody:
- The British Crown claimed the relics under the Indian Treasure Trove Act, 1878.
- Most artifacts were transferred to the Indian Museum, Kolkata.
Stupas with Buddhaâs Relics:
- After the Buddhaâs death (Mahaparinirvana), his cremated relics were divided among 8 kingdoms and a Brahmin named Drona, who coordinated their distribution.
- Each recipient built a Stupa to enshrine their share of the relics, creating important pilgrimage sites and early centers of Buddhist worship.
- The 9 stupas were in Rajagriha, Vaishali, Kapilavastu, Allakappa, Ramagrama, Vethadipa, Pava, Kushinagar, and Pippalivana.
- Emperor Ashoka (3rd century BCE) redistributed the relics from these stupas into thousands of new stupas across his empire.
- The stupa at Ramagrama is unique because it is believed to remain untouched and still holds the original relics.
- A typical early Buddhist stupa included a hemispherical mound (anda), a square railing (harmika), a central pillar (yashti) with umbrellas (chatra), and a path for circumambulation (pradakshinapatha).
| [UPSC 2023] With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:
1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Options: (a) Only one (b) Only two* (c) All three (d) None |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
A recent report by the Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) revealed that over half of registered unrecognised political parties (RUPPs) linked to Bihar have failed to comply with mandatory financial disclosure norms for FY 2023â24.
Key Findings of ADR Report:
- Non-Compliance: Over 59% of registered unrecognised political parties (RUPPs) linked to Bihar failed to file either their audit reports or donation statements for FY 2023â24, violating Election Commission of India (ECI) norms.
- Scope: Of 275 RUPPs reviewed, 184 were from Bihar and 91 from other states. Only 67 parties (24.36%) disclosed both audit and contribution reports.
|
Political Funding in India:
- Overview: Political funding refers to financial resources raised by political parties or candidates to sustain organisational operations and election campaigns.
- Purpose: Ensures participation in democratic processes, electoral competitiveness, and mass outreach.
- Sources of Funding:
- Individuals: Citizens contribute voluntarily; deductions under Section 80GGB (Income Tax Act).
- Corporates: Donations governed by Section 182 (Companies Act, 2013).
- State Support: Indirect subsidies (media access, tax exemption) allowed; direct funding prohibited.
- Electoral Trusts (2013): Channel corporate contributions transparently.
- Electoral Bonds (2018): Introduced donor anonymity; struck down by Supreme Court (2024) for violating transparency and citizensâ right to information.
Legal Framework for Political Funding:
- Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RPA): Governs election conduct, contributions, and maintenance of accounts.
- Income Tax Act, 1961:
- Section 13A: Exempts tax only for parties maintaining audited accounts and disclosing donations.
- Section 80GGB/GGC: Offers tax benefits to individual and corporate donors.
- Companies Act, 2013:
- Section 182: Limits corporate donations to 7.5% of average net profits of the last three years.
- Mandates annual disclosure of political contributions.
- Election Commission Guidelines: Mandate submission of audited accounts and contribution reports above âč20,000.
Mechanisms Governing Political Funding Disclosure:
- Disclosure Requirements:
- Under Section 29C (RPA, 1951): Political parties must disclose donations above âč20,000 to the ECI annually.
- Under Sections 77â78 (RPA, 1951): Candidates must submit true election expenditure accounts within 90 days (Lok Sabha) or 75 days (Assembly).
- Violations invite disqualification up to three years (Section 10A).
- Transparency Gaps:
- Over 60% of party income from âunknown sourcesâ, mainly due to inadequate enforcement and loopholes.
- Frequent delays, incomplete disclosures, and absence of independent audits persist.
- Judicial Oversight:
- Supreme Court judgments (e.g., PUCL v. Union, 2003) and 2024 ruling on Electoral Bonds strengthened citizensâ right to know funding sources.
- Reform Recommendations:
- Bring political parties under the Right to Information (RTI) Act.
- Lower disclosure threshold from âč20,000 to âč2,000.
- Establish National Election Fund for equitable, state-audited funding.
- Ensure real-time digital reporting and independent third-party audits.
| [UPSC 2021] Which one of the following effects of the creation of black money in India has been the main cause of worry to the Government of India?
Options: (a) Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing
(b) Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewelry, gold, etc.
(c) Large donations to political parties and the growth of regionalism
(d) Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion* |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
In 2025, Bangladesh became the first South Asian nation to join the UN Water Convention (Convention on the Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses and International Lakes).
About UN Water Convention:
- Overview: Convention on the Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses and International Lakes, adopted in Helsinki (1992) and enforced in 1996 under the United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UNECE).
- Globalisation: Originally regional (Europe, Central Asia); opened to all UN Member States in 2016 after a 2013 amendment, becoming a global treaty for transboundary water governance.
- Objective: Promotes sustainable management of shared water resources and conflict prevention through cooperative mechanisms.
- Key Goals: Implements SDG-6 (Clean Water and Sanitation) and SDG-16 (Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions) via equitable water sharing and joint management.
- Obligations for Parties:
- Prevent and reduce transboundary pollution and unsustainable extraction.
- Use shared waters equitably and reasonably.
- Coordinate national and transboundary water management policies.
- Establish joint bodies or commissions for shared basins.
- Institutional Mechanism: Managed by the UNECE Secretariat, which organises meetings, facilitates implementation, and promotes basin-level cooperation among signatories.
- Legal Character: Functions as a framework convention, complementing rather than replacing bilateral treaties (e.g., Indus Waters Treaty, Ganga Treaty).
- Significance: Serves as a legal and institutional mechanism for Integrated Water Resource Management (IWRM), regional peacebuilding, and climate-resilient governance.
- Related Instruments: Inspired the UN Watercourses Convention (1997); both operate in complementary scopes within international water law.
Why did Bangladesh join (2025):
- First in South Asia: Became the first South Asian nation to ratify the Convention amid escalating water stress and climate vulnerability.
- Hydrological Dependence: Over 90% of river inflows come from outside Bangladesh, mainly India and China, making Dhaka highly vulnerable to upstream interventions.
- Upstream Projects: Concerns over Chinaâs Motuo Hydropower Project (Yarlung Tsangpo/Brahmaputra) and Indiaâs unresolved Teesta water-sharing dispute drove the decision.
- Environmental Risks: 60% of population exposed to floods; half live in drought-prone areas, heightening need for cooperative governance.
- Legal Context: Bangladeshâs 2019 High Court ruling granting rivers legal personhood reinforced its institutional focus on water rights.
- Strategic Motivation: Seeks global legal recourse, access to data-sharing mechanisms, and international funding for climate adaptation and water security.
Implications for India:
- Shift from Bilateralism: India prefers bilateral river treaties (e.g., Indus, Ganga). Bangladeshâs multilateral engagement introduces scope for third-party mediation, contrary to Indiaâs stance.
- Ganga Treaty Renewal (2026): Bangladesh may invoke âequitable utilisationâ to seek a higher share of Ganga waters under Convention norms.
- Teesta River Pressure: The stalled Teesta agreement could face renewed international pressure, citing fairness and sustainability principles.
- Regional Domino Effect: Likely to motivate Nepal and Bhutan to join, potentially transforming South Asiaâs hydro-diplomatic architecture.
- Strategic Concerns: Bangladeshâs simultaneous trilateral cooperation with China and Pakistan raises apprehensions of a Beijing-influenced hydro-bloc.
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The Supreme Court has ordered all States and Union Territories to remove stray dogs from public areas and relocate them to shelters after sterilisation and vaccination under the Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023.
About Animal Birth Control (ABC) Program:
- Purpose: Humane, scientifically proven method to control stray dog populations and reduce rabies.
- Legal Basis: First under Animal Birth Control (Dogs) Rules, 2001 (under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960); updated as Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023.
- Development: Created with support from the World Health Organization (WHO).
- Core Method: âCatchâsteriliseâvaccinateâreleaseâ model; prohibits relocation or culling.
- Implementation: Managed by municipalities, municipal corporations, and panchayats.
- Authorisation: Only organisations recognised by the Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) can conduct programs.
- Animal Birth Control Rules, 2023:
- Implemented to comply with Supreme Court guidelines in Writ Petition No. 691 of 2009.
- Assigns responsibility to local bodies (municipalities, corporations, panchayats) to conduct ABC programs for sterilisation and immunisation of stray dogs.
- Prohibits relocation of stray dogs as a means of population control; instead, they must be sterilised and returned to the same area.
- Only organisations recognised by the Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) can conduct ABC programs.
Key Features:
- Sterilisation Target: Minimum 70% of stray dogs in an area within one reproductive cycle (~6 months).
- Focus: Female sterilisation at a 70:30 female-to-male ratio.
- Rabies Control: Mandatory rabies vaccination (ABCâARV) for every sterilised dog.
- Infrastructure: Kennels, veterinary facilities, vehicles, and hygienic shelters required.
- Recordkeeping: Detailed records for catching, surgery, vaccination, and release.
- Monitoring: State and local committees ensure compliance and handle complaints.
- Legal Protection: Mass relocation or killing prohibited under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (PCA) Act, 1960.
| [UPSC 2010] Consider the following statements:
1. Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flu.
2. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu
3.To prevent the future spread of Swine Flu in the epidemic area, the swine (pigs) must all be culled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only* (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India approved two new Indian Audit and Accounts Department (IA&AD) cadres, the Central Revenue Audit and Central Expenditure Audit, effective from 1 January 2026.
About the New Cadres:
- Objective: Designed to build deeper professional expertise in auditing Central receipts and expenditures, streamline manpower management, and reduce dependence on regional deployments.
-
- Central Revenue Audit (CRA): Focuses on auditing Central Government revenues, including direct taxes, indirect taxes, customs, excise, and non-tax receipts. It ensures compliance, accuracy, and transparency in revenue administration.
- Central Expenditure Audit (CEA): Concentrates on auditing Central Government expenditures, assessing legality, efficiency, and prudence in public spending across ministries and departments.
- Impact: The reform consolidates around 4,000 audit professionals (out of a total CAG strength of ~42,000), improving manpower flexibility, domain expertise, and data-driven audit capabilities.
- Significance: Marks a major shift toward centralised auditing, ensuring a uniform approach to the examination of national finances and reinforcing accountability in public administration.
About the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:
- Overview: Established under Article 148, the CAG heads the Indian Audit and Accounts Department (IA&AD) and acts as guardian of public finance.
- Legal Framework: Functions under the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971, amended in 1976, 1984, and 1987.
- Appointment & Tenure:
- Appointed by the President under warrant and seal.
- Tenure â Six years or until age 65, whichever earlier.
- Removal â Same as a Supreme Court judge, requiring special majority in Parliament.
- Independence Safeguards:
- Salary and expenses charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
- No reappointment to government posts after retirement.
- No minister can defend the CAG in Parliament.
- Duties & Powers:
- Audits Consolidated Funds of the Union, States, and UTs.
- Examines PSUs, autonomous bodies, and grant-in-aid institutions.
- Submits reports to the President, later examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
- Role & Importance: Serves as the watchdog of public finance, conducting regulatory and propriety audits to ensure legality and efficiency in expenditure.
- International Role: Currently the External Auditor for IAEA (2022â2027) and FAO (2020â2025), enhancing Indiaâs global audit leadership.
| [UPSC 2012] In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only * (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
An inquiry has been ordered into a Pune land deal over alleged irregularities and undervaluation of 40 acres of a Watandari land.
What is the Watan / Watandari System?
- Overview: A hereditary land tenure and revenue-rights system once prevalent in Maharashtra and the Deccan, granting Watan lands to individuals or families for performing state or village services.
- Historical Origin: Evolved under the Rashtrakutas, Deccan Sultanates, and Mughals to institutionalise local governance through hereditary offices.
- Purpose: Created to compensate local officials and functionaries (like village heads, accountants, or priests) through land revenue rights rather than direct salaries.
- Administrative Role: Integrated local elite families into the stateâs fiscal system, ensuring continuity of governance and tax collection.
- Socio-Economic Character: Reflected the fusion of land, caste, and service, forming a semi-feudal agrarian order at the village level.
Key Features of the Watan System:
- Hereditary Tenure: Watan rights and duties passed from one generation to another, often within the same lineage.
- Service-Based Grant: Land given as compensation for hereditary duties– administrative, military, or religious, performed for the state.
- Watandars: Holders included Patils, Kulkarnis, Deshmukhs, Josis, and Purohits, each tied to specific village roles.
- Non-Transferability: Watan lands were non-saleable and non-alienable, as tenure depended on continued public service.
- Revenue Rights: Watandars retained a share of village revenue in lieu of fixed payment, ensuring local autonomy.
- Caste-Linked Hierarchy: Reinforced hereditary privilege and caste dominance within village administration.
- Decline and Inefficiency: Over time, hereditary claims caused disputes, mismanagement, and reduced accountability.
[UPSC 2024] With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:
1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only* (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
A new study published in Nature Ecology & Evolution highlights how species mobility, measured as biomass movement, shapes ecosystems and reflects human ecological dominance.
About the Concept of Biomass Movement:
- Overview: Biomass movement is the product of a speciesâ total biomass and the distance it travels annually, representing the mass of living matter displaced across ecosystems each year.
- Biomass movement = (Total biomass of a species) Ă (Distance it travels annually).
- Purpose: Quantifies how living organisms contribute to nutrient transport, seed dispersal, and energy flow through movement.
- Comparative Metric: Enables cross-species comparison of ecological influence via mobility, bridging animal ecology and global biogeography.
- Analytical Value: Provides a standardised ecological indicator to study both natural migrations and human-induced mobility patterns.
- Anthropocene Context: Serves as a unified measure of ecological and energetic impact in a human-dominated epoch.
- Scientific Basis: Concept explored in Nature Ecology & Evolution (2025) to assess species-level and anthropogenic movement on a global scale.
Key Highlights with Example:
- Arctic Tern: Weighing ~100 g, travels ~90,000 km annually (ArcticâAntarctica circuit), the longest animal migration known.
- Collective Biomass Movement: Two million terns contribute only 0.016 gt/km/yr, due to low body mass despite vast distances.
- Grey Wolf: Records 0.03 gt/km/yr, higher due to larger body size and wider terrestrial range.
- Serengeti Migration: Over a million wildebeests, gazelles, and zebras generate biomass movement 20Ă greater than wolves.
- Human Parallel: The total biomass moved in the FIFA World Cup equals that of major animal migrations, highlighting scale disparity between species.
Human Biomass Movement and Its Consequences:
- Magnitude: Humans move an estimated ~4,000 gt/km/yr, the largest on Earth, 40Ă greater than all wild land mammals combined.
- Mobility Patterns: Average human travels 30 km/day, mostly motorised, 65% by cars/motorcycles, 10% by air, 5% by rail.
- Economic Disparity: Two-thirds of total human mobility occurs in high- and upper-middle-income countries, reflecting global inequality.
- Ecological Effects: Drives carbon emissions, urban sprawl, resource depletion, and land fragmentation.
- Marine Decline: Marine animal mobility has halved since 1850 due to industrial fishing and whaling.
- Livestock Factor: Domesticated cattle show biomass movement comparable to humans, indicating the ecological weight of livestock farming.
- Wildlife Contrast: Combined biomass movement of all wild land mammals (excluding bats) is only 30 gt/km/yr, underscoring human dominance.
- Anthropocene Insight: Demonstrates that human and domesticated animal mobility now defines Earthâs biogeochemical and ecological motion.
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
Zohran Mamdani of Indian-origin has been elected as the mayor of New York City.
Mayor in India:
- Overview: The Mayor serves as the head of a Municipal Corporation, responsible for urban governance, civic infrastructure, and local service delivery in large cities.
- Basis: Institutionalised under the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which gave constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) and transferred 18 functional subjects to them.
- Administrative Framework: Municipal corporations function under state municipal laws, operating under the supervision of state urban development departments.
- Historical Context: The first municipal corporation was created in Madras (1688), followed by Bombay and Calcutta (1762) under British rule.
- Evolution of the office: The idea of an elected municipal President was first introduced through Lord Mayoâs Resolution (1870). The present form of local self-government was shaped by Lord Riponâs Resolution (1882), earning him the title âFather of Local Self-Government in India.â
- Election and Tenure:
- Direct Election: Citizens directly elect the Mayor in cities like Bhopal, Indore, and Jaipur.
- Indirect Election: Elected councillors choose the Mayor in cities like Mumbai, Delhi, and Bengaluru.
- Tenure: Varies from 1 to 5 years, depending on state-specific legislation.
- Powers and Functions:
-
- Ceremonial Role: Acts as the first citizen of the city, representing it in official and public functions.
- Presiding Officer: Chairs meetings of the Municipal Corporation and ensures smooth deliberations.
- Limited Executive Power: Administrative authority lies with the Municipal Commissioner (IAS officer) appointed by the state government.
- Policy and Representation: Serves as a political leader and civic advocate, voicing urban development concerns.
How a Mayor in India differ from a Mayor in the U.S.?
|
India |
U.S. |
| System Type |
Parliamentary model under state supervision |
Executive or presidential city model |
| Election |
Usually indirectly elected by councillors |
Directly elected by citizens |
| Tenure |
1â5 years, varies by state |
Fixed 4-year term, renewable once |
| Administrative Power |
Ceremonial, executive power with Commissioner |
Full executive control over departments and budget |
| Financial Authority |
Dependent on state approval |
Autonomous budgetary power (e.g., NYC manages $120+ bn) |
| Legislative Role |
Chairs council meetings |
Can veto bills and issue executive orders |
| Autonomy |
Subordinate to state |
Semi-autonomous, independent within city jurisdiction |
| Nature of Office |
Symbolic and representational |
Powerful executive, city-level head of government |
| [UPSC 2024] Consider the following statements:
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3* |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The Indian Navy has commissioned INS Ikshak, the third Survey Vessel (Large) (SVL) and the first to be based at the Southern Naval Command, at Naval Base Kochi.
About INS Ikshak:
- Overview: It is the third vessel of the Survey Vessel (Large) [SVL] class and the first to be based at the Southern Naval Command.
- Series Lineage: Third ship in the SVL series, following INS Sandhayak and INS Nirdeshak, replacing older Sandhayak-class vessels.
- Builder & Origin: Constructed by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE) Ltd., Kolkata, under Aatmanirbhar Bharat, with over 80% indigenous content sourced from Indian MSMEs.
- Name Meaning: Means âGuideâ in Sanskrit – symbolising its role in charting unexplored waters and strengthening maritime safety in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
- Mission Role: Designed primarily for hydrographic surveys but also configured for Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations and can serve as a hospital ship during crises.
Key Features:
- Dimensions & Displacement: 110 m long, 16 m wide, 3,400-ton displacement, with crew capacity of ~231 personnel.
- Propulsion & Speed: Powered by twin main engines and twin-shaft configuration; achieves 14 knots cruising speed, 18 knots maximum.
- Survey Systems: Equipped with multi-beam echo sounder, Autonomous Underwater Vehicle (AUV), Remotely Operated Vehicle (ROV), four Survey Motor Boats (SMBs), and advanced oceanographic sensors for coastal and deep-water mapping.
- Aviation Facility: Features a helicopter deck, extending its range, reconnaissance, and operational versatility.
- Dual Role Capability: Convertible for HADR and medical missions, enhancing naval disaster-response capability.
- Gender-Inclusive Design: Indiaâs first survey vessel with dedicated accommodation for women officers and sailors.
[UPSC 2016] Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently?
Options: (a) Amphibious warfare ship
(b) Nuclear-powered submarine
(c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel *
(d) Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
Researchers have detected the clearest gravitational wave signal, GW250114, from merging black holes, confirming Stephen Hawkingâs 1971 Black Hole Area Theorem.
About GW250114:
- Overview: GW250114 is the clearest gravitational wave signal ever detected, observed on January 14, 2025, by LIGO (US), Virgo (Italy), and KAGRA (Japan).
- What Happened: It came from the collision of two black holes, each about 30 times the Sunâs mass, located 1.3 billion light-years away.
- Importance: Published in Physical Review Letters (Sept 2025), it gave the strongest proof of Stephen Hawkingâs Black Hole Area Theorem (1971) and confirmed Einsteinâs General Theory of Relativity.
Back2Bascis: Black Holes
- Overview: A black hole is a region in space where gravity is so strong that even light cannot escape.
- Formation: Created when a massive star collapses after using up its fuel.
- Types:
- Stellar Black Holes â formed from dead stars.
- Supermassive Black Holes â at the centre of galaxies.
- Intermediate or Primordial â smaller or early-universe types.
- Properties: Defined by mass, spin, and charge; grow by absorbing matter or merging with other black holes.
What is a Black Hole Merger?
- Process: Two black holes orbit each other, come closer, and finally collide to form a bigger black hole.
- Phases:
- Inspiral â they lose energy and move inward.
- Merger â they collide, sending out gravitational waves.
- Ringdown â the new black hole settles down.
- Observation: These mergers create powerful ripples in spacetime called gravitational waves, first detected by LIGO in 2015.
|
What is the Hawkingâs Black Hole Area Theorem (1971)?
- Idea: The total surface area of black holes never decreases â it can only stay the same or increase.
- Analogy: Similar to the Second Law of Thermodynamics, where disorder (entropy) always increases.
- Meaning: When two black holes merge, the new black holeâs surface area is greater than or equal to the combined areas of the originals.
- Proof: The GW250114 event (2025) confirmed this by showing that the total area increased, just as Hawking predicted.
| [UPSC 2019] Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
Options: (a) Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
(b) Gravitational waves’ were detected. *
(c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
(d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
A government panel comprising officials from the Commerce and Industry Ministry, NITI Aayog, and exporters is drafting new Special Economic Zone (SEZ) norms to revive manufacturing and support exporters hit by steep U.S. tariffs in 2025.
Back2Basics: Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India
- Overview: Duty-free enclaves treated as foreign territory for trade, designed to boost exports, investment, and employment.
- Legal Framework: Governed by the SEZ Act, 2005 and SEZ Rules, 2006 with single-window clearances and liberal FDI norms.
- Policy Evolution: Introduced in 2000, replacing Export Processing Zones (EPZs) to strengthen export-led industrialization.
- Objectives: Promote export growth, foreign and domestic investment, and infrastructure creation.
- Incentives: Include duty-free imports, tax holidays, zero-rated GST, and ECB up to $500 million annually.
- Scale: As of 2025, India has 276 operational SEZs– notably GIFT City (Gujarat), SEEPZ (Mumbai), and Noida SEZ.
- Reform Outlook: The Development of Enterprise and Service Hubs (DESH) Bill 2022 aims to evolve SEZs into flexible, multi-use economic hubs linking domestic and global value chains.
|
Need for SEZ Norms Revision:
- U.S. Tariff Impact: Recent U.S. tariff hikes on gems, jewellery, and textiles have reduced price competitiveness of Indiaâs SEZ-based exporters, leading to production losses.
- Export Decline: SEZ exports dropped to $172 billion (FY25), with domestic sales stagnating at 2%, exposing overdependence on foreign markets.
- Idle Capacity & Job Losses: Fluctuating export demand left labour and machinery underutilised; reforms aim to let SEZs meet domestic orders during downturns.
- Global Benchmarking: Indian SEZs lag China and Vietnam in scale, policy stability, and productivity, prompting structural reform for competitiveness.
- Revenue Balance: The government seeks industry relief while safeguarding tax revenues, given SEZsâ extensive tax exemptions.
Proposed SEZ Reforms under Review:
- Reverse Job Work Permission: SEZs may be allowed to accept domestic processing contracts to use idle capacity during off-peak seasons.
- DTA Sales Flexibility: Partial permission for direct domestic sales, with duty adjustments to protect local manufacturers.
- Simplified De-notification Rules: Faster conversion of non-performing SEZs into industrial parks or enterprise hubs.
- Sectoral Support: Gems and jewellery exporters seek moratoriums, longer export obligations, and interest relief.
- Integration with DESH Bill (2022): Adoption of hybrid zone model for both exports and domestic production under the Development of Enterprise and Service Hubs framework.
[UPSC 2010] The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following:
1. Development of infrastructure facilities. 2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources. 3. Promotion of exports of services only.
Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only* (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
[UPSC 2016] Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in-
Options: (a) Andhra Pradesh* (b) Gujarat (c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
Gogabeel Lake, located in Katihar district, Bihar, has been officially designated as Indiaâs 94th Ramsar Site and sixth from Bihar.
About Gogabeel Lake:
- Overview: An oxbow lake situated in Katihar district, Bihar, within the Trans-Gangetic Plains, formed between the Ganga and Mahananda rivers.
- Hydrological Nature: Connects to both rivers during monsoon floods, functioning as a dynamic floodplain wetland.
- Legal Status: Declared Biharâs first community reserve, co-managed by local communities and forest authorities.
- Ecological Significance: Serves as a key habitat for migratory birds and a breeding site for vulnerable species such as the Lesser Adjutant Stork, Black-necked Stork, and Smooth-coated Otter.
- Biodiversity: Hosts 90+ bird species (including 30 migratory), wetland flora, and fish species like Helicopter Catfish (Wallago attu).
- Ecosystem Services: Provides flood mitigation, groundwater recharge, carbon storage, and climate regulation, contributing to the Gangetic ecosystemâs stability.
- Cultural Linkages: Integral to local festivals like Sirva, Adra, and Chhath, symbolising peopleânature harmony in rural Bihar.
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
A recent theoretical study (accepted in Nuclear Physics B, August 2025) introduces the idea of âblack hole morselsâ, tiny, asteroid-mass micro-black holes possibly formed during black hole mergers.
What are Gamma-Ray Bursts (GRBs)?
- Overview: They are extremely energetic cosmic explosions that emit intense bursts of gamma radiation, the highest-energy form of electromagnetic waves.
- Discovery: First detected in the late 1960s by U.S. Vela satellites, initially built to monitor nuclear tests.
- Duration-Based Classification:
- Short GRBs: Lasting <2 seconds, typically formed by merging neutron stars or neutron starsâblack hole collisions.
- Long GRBs: Lasting 2â1000 seconds, arising from supernova collapses of massive stars (collapsars).
- Energy Output: A single GRB can release as much energy in seconds as the Sun emits over its entire lifetime (~10â”Âčâ10â”⎠ergs).
- Afterglow: Follows the main burst in X-ray, optical, and radio wavelengths, allowing astronomers to study host galaxies and distances.
|
Hypothesis about Black Hole âMorselsâ:
- Study Context: Research proposes the existence of âblack hole morselsâ, tiny remnants formed during black hole mergers.
- Formation Mechanism: During merger, spacetime âpinches offâ into ultra-dense pockets, creating micro-black holes or morsels that may later evaporate.
- Emissions: These morsels are predicted to release gamma rays and high-energy particles via Hawking radiation, providing a possible observational signature of quantum gravity.
- Scientific Goal: The hypothesis aims to bridge general relativity and quantum mechanics, offering a natural test case for quantum spacetime dynamics.
What are Black Hole Morsels?
- Overview: Hypothetical microâblack holes formed as fragments during black hole mergers under extreme gravitational stress.
- Origin: Result from pinched-off regions of spacetime during coalescence of two black holes.
- Mass & Size: Much smaller than parent black holes, roughly asteroid-scale mass but with extreme density.
- Temperature & Radiation: Extremely hot, emitting intense Hawking radiation– photons, neutrinos, and high-energy particles.
- Lifetime: Short-lived â ranging from milliseconds to years, depending on initial mass.
- Detectability: Expected to produce isotropic gamma-ray bursts, unlike directional jets of typical GRBs.
- Observation Instruments: Potential detection via HESS (Namibia), HAWC (Mexico), LHAASO (China), and Fermi Space Telescope (USA).
Scientific Significance:
- Quantum Gravity Evidence: Detection would confirm that gravity behaves quantum mechanically at microscopic scales.
- Spacetime Structure: Provides direct insight into the quantum texture of spacetime near black hole singularities.
- Cosmic Accelerator Analogy: Morsels could probe energy scales far beyond the LHC, acting as natural high-energy laboratories.
- Current Status: None observed yet, but existing gamma-ray data are being analysed to set upper mass limits and refine the model.
| [UPSC 2019] Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘Blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
Options: (a) Higgs boson particles were detected.
(b) Gravitational waves were detected.*
(c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
(d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
The Umngot River, celebrated for its crystal-clear waters and tourist appeal at Dawki and Shnongpdeng, has turned murky and opaque.
About Umngot River:
- Location: Flows through West Jaintia Hills district, Meghalaya, close to the IndiaâBangladesh border.
- Origin: Arises from the Jaintia Hills, traversing limestone-rich terrain that naturally filters impurities and maintains clarity.
- Distinct Appearance: Known for its crystal-clear waters that create the illusion of boats floating on air, earning it global recognition.
- Length & Course: Flows southward to Dawki town, where it merges with Bangladeshâs Piyain River.
- Ecological Features: Possesses high dissolved oxygen levels, preventing algal growth and supporting diverse aquatic biodiversity.
- Tourism Hub: Popular at Dawki and Shnongpdeng for boating, fishing, camping, and eco-tourism, drawing thousands of visitors annually.
- Infrastructure Landmark: The Dawki Suspension Bridge (1932) is a heritage structure spanning the river and serving as a trade route link.
- Economic Role: Sustains cross-border trade, local fishing, and tourism-driven livelihoods vital to Meghalayaâs rural economy.
- Cultural Boundary: Serves as a natural divider between Ri Pnar (Jaintia Hills) and Hima Khyrim (Khasi Hills).
Cause of Discoloration:
- Primary Cause: Linked to ShillongâDawki road-widening project upgrading it to a two-lane highway with a 400 m bridge at Dawki.
- Pollution Source: Hill-cutting, excavation, and soil dumping along sites near Umtyngar and Dawki caused heavy sediment runoff.
- Inspection Findings: The Meghalaya State Pollution Control Board (MSPCB) detected uncontained debris and sliding soil entering the river, reducing water transparency.
| [UPSC 2021] Consider the following rivers:
1. Brahmani 2. Nagavali 3. Subarnarekha 4. Vamsadhara
Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4* (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
For the first time since its 1962 revival (except during COVID-19), Delhiâs interfaith festival Phool Walon Ki Sair will not be held this year.
About âPhool Walon Ki Sairâ Festival:
- Timing: Held annually post-monsoon (SeptemberâNovember), attracting large participation from artisans, locals, and cultural groups.
- Meaning: Literally translates to âProcession of the Florists,â celebrated annually in Mehrauli, Delhi.
- Origin: Began in 1811 under Mughal Emperor Akbar Shah II when Begum Mumtaz Mahal offered floral chadars at both the Yogmaya Temple and the dargah of Khwaja Bakhtiar Kaki.
- Symbolism: Represents HinduâMuslim unity, interfaith respect, and religious harmony in Delhiâs cultural fabric.
- Historical Timeline:
- Banned by the British (1942) during the freedom movement.
- Revived in 1962 by then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru as a symbol of secular revivalism.
- Celebrations: Include floral processions, decorative pankhas (fans), qawwali, folk dances, and traditional fairs.
Cultural Significance:
- GangaâJamuni Tehzeeb: Embodies Delhiâs composite Indo-Islamic culture, celebrating shared heritage and pluralism.
- Interfaith Harmony: Promotes unity, peace, and mutual respect between communities.
- Secular Ethos: Serves as a living symbol of Indian secularism, transcending religious and social boundaries.
| [UPSC 2017] Consider the following pairs:
Traditions: Communities
1. Chaliha Sahib Festival- Sindhis 2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra- Gonds 3. Wari-Warkari- Santhals
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Options: (a) 1 only * (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
Why in the News?
In 2025, foreign investors have invested only about âč69,000 crore ($7.8 billion) nearly half than expected, into Indian government bonds, even though the rules were made simpler and more flexible under the Fully Accessible Route (FAR) to attract more investment.
What is Fully Accessible Route (FAR)?
- Overview: A special investment framework launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in March 2020 to attract foreign investment in Indian government securities (G-secs).
- Purpose: Aims to liberalise Indiaâs debt market, enhance foreign participation, and integrate it with global financial systems.
- Eligible Investors: Open to Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs), Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), and Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs) without investment caps.
- Key Feature: Permits unlimited foreign investment in designated government bonds with free buyâsell access and no quantitative ceiling.
- Liquidity & Integration: Designed to improve bond market depth, diversify funding sources, and boost Indiaâs visibility in global debt indices.
- Repatriation Freedom: Allows investors to repatriate capital and profits freely to their home countries.
- Global Milestone: In June 2024, JP Morgan included 29 Indian G-secs under FAR in its Emerging Market Bond Index (EMBI), marking Indiaâs debut in major global bond benchmarks.
Comparison with Other Routes:
- Medium Term Framework (MTF): Allows foreign investment in G-secs but with limits and conditions on exposure and tenure.
- Voluntary Retention Route (VRR): Permits FPIs to invest in G-secs provided they retain investments for a minimum period, ensuring stable long-term inflows.
Complementary Function: FAR, MTF, and VRR operate together, providing flexibility in investment terms and balancing market stability with foreign access. |
Why were higher inflows expected?
- Projected Inflows: Index inclusion in 2024â25 was expected to attract $20â25 billion from global institutional and index-tracking investors.
- Attractiveness Factors: Indiaâs 7% stable yields, macroeconomic strength, and favourable riskâreturn ratio made it a promising destination for long-term capital.
- Actual Outcome: Only $10.7 billion flowed in during 2024-25: well below expectations.
- Key Reasons:
- Global monetary uncertainty: investors awaited clarity on the US Federal Reserveâs rate policy.
- Domestic caution: RBI removed 14- and 30-year bonds from FAR in 2024 to reduce volatility.
- Geopolitical tensions and FPI withdrawals from equities reduced investor appetite.
- Significance: Despite lower inflows, FAR remains a structural reform strengthening Indiaâs position as a globally accessible and competitive bond market.
| [UPSC 2024] Consider the following statements:
1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only* |
Get an IAS/IPS ranker as your 1: 1 personal mentor for UPSC 2024
Attend Now
