Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Arctic Tundra
Why in the News?
- The Arctic Tundra, a frozen treeless biome, has traditionally served as a carbon sink, storing vast amounts of carbon for thousands of years.
- However, recent changes in this ecosystem are turning it into a source of greenhouse gases (GHGs), primarily carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4) according to National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).
What is Arctic Tundra?
- Arctic Tundra is cold, treeless biome located in the northernmost regions of Earth, primarily within the Arctic Circle.
- Climate:
- Experiences long, harsh winters and short, cool summers.
- Temperatures range from -28°C in winter to 3°C in summer.
- Ground is permanently frozen, restricting plant root growth and shaping the ecosystem.
- Experiences 24-hour daylight in summer and long polar nights in winter.
- Biodiversity and Vegetation:
-
- Limited to low-growing vegetation like mosses, lichens, grasses, and small shrubs, adapted to short growing seasons.
- Hosts animals like Arctic foxes, polar bears, caribou, and migratory birds, though overall biodiversity is low.
- Adaptations:
- Animals: Thick fur and fat layers in species like polar bears to survive extreme cold.
- Plants: Shallow roots for quick nutrient absorption during short summers.
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How does the Arctic Tundra store Carbon?
- The Arctic tundra stores carbon primarily through a process where plants absorb carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere via photosynthesis.
- This carbon gets trapped in the soil and organic matter (plants and animals) that accumulate over time.
- The cold Arctic climate slows the decomposition of plant and animal remains, meaning that organic materials, including carbon, remain locked in the permafrost.
- This permafrost acts as a natural storage system, preventing CO2 from being released back into the atmosphere.
- Scientists estimate that the Arctic tundra holds about 1.6 trillion metric tonnes of carbon, which is roughly double the amount of carbon in the Earth’s atmosphere.
Why is the Arctic Tundra emitting more carbon than absorbing it?
- Rising temperatures in the Arctic are causing the permafrost to thaw at an accelerated rate.
- When permafrost thaws, microbes in the soil become active, breaking down the organic material trapped in the frozen ground, which results in the release of carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4), two potent greenhouse gases.
- The Arctic has been warming at a rate four times faster than the global average.
- 2024 was the second-warmest year on record for the region, contributing significantly to the thawing of the permafrost.
- Wildfires in the Arctic have become more frequent and intense, further accelerating the thawing of permafrost. Wildfire smoke also contributes to the release of greenhouse gases.
- Between 2001 and 2020, the combination of rising temperatures and increased wildfires led to the Arctic tundra releasing more carbon than it absorbed, marking a significant shift in its role from a carbon sink to a carbon emitter.
PYQ:
[2012] Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders. The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
(a) African Savanna
(b) Central Asian Steppe
(c) North American Prairie
(d) Siberian Tundra |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Features of the HOMW Rules
Why in the News?
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) has provided details of the Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016 to the Lok Sabha.
About Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2016:
| Details |
Notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Objective: Ensure safe storage, treatment, and disposal of hazardous wastes, minimizing harm to the environment and human health. |
| Features of the Rules |
Import Regulations:
1. Import of hazardous waste listed in Part A of Schedule III is permitted for recycling, recovery, reuse, and co-processing.
2. Import for disposal is strictly prohibited in India.
3. Import is allowed only for actual users (industries) with permission from MoEF&CC and a license from DGFT.
Illegal Imports:
1. Any import of hazardous waste without prior permission from MoEF&CC is illegal.
2. Legal action can be taken under the Indian Ports Act, 1908 or the Customs Act, 1962.
3. Ports and Customs Authorities are responsible for monitoring and taking action against illegal imports.
Import/Export of Waste:
1. No hazardous waste can be imported for final disposal into India.
2. The rules specify procedures for importing and exporting hazardous waste.
3. Exemptions are made for the export of silk waste and defective electrical/electronic components.
Wastes Prohibited for Import:
1. Waste edible fats and oils (animal/vegetable origin)
2. Household waste
3. Critical care medical equipment
4. Tyres for direct re-use
5. Plastic waste, including PET bottles
6. Electrical and electronic scrap
7. Other chemical wastes, especially in solvent form
Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities:
1. The rules provide clear directions on how treatment, storage, and disposal facilities should be established.
2. SPCBs must approve layout of these facilities. |
| Powers and Functions of State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) |
- Duties Assigned to State Governments: Allocate space for recycling and pre-processing of hazardous waste, and implement skill development activities for worker safety.
- Annual Reports: State governments must submit reports on hazardous waste management to MoEFCC. SPCBs must submit an annual inventory of hazardous waste management activities to ensure compliance
- Monitoring and Compliance: SPCBs monitor adherence to rules and take action against violations.
- Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities: SPCBs approve and monitor facilities for hazardous waste treatment, storage, and disposal.
|
PYQ:
[2019] As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory on the part of the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Green Cover around Coalfields
Why in the News?
Coal & Lignite Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) such as Coal India Limited (CIL), NLC India Limited (NLCIL), and Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL) have implemented various innovative plantation techniques in addition to traditional methods to increase green cover in and around coalfields.
Achievements in Green Cover Creation:
- Coal & Lignite PSUs have successfully created green cover on 10,942 hectares of land as part of their plantation and bio-reclamation efforts over the last 5 years.
- The efforts are primarily focused on coal and lignite mining areas and surrounding regions.
Guidelines and EC Conditions
- The MoEF&CC sets out specific and general conditions for plantation in the Environmental Clearance (EC) of coal mining projects.
- Plantations are carried out on:
- Reclaimed degraded forest areas
- Non-forest lands and overburden dumps to ensure proper reclamation and regeneration of green cover.
- Under the guidance of the Ministry of Coal, 16 Eco-parks/Mine Tourism sites have been established over the last 5 years.
- These sites aim to:
- Promote environmental regeneration
- Encourage tourism and recreational activities in coal mining areas, boosting local economies and raising environmental awareness.
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Innovative techniques for enhancing Green Cover around Coalfields
- Three-tier plantation: A method involving planting different species at varying heights to create a layered canopy for enhanced biodiversity.
- Seed ball plantation: Seeds are encased in soil and compost balls and thrown in barren or degraded areas to promote natural growth.
- Miyawaki plantation: A high-density plantation technique aimed at creating a dense, self-sustaining forest in a shorter period.
- High-tech cultivation: Utilizing modern agricultural techniques for efficient plantation and maintenance.
- Bamboo plantation: Focusing on bamboo as a fast-growing and environmentally beneficial plant for reclamation.
- Drip irrigation on overburden dumps: Use of efficient water management systems to promote plantation on areas like overburden dumps.
PYQ:
[2019] Consider the following statements:
- As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
- People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Uniform Civil Code (UCC)
Why in the News?
Prime Minister renewed his call for a nationwide Uniform Civil Code (UCC), citing the views of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and KM Munshi from the Constituent Assembly discussions.
What is Uniform Civil Code (UCC)?
- UCC is envisioned under Article 44 of the Constitution, which calls for securing a UCC for all citizens throughout India.
- Personal law subjects, including marriage, divorce, and inheritance, fall under the Concurrent List.
- Hindu personal laws: Also applicable to Sikhs, Jains, and Buddhists as well, were codified by Parliament in 1956, encompassing: The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 The Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956.
- Muslim personal matters are governed by the Shariat law of 1937.
- The state refrains from interfering, and religious authorities decide based on Quran and Hadith.
- UCC measures in India:
- Special Marriage Act, 1954: Permits civil marriage for any citizen, regardless of religion, allowing marriage outside religious customs.
- Shah Bano Case 1985: Supreme Court ruled in favour of Shah Bano for maintenance under Section 125 of CrPC, advocating for a UCC.
- Sarla Mudgal Judgement 1995 and Paulo Coutinho vs Maria Luiza Valentina Pereira case 2019: Supreme Court reiterated the need for implementing the UCC, urging the government to enact it.
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What KM Munshi Said on UCC
- Support for UCC: During the Constituent Assembly debate on November 23, 1948, KM Munshi advocated for the UCC. He rejected the argument that it would be tyrannical towards minorities.
- Counterarguments: Munshi pointed out that advanced Muslim countries did not regard personal law as untouchable and had implemented civil codes.
- Equality for Women: He emphasized that without a UCC, women’s rights in personal matters (like inheritance and succession) would remain unequal, particularly in Hindu law, which discriminated against women.
- National Unity: Munshi linked UCC with national unity, stating that religion should be restricted to spiritual spheres and that social and civil matters should be regulated uniformly for the progress of the nation.
What Ambedkar Said on UCC
- Support for UCC: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, in the debate, did not delve into the merits or demerits of a UCC but strongly supported Article 35 (which was later renumbered as Article 44 of the Constitution of India), which called for securing a uniform civil code for citizens.
- Challenging Religious Personal Laws: He criticized the view that Muslim personal law was immutable and noted that regions like the North-West Frontier Province (pre-independence) followed Hindu law for issues like succession.
- State Power and Personal Law: He argued that religion should not govern personal laws and that the State had the right to legislate and reform social systems to address inequities and discriminations in personal laws.
What happened at the end of the Debate?
- Passage of Article 35: After discussions, Article 35 was passed by the Constituent Assembly. This article laid down the directive principle that the State shall endeavor to secure a UCC for the citizens of India.
- Renumbering to Article 44: Later, this article was renumbered as Article 44 in the Indian Constitution. It continues to remain a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP), guiding future policies on personal laws and advocating for uniformity in civil matters across religious communities.
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Firefly Sparkle Galaxy
Why in the News?
James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) has identified a rare galaxy, Firefly Sparkle, offering a unique look into early galaxy formation.
About Galaxy Firefly Sparkle:
| Details |
- Discovered by NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope (JWST), dating back to 600 million years after Big Bang.
- It is one of the earliest low-mass galaxies discovered, providing rare insights into early galaxy formation.
- It is named so because its star clusters shine brightly, resembling fireflies in JWST’s images.
- It is part of a group of galaxies from the early universe, offering clues about how galaxies like the Milky Way may have formed.
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| Features of the Galaxy |
- Mass equal to 10 million suns, making it a relatively low-mass galaxy.
- Visible portion spans just 1,000 light-years, much smaller than the Milky Way’s 100,000 light-years.
- Contains 10 distinct star clusters, each representing different stages of star formation.
- Accompanied by 2 smaller galaxies, Firefly-Best Friend and Firefly-New Best Friend.
- Elongated raindrop shape, indicating it is still forming.
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| Observational Studies by JWST |
- Used gravitational lensing to magnify the galaxy’s light by 16-26 times, providing detailed observations.
- JWST observed varied stages of star formation, with younger stars appearing blue and older stars red.
- It is forming piece by piece, with each star cluster representing a phase of formation.
- These observations help refine theories on galaxy formation and star cluster dynamics in the young universe.
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PYQ:
[2022] Launched on 25th December, 2021, James Webb Space Telescope has been much in the news since then. What are its unique features which make it superior to its predecessor Space Telescopes? What are the key goals of this mission? What potential benefits does it hold for the human race?
[2012] Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe?
- Detection of microwaves in space
- Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
- Movement of asteroids in space
- Occurrence of supernova explosions in space
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above can be cited as evidence |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Bharatmala Pariyojana
Why in the News?
- Bharatmala Pariyojana is a comprehensive road development project initiated by the Government of India to improve connectivity and reduce logistics costs across the country.
- The total length covered under the scheme is 34,800 km, with an estimated cost of Rs. 5.35 lakh crore.
About Bharatmala Pariyojana
| Details |
- Launched to improve road connectivity, enhance freight/passenger movement, and reduce logistics costs.
- First-phase launched in 2017, covering 34,800 km of roads, with an estimated cost of Rs. 5.35 lakh crore.
- Long-term goals to be completed in phases over several years.
Key Components:
- Economic Corridors & Efficiency: Focus on developing 26,000 km of roads and improving the Golden Quadrilateral and North-South/East-West Corridors.
- Inter-State & Feeder Routes: 8,000 km of interstate corridors and 7,500 km feeder routes.
- Border & International Roads: 2,000 km of roads for trade and security.
- Coastal & Port Connectivity: 2,000 km of roads for better port connectivity.
- Green-Field Expressways: New expressways to reduce congestion.
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| Aims and Objectives |
- 50 national corridors to be constructed, reducing freight traffic congestion and facilitating movement on national highways.
- 550 districts to be connected nationwide, up from the current 300 districts linked with national highways.
- Logistic Performance Index (LPI) to be introduced, helping identify trade and logistics challenges and opportunities.
- Expected to increase employment opportunities for people.
|
| Funding and Implementation |
- Central Road and Infrastructure Fund (CRF): Created under the Central Road Fund Act, 2000, this non-lapsable fund is used for building and upgrading national highways and other infrastructure, funded through cess on petrol and diesel.
- Monetization of National Highways: The monetization of existing infrastructure assets is used as a source of funding.
- Private Sector Investment: Bharatmala invites participation from the private sector for funding and execution of certain projects.
- Additional Budgetary Support: Funds from additional budgetary allocations by the central government also support the project.
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Do you know?
- Sagarmala Programme approved in 2015, focuses on port infrastructure development along the 7,516-km coastline through modernisation, mechanisation, and computerisation.
- Parvatmala (National Ropeways Development Programme) announced in Union Budget 2022-23 to improve connectivity in hilly areas, under MORTH.
-
- Implemented in PPP mode as an ecologically sustainable alternative to conventional roads in challenging terrains.
- Initial regions: Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Jammu & Kashmir, and North Eastern states.
|
PYQ:
[2017] With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
- It has a corpus of Rs 4,00,000 crore at present.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: De-glaciation of Arctic
Why in the News?
A recent study suggests that the Arctic Ocean may experience its first ice-free day—where sea ice falls below one million square kilometres—by 2030, or even sooner.
Key Highlights of the Study
- First Ice-Free Day Prediction: The study predicts that the Arctic Ocean could experience its first ice-free day (less than one million square kilometres of sea ice) by 2030, or even sooner, depending on climatic conditions.
- Simulations and Models:
- 11 different climate models were used to run 366 simulations from 2023 to 2100 to assess the future of Arctic sea ice.
- Most simulations predict the ice-free day within 7 to 20 years, with some models suggesting it could happen as early as September 2027.
- Conditions for Ice-Free Day: The occurrence of an ice-free day will depend on a combination of unusually warm seasons and stormy weather, which accelerates the melting of the sea ice.
- Impact on Sea Ice: Once the first ice-free day occurs, it could be followed by an ice-free period lasting between 11 to 53 days, potentially leading to the first ice-free month.
How does the Arctic Tundra store Carbon?
- The Arctic tundra stores carbon primarily through a process where plants absorb carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere via photosynthesis.
- This carbon gets trapped in the soil and organic matter (plants and animals) that accumulate over time.
- The cold Arctic climate slows the decomposition of plant and animal remains, meaning that organic materials, including carbon, remain locked in the permafrost.
- This permafrost acts as a natural storage system, preventing CO2 from being released back into the atmosphere.
- Scientists estimate that the Arctic tundra holds about 1.6 trillion metric tonnes of carbon, which is roughly double the amount of carbon in the Earth’s atmosphere.
Why is the Arctic Tundra emitting more carbon than absorbing it?
- Rising temperatures in the Arctic are causing the permafrost to thaw at an accelerated rate.
- When permafrost thaws, microbes in the soil become active, breaking down the organic material trapped in the frozen ground, which results in the release of carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4), two potent greenhouse gases.
- The Arctic has been warming at a rate four times faster than the global average.
- 2024 was the second-warmest year on record for the region, contributing significantly to the thawing of the permafrost.
- Wildfires in the Arctic have become more frequent and intense, further accelerating the thawing of permafrost. Wildfire smoke also contributes to the release of greenhouse gases.
- Between 2001 and 2020, the combination of rising temperatures and increased wildfires led to the Arctic tundra releasing more carbon than it absorbed, marking a significant shift in its role from a carbon sink to a carbon emitter.
Why does it matter?
- Climate Change Acceleration: The loss of sea ice will amplify the Albedo effect, causing the Arctic region to absorb more sunlight and heat, which will accelerate global warming and trigger extreme weather events in mid-latitudes.
- Rising Sea Levels: The loss of Arctic ice contributes to sea level rise, with potential long-term impacts on coastal populations and ecosystems, particularly if the Greenland ice sheet melts completely, which could raise sea levels by 6 meters.
- Ecosystem and Species Impact: The melting of sea ice will threaten species that rely on the ice for habitat, such as polar bears, walruses, and reindeer, disrupting the Arctic food chain.
- Human and Infrastructure Threats: Arctic communities and their infrastructure are at risk as the region warms at four times the global average, threatening the livelihoods of people living in these areas.
Back2Basics: Albedo Effect
- It refers to the measure of how much sunlight is reflected by a surface.
- It is expressed as a percentage; a surface with a high albedo reflects more sunlight, while a surface with a low albedo absorbs more.
- Light-colored surfaces like ice and snow have high albedo, reflecting most of the sunlight, whereas dark surfaces like oceans and forests have low albedo, absorbing more heat.
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PYQ:
[2022] Discuss global warming and mention its effects on the global climate. Explain the control measures to bring down the level of greenhouse gases which cause global warming, in the light of the Kyoto Protocol, 1997.
[2012] The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere because it absorbs:
(a) the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
(b) the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
(c) all the solar radiations
(d) the infrared part of the solar radiation |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: National Mental Health Programme
Why in the News?
The National Mental Health Programme (NMHP) is a flagship initiative by the Government of India aimed at addressing the growing mental health challenges in the country.
About National Mental Health Programme (NMHP):
| Details |
Initiated in 1982 and restructured in 2003, the NMHP aims to modernize mental health facilities and upgrade psychiatric wings in medical institutions. |
| Features and Signficance |
The program has 3 components:
1. Treatment of mentally ill
2. Rehabilitation
3. Prevention and promotion of positive mental health. |
| Aims and Objectives |
- Prevention and treatment of mental and neurological disorders and their associated disabilities.
- Use of mental health technology to improve general health services.
- Application of mental health principles in total national development to improve quality of life.
|
| Structural Mandate |
The District Mental Health Programme (DMHP), based on the Bellary Model, focuses on community mental health services at the primary healthcare level, spanning 716 districts.
DMHP provides outpatient services, counselling, psycho-social interventions, and support for severe mental disorders.
- Priority given to mental morbidity and treatment.
- Primary healthcare services at village and sub-center levels.
- Services at the Primary Health Center (PHC) and District Hospital levels.
- Facilities at Mental Hospitals and Teaching Psychiatric Units.
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Back2Basics: The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017
- It replaced the Mental Healthcare Act, 1987, which was criticized for failing to recognize the rights of mentally ill individuals.
- It ensures the Right to Access to Healthcare and aims to ensure the rights and dignity of those with mental illness.
- It decriminalized suicide, stating that attempts are presumed to be under severe stress and shall not be punished.
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Nicaragua and its location
Why in the News?
- Indian and Nicaragua has signed an umbrella agreement on Quick Impact Projects (QIPs).
- The agreement aims at socio-economic development by implementing QIPs in Nicaragua, which will directly benefit local communities.
About Nicaragua: Quick Facts
- Nicaragua is located in Central America, bordered by Honduras to the north, Costa Rica to the south, the Pacific Ocean to the west, and the Caribbean Sea to the east.
- The capital of Nicaragua is Managua; official language spoken in Nicaragua is Spanish; currency is the Nicaraguan córdoba (NIO).
- Nicaragua operates as a unitary presidential republic.
- The country’s economy is primarily based on agriculture, including coffee, bananas, and sugar, along with manufacturing and mining.
Geographical Features:
- Nicaragua’s topography is predominantly mountainous in the interior, with lowland plains along its Pacific and Caribbean coasts.
- The country is home to over 20 volcanoes, with active ones such as Masaya and San Cristóbal.
- The largest lake in Nicaragua is Lake Cocibolca, also known as Lake Nicaragua, which is one of the largest lakes in Latin America.
- Nicaragua is also known for its significant rivers, including the San Juan River, which flows into the Caribbean Sea, and the Río Coco, the longest river in Central America.
India- Nicaragua Relations:
- Diplomatic relations were established in March 1983, and the Indian Embassy in Panama is concurrently accredited to Nicaragua.
- Nicaragua’s embassy in India was closed in 1990, and currently, Nicaragua is represented in India through its Embassy in Tokyo.
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What are Quick Impact Projects (QIPs)?
- QIPs are initiatives designed to deliver rapid and visible benefits to local communities, especially in areas with critical infrastructure and social development needs.
- These projects are often implemented in a short time frame.
- They are focused on addressing urgent and immediate issues that can have a significant positive impact on the community.
- The term is commonly used by organizations like the UNHCR to describe such initiatives in crisis or displacement situations.
- Examples of QIPs may include:
- Building roads in remote areas to improve connectivity.
- Establishing community centers that serve as hubs for local services.
- Improving healthcare facilities with basic medical equipment and services.
- Upgrading educational infrastructure by building schools or providing learning materials.
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Green Steel Taxonomy and its features
Why in the News?
The Ministry of Steel unveiled the world’s first Taxonomy of Green Steel, setting a benchmark for decarbonizing the steel industry.
About the Green Steel Taxonomy:
| What is it? |
- A formal framework introduced by India to define and promote the production of steel with reduced carbon emissions.
- It sets clear standards for what constitutes green steel, aiming to help the Indian steel sector transition to low-carbon production methods.
- The taxonomy defines greenness percentages based on the steel plant’s carbon emission intensity.
- Seeks to ensure that production aligns with India’s goal of net-zero emissions by 2070.
|
| Key Features |
- Emissions Threshold: Green Steel is defined based on emissions intensity, with steel plants needing to keep emissions below 2.2 tCO2 per tonne of finished steel (tfs) to be classified as green.
-
- Five-star: Emission intensity lower than 1.6 t-CO2e/tfs.
- Four-star: Emission intensity between 1.6 and 2.0 t-CO2e/tfs.
- Three-star: Emission intensity between 2.0 and 2.2 t-CO2e/tfs.
- Steel exceeding 2.2 t-CO2e/tfs does not qualify as green steel.
- Emissions Scope: Includes Scope 1, Scope 2, and limited Scope 3 emissions, covering production, agglomeration, beneficiation, and emissions from raw materials and intermediates.
- Certification: NISST will oversee Measurement, Reporting, and Verification (MRV), issuing greenness certificates and star ratings annually.
- Review Period: The thresholds for green ratings will be reviewed every 3 years.
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| Significance |
- Environmental Sustainability: Aims to reduce carbon footprint in line with national climate goals.
- Market Creation: Promotes innovation in low-carbon steel products.
- Global Competitiveness: Ensures Indian steel meets international sustainability standards.
- Guidance for Industry: Encourages adoption of greener practices.
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| Other Key Initiatives |
- National Mission on Green Steel (NMGS): Policy support, funding, and incentives for low-carbon technologies.
- Electrification of Steelmaking: Use of electric arc furnaces (EAF) to reduce reliance on coal.
- Hydrogen-based Steelmaking: Exploring hydrogen as a clean fuel.
- Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS): Technologies to capture CO2 emissions.
- Public Procurement Policies: Promotes green steel use in public infrastructure.
- Research and Development: Investments in low-carbon technologies and materials.
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PYQ:
[2020] Steel slag can be the material for which of the following
1. Construction of base road
2. Improvement of agricultural soil
3. Production of cement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: CWC; Important highlights of the report
Why in the News?
- The Central Water Commission (CWC) recently released its study titled ‘Assessment of Water Resources of India, 2024.
- It estimated India’s average annual water availability from 1985 to 2023 at 2,115.95 billion cubic meters (BCM).
Key Highlights of CWC’s ‘Assessment of Water Resources of India 2024’ Report:
- Total Water Availability: India’s average annual water availability between 1985 and 2023 is estimated at 2,115.95 billion cubic meters (BCM).
- Top 3 Basins in (annual water availability):
- Brahmaputra Basin: 592.32 BCM
- Ganga Basin: 581.75 BCM
- Godavari Basin: 129.17 BCM
- Bottom 3 Basins in (annual water availability):
- Sabarmati Basin: 9.87 BCM
- Pennar Basin: 10.42 BCM
- Mahi Basin: 13.03 BCM
- Comparison to Previous Assessment (2019):
- The current figure of 2,115.95 BCM is higher than the 1,999.2 BCM estimated in 2019.
- The increase is due to the inclusion of Bhutan’s contribution to the Brahmaputra basin and Nepal’s contribution to the Ganga basin.
- Per Capita Water Availability:
- Based on the 2019 study: 1,486 cubic meters for the year 2021.
- For 2024, with the new data, the per capita availability is projected to be 1,513 cubic meters (based on a population of 1.398 billion).
- Despite the increase, India remains under water stress (less than 1,700 cubic meters per capita).
- Utilizable Water Resources:
- The CWC estimates utilizable surface water at 690 BCM out of the total 1,999.2 BCM.
- Smaller basins have a higher proportion of utilisable water compared to larger ones like the Brahmaputra sub-basin.
About the Central Water Commission (CWC):
- CWC was established in 1945 as the Central Waterways, Irrigation and Navigation Commission (CWINC) on the advice of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
- Operates under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation.
- A statutory advisory body for water resource development and management.
- Headquarters: New Delhi.
- Chairman serves as the Ex-Officio Secretary to the Government of India.
- Responsibilities include:
- Control, conservation, and utilization of water resources.
- Maintaining the National Register of Large Dams (NRLD).
- Conducting hydrological surveys.
- Handles surface water, while the Central Groundwater Board (CGWB) manages groundwater resources.
- Wings:
- Designs and Research (D&R) Wing.
- River Management (RM) Wing.
- Water Planning and Projects (WP&P) Wing.
|
PYQ:
[2020] Consider the following statements:
1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: DAE - Homi Bhabha Chair Scheme
Why in the News?
The DAE—Homi Bhabha Chair for Distinguished Scientists/Professors was launched in 2021 by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
About DAE – Homi Bhabha Chair Scheme
|
Details |
| Aims and Objectives |
- To recognize outstanding contributions by scientists, including retired professionals, in atomic energy and related technologies.
- Allow retired professionals to continue research aligned with the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
- Focus on research in sensitive atomic energy technologies, benefiting strategic sectors.
|
| Provisions and Features |
- Honorarium: Rs. 200,000 per month (capped at last drawn salary).
- Contingency Grant: Rs. 76,000 per year for secretarial assistance, telephone bills, etc.
- Equipment and Book Allowance: Rs. 1,25,000 for equipment and Rs. 10,000 for books.
- Transport Allowance: Fixed monthly transport allowance for those without an official vehicle.
|
| Structural Mandate and Implementation |
- Eligibility: Open to distinguished scientists, including retirees involved in critical atomic technologies.
- Tenure: 1 to 5 years, decided by a Selection Committee.
- Implementation: Administered by DAE, providing research support and necessary infrastructure.
|
| Present Challenges |
- Financial Constraints: Budget limitations can affect the scale of research.
- Integration of New Technologies: Adapting to the fast-changing technological landscape poses challenges.
- Coordination across Stakeholders: Bureaucratic delays and communication issues can arise.
|
Who was Homi Bhabha?
- Homi Jehangir Bhabha (1909–1966) was a pioneering Indian physicist and the father of India’s nuclear programme.
- He founded the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) in 1945 and the Atomic Energy Establishment, Trombay (later Bhabha Atomic Research Centre, BARC) in 1954.
- Bhabha formulated India’s three-stage nuclear power programme in the 1950s and emphasized nuclear power for military and energy purposes.
- He was the first Indian to receive the Adams Prize in 1942 and served as the President of the UN Conference on Peaceful Uses of Atomic Energy in 1955.
- Bhabha activated Apsara, Asia’s first research reactor, at BARC in 1956, and was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1954.
|
PYQ:
[2015] Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was given to which of the following?
(a) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
(b) Indian Institute of Science
(c) Indian Space Research Organization
(d) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Durgadi Fort
Why in the News?
- The Kalyan civil court ruled that Durgadi Fort is owned by the Maharashtra government, dismissing the claims of the Majlis-E-Mushawarat Trust.
- The Trust first filed its claim in 1976, arguing that the fort houses a mosque and an idgah (prayer hall) alongside a temple dedicated to Goddess Durga.
Key facts about Durgadi Fort:
| Historical Significance |
- It dates back to the 16th century, part of the Bijapur-based Adil Shahi Sultanate, located in Kalyan.
- Mentioned in British documents since 1570, housing a tomb, prayer place, and other structures.
- In 1760, after the Marathas captured Kalyan, they built a wooden temple dedicated to Durgadevi and renamed it Durgadi Killa.
- After the British took control in 1818, the temple ceased to function, and by 1876, the image of the goddess was stolen.
|
| Geographical Location |
- Located in Kalyan (Thane district), about 50 km northeast of Mumbai it is situated on elevated ground and offers scenic views over the Ulhas River.
|
| Cultural and Religious Impact |
- The fort had a significant religious impact on both Hindus and Muslims.
- It originally housed a mosque and was later modified to include a Durga temple by the Marathas.
- The fort has been a site of communal tensions, reflecting the complex intersection of religious identity and historical heritage in Maharashtra.
|
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Impeachment of Judges
Why in the News?
The Opposition in Rajya Sabha is preparing to move a motion for impeachment of Allahabad High Court Judge for his controversial remarks inciting communal hatred.
Impeachment Process for Judges in India:
| About |
- The process involves Parliament passing an address to the President to remove the judge.
- To pass the motion, two–thirds of the MPs present and voting in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha;
- Must approve it, with a majority of more than 50% of the total membership of each House.
|
| Key Constitutional Provisions |
- Article 124(4): The judge can only be removed by a Presidential order, passed after a majority vote in both Houses of Parliament.
- The vote must come from two-thirds of the members present and voting.
- Articles 218 of the Constitution extends the same rules to High Court judges.
- The impeachment process ensures judicial independence by maintaining a high bar for removal, limiting political influence.
|
| Grounds for Impeachment |
- A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be impeached on two grounds: “proved misbehaviour” or “incapacity” as per the Constitution of India.
- Further clarified in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, including:
- Misuse of office
- Grave offences that undermine the judge’s integrity
- Contravention of the provisions of the Constitution.
|
| What does the process entail? |
Procedure under the Judges Inquiry Act, 1968:
Initial Step: The impeachment motion must be signed by at least 100 MPs in the Lok Sabha and 50 MPs in the Rajya Sabha.
Committee Formation: Once the motion is introduced, the Speaker or Chairperson of the respective House forms a three-member inquiry committee:
- Headed by the Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court judge.
- The second member is usually a Chief Justice of any High Court.
- The third member is a distinguished jurist, appointed by the Speaker or Chairman.
Inquiry Process: The committee investigates the charges, cross-examines witnesses, and regulates its procedure.
The committee may also request a medical test if the charge relates to mental incapacity.
Outcome: If the committee finds the judge not guilty, the motion is dismissed. If found guilty, it will be reported back to the House for further action. |
Instances of Impeachment in India:
- 1993: Justice V Ramaswami (Supreme Court) faced impeachment proceedings on financial impropriety. The motion was unsuccessful despite a guilty finding.
- 2011: Justice Soumitra Sen (Calcutta High Court) was impeached for corruption but resigned before Lok Sabha could take up the matter.
- 2015: Justice S K Gangele (Madhya Pradesh High Court) faced impeachment on charges of sexual harassment, but the committee cleared him in 2017.
- 2015: Justice J B Pardiwala (Gujarat High Court) faced impeachment for controversial remarks about reservation but the motion was dropped after the judge expunged the remarks.
- 2017: Justice C V Nagarjuna (Andhra Pradesh & Telangana High Court) faced impeachment for financial misconduct and victimizing a Dalit judge, but the motion was not pursued.
|
PYQ:
[2019] Consider the following statements:
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Notifiable Diseases
Why in the News?
The Union Health Ministry has urged states to make snakebites a Notifiable Disease, meaning both private and public hospitals must report it to the government.
Snakebites Menace in India:
- Snakebites are a significant public health concern in India, with approximately 3 to 4 million cases reported annually.
- It causes an estimated 58,000 deaths every year, according to the 2020 Indian Million Death Study.
- States such as Bihar, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Rajasthan, and Gujarat report the highest number of snakebites.
- The National Action Plan for Prevention and Control of Snakebite Envenoming (NAPSE), launched by the government earlier in 2024, aims to halve snakebite deaths by 2030 and includes making snakebites notifiable.
|
What are Notifiable Diseases?
- Notifiable diseases are those that must be reported to the government for effective public health monitoring and management. These are typically:
- Infectious diseases likely to cause outbreaks.
- Diseases that result in deaths or require quick action to prevent wider transmission.
-
- According to WHO’s International Health Regulations, 1969, disease reporting is mandatory for global surveillance.
- The primary law governing notifiable diseases is the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897 which outlines the reporting requirements for diseases considered a public health threat.
- However, the specific list of notifiable diseases can vary across different states and is typically determined by the respective state governments under their individual public health acts.
- Common examples of notifiable diseases include tuberculosis, HIV, cholera, malaria, dengue, and hepatitis.
Why snakebite is considered a Notifiable Disease?
- Snakebites can cause severe health issues, including paralysis, fatal hemorrhages, and tissue damage, making it crucial for timely intervention.
- Victims need immediate antivenom treatment to prevent death and long-term effects.
- In 2009, the WHO added snakebite to its list of Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTD), acknowledging its widespread impact on public health.
- Making snakebites a notifiable disease will enhance surveillance, help track case numbers, and improve treatment strategies across the country.
- It will ensure the availability of adequate antivenoms in regions where snakebites are frequent.
- Medical staff will receive training to handle snakebite cases effectively, reducing mortality rates.
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Draft UGC Regulations, 2024
Why in the News?
- The University Grants Commission (UGC) released the Draft UGC (Minimum Standards of Instructions in the Award of UG and PG Degrees) 2024 to bring sweeping reforms in India’s higher education sector.
- The new regulations will apply to all Central, State, Private, and Deemed Universities across India.
Back2Basics: University Grants Commission (UGC)
- UGC was inaugurated in 1953 by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, then Minister of Education.
- it was established as a statutory body in November 1956 under the UGC Act 1956.
- The Sargeant Report (1944) recommended a University Grants Committee, established in 1945, initially handling all universities by 1947.
- Post-independence, the University Education Commission (1948) under Dr. S Radhakrishnan proposed reorganizing the committee along the lines of the UK’s University Grants Commission.
- A proposal to replace UGC with the Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) is under consideration.
- UGC handles:
-
- Providing funds to higher education institutions.
- Coordination, determination, and maintenance of academic standards.
|
About the Draft UGC Regulations, 2024:
| Aims and Objectives |
- To reform India’s higher education system.
- To introduce flexibility, multidisciplinary learning, and inclusivity in higher education while removing disciplinary rigidities.
|
| Key Provisions and Features |
- Biannual Admissions: Institutions can admit students twice a year (July/August and January/February).
- Multiple Entry and Exit: Students can enter or exit their programs multiple times, with continuous assessments, recognition of prior learning, and the possibility to pursue two programs at the same time.
- Flexibility for Students: Students can choose any discipline for UG and PG programs, irrespective of their background, subject to clearing entrance exams (e.g., CUET or university-specific exams).
- Minimum Attendance Requirement: Institutions will set the minimum attendance based on program-specific requirements and statutory approvals, in line with the NEP 2020.
- UG Degree Credits: At least 50% of credits must be earned in the major discipline for an undergraduate degree. The remaining 50% credits can be from skill courses, apprenticeships, or multidisciplinary subjects.
- Duration of Degrees: UG degrees can be completed in 3 to 4 years, depending on the course structure. PG degrees will typically take 1 to 2 years, though they can be longer or shorter based on the program.
|
| Accelerated and Extended Degree Programs: |
- ADP (Accelerated Degree Programs): Allows students to complete their degree in a shorter duration while covering the full curriculum.
- EDP (Extended Degree Programs): Extends the duration for students who need more time to complete the program.
- Up to 10% of the sanctioned intake can be earmarked for ADP. Students can choose ADP or EDP by the end of the first or second semester.
- ADP/EDP degrees will include a note specifying the adjusted duration, while ensuring the full academic content is covered.
- Postgraduate Eligibility: Students completing a four-year undergraduate degree (Hons./Research, BTech, BE) will be eligible for a two-year postgraduate program.
|
PYQ:
[2012] Which of the following provisions of the Constitution does India have a bearing on Education?
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Rural and Urban Local Bodies
- Fifth Schedule
- Sixth Schedule
- Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: New National Manuscripts Mission
Why in the News?
The Union Ministry of Culture is planning to revive and relaunch the National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM) and is considering the formation of an autonomous body to help preserve India’s ancient texts.
Why Center is re-evolving this scheme?
- Currently, the NMM operates as part of the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts.
- The new entity, expected to be named the National Manuscripts Authority, will likely function as an autonomous body under the Ministry of Tourism and Culture.
|
About the National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM):
| Aims and Objectives |
- To document, conserve, digitize, and disseminate India’s manuscript heritage.
- Set up over 100 Manuscripts Resource Centres and Manuscripts Conservation Centres across India.
- Manuscripts are often on materials like paper, bark, cloth, metal, or palm leaf, and are at least 75 years old, with significant scientific, historical, or aesthetic value.
- India has an estimated 10 million manuscripts covering various themes, languages, scripts, and illustrations.
- Manuscripts primarily contain knowledge content, unlike historical records.
- 80% of manuscripts are privately owned, limiting public availability.
|
|
| Structural Mandate |
- Formed in 2003 by the Ministry of Tourism and Culture.
- Managed by the National Archives of India.
- Currently operates as part of the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts.
|
| Features and Programs under the Mission |
- Documented metadata for 5.2 million manuscripts and digitized 300,000 titles, though only a third of them have been uploaded.
- Only 70,000 of the 130,000 manuscripts uploaded are accessible for viewing due to the absence of an access policy.
- Preventive and curative conservation of 9 crore folios has been conducted over 21 years.
|
PYQ:
[2008] Recently, the manuscripts of which one of the following have been included in the UNESCO’s Memory of World Register?
(a) Abhidhamma Pitaka
(b) Mahabharata
(c) Ramayana
(d) Rig-Veda |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: National Food Security Act, 2013
Why in the News?
The Supreme Court remarked that a long-term solution to food security issues is generating employment, while advocate Prashant Bhushan pointed out that the National Food Security Act (NFSA) still relies on 2011 census data.
About National Food Security Act, 2013:
|
Details |
| Launch |
- NFSA was signed into law on 12th September 2013, with retroactive effect from 5th July 2013.
- It aims to provide subsidized food grains to approximately 2/3rd of India’s population.
|
| Aims and Objectives |
- Provide subsidized food grains to 2/3rd of India’s population, covering about 75% of rural and 50% of urban areas.
- Converts food security programs into legal entitlements.
- Recognizes maternity entitlements for pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children.
|
| Structural Mandate |
- Central Government directs states to implement the provisions of the Act (Section 38).
- Mandates that the subsidized prices remain fixed for 3 years (with no revision yet).
- Ensures that eligible households have a legal right to food grains at subsidized rates under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).
|
| Features and Programs |
- PDS provides 5 kg/person/month: Rice (₹3/kg), Wheat (₹2/kg), Coarse grains (₹1/kg).
- Eldest woman (18 years or above) in the household is considered the head of the family for issuing ration cards.
- Provides free meals to pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children aged 6 months to 14 years under ICDS and mid-day meal schemes.
- Ensures pregnant and lactating women receive a ₹6,000 cash benefit, payable in installments.
- Midday Meal and ICDS are universal, and PDS reaches 75% of rural and 50% of urban populations.
- Priority Households get 5 kg of food grains per person per month, Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households get 35 kg per month.
|
Why it is still driven by figures from 2011 Census?
- Data Discrepancy: The 2021 census is getting extensions indiscriminately. It would have identified additional beneficiaries, possibly up to 10 crore more people.
- Ration Card Issue: Many migrant workers had still not received ration cards, despite several court orders.
- Logistical and Administrative Constraints: Updating census-based allocations requires substantial administrative coordination and a shift in policy across the Centre and States.
PYQ:
[2018] With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:
- The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
- The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
- Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: CCEA, ECTA
Why in the News?
A stocktake visit for the India-Australia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) recently concluded in New Delhi.
Key Takeaways from the Meet
- The discussions covered a wide range of critical aspects of the CECA, including:
- Trade in goods and services
- Mobility and agri-tech cooperation
- Market access modalities that align with India’s food security objectives.
- Both sides emphasized their shared commitment to ensuring that the CECA produces meaningful benefits and delivers a balanced outcome for both nations.
- The discussions have opened up pathways for enhanced collaboration in areas such as agricultural innovation, market access, and supply chain resilience.
About India-Australia CCEA Negotiations:
- CECA is a comprehensive trade agreement between India and Australia.
- More comprehensive than the earlier India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) , which is a limited trade agreement in force since December 2022.
- Negotiations for CECA began in May 2011, suspended in 2016, and re-launched in 2021 after concluding the ECTA.
- So far 10 rounds of negotiations have taken place.
Key Features of CECA:
- Covers goods, services, digital trade, government procurement, and Rules of Origin/Product-Specific Rules Schedule.
- New areas: competition policy, MSMEs, innovation, agri-tech, critical minerals, sports.
India-AU Trade Statistics:
- 2023-24:
- India’s imports from Australia fell by 15% to USD 16.15 billion.
- India’s exports to Australia rose by 14.23% to USD 7.94 billion.
Australia is India’s 13th largest export destination and 14th largest import source. |
|
PYQ:
[2017] ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and:
(a) European Union
(b) Gulf Cooperation Council
(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Good Governance Week
Why in the News?
“Prashasan Gaon Ki Ore” a nationwide campaign is launched by the Government of India, from December 19–24, 2024, as part of the 4th Good Governance Week.
About the Nationwide Campaign ‘Prashasan Gaon Ki Ore’
- It is a nationwide campaign to address public grievances and improve service delivery across rural and urban areas.
- It aims to strengthen governance at the grassroots level and bring effective solutions to the common people.
- It will be conducted in all districts, states, and union territories of India, with a focus on delivering timely solutions and improving the quality of services provided to citizens.
- Key objectives of the campaign include:
-
- Redressing Public Grievances: Ensuring that citizens’ complaints related to government services are resolved swiftly.
- Improving Service Delivery: Enhancing the efficiency of government services at the local level.
- Creating Awareness: Spreading knowledge about good governance practices and encouraging citizens to be proactive in using available services.
Key Observations from the Good Governance Index (GGI) 2022
- The GGI, 2022 evaluates 58 indicators across 10 governance sectors, such as agriculture and allied sectors, human resource development, public health, and law and order, among others. The key observations are as follows:
- Top Performers: Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Maharashtra ranked highest for good governance, excelling in public health, human resources, and economic governance.
- Service Delivery: States like Tamil Nadu and Kerala were praised for transparency, accountability, and citizen-focused policies, leading in service delivery.
- Agriculture & Rural Development: Uttar Pradesh and Bihar showed improvements in agriculture and rural development, aligning with the goals of Prashasan Gaon Ki Ore.
- Health & Education: Kerala and Tamil Nadu excelled in healthcare and education, with significant investments in infrastructure and public schemes.
- Sustainable Development: States like Sikkim emphasized environmental governance and sustainable development practices.
PYQ:
[2016] What do you understand by the terms ‘governance’, ‘good governance’ and ‘ethical governance’? (150 words) |
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