From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: K-Shape Recovery and its Features.
Why in the News?
India is experiencing a K-shaped recovery, with uneven growth patterns. This recovery is causing divergent inflation trends, with food and rural prices rising faster than other goods and services, and urban inflation.
What is K-Shaped Recovery?
A K-shaped recovery is an economic scenario in which different sectors, industries, or groups within an economy recover from a recession at markedly different rates.
This results in a divergent economic recovery pattern, with some parts of the economy experiencing robust growth and others continuing to struggle or even decline.
Features of K-Shaped Recovery
Divergent Recovery Rates: Certain sectors, such as technology and finance, may recover quickly and strongly. Other sectors, like hospitality and retail, may continue to struggle or recover much more slowly.
Income Inequality: High-income individuals and businesses may see significant improvements in their financial situations. Low-income individuals and small businesses may face prolonged financial hardships.
Sectoral Disparities: Industries that can adapt to remote work or have online business models (e.g., tech, e-commerce) thrive.
Indian Context: Consumption Patterns Post-Pandemic
High-End Goods Demand: Post-pandemic recovery is driven by increased demand for higher-end goods and services.
Mass Consumption Items: Lower-income households’ consumption of mass-market items remains relatively subdued.
Contrast Inflation Rate:
Rural vs. Urban Inflation: Rural inflation is outpacing urban inflation.
Food Prices vs. Other Goods: Food price inflation is higher compared to inflation in other goods and services.
Goods vs. Services Inflation: Goods inflation is higher than services inflation.
Input vs. Output Prices: Input prices are rising faster than output prices.
Policy Implications
Sensitive Policymaking: Government policies need to be sensitive to the impact on different groups affected by supply-side shocks.
Careful Planning: Reforms should be carefully explained and planned to mitigate adverse impacts.
PYQ:
[2021] Do you agree that the Indian economy has recently experienced V-shaped recovery? Give reasons in support of your answer.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: SVOM Satellite, Gamma Rays Bursts.
Why in the News?
The Space Variable Objects Monitor (SVOM) satellite jointly developed by China and France was launched from the Xichang Satellite Launch Center.
About Space Variable Objects Monitor (SVOM)
The SVOM is designed to study gamma-ray bursts (GRBs) resulting from explosive cosmic events like black hole births and neutron star collisions.
It is the first astronomy satellite developed jointly by China and France, following their collaboration on an oceanographic satellite launched in 2018.
Importance of Studying Gamma-Ray Bursts (GRBs)
GRBs are highly energetic bursts of gamma rays, lasting from less than a second to several minutes, occurring in distant parts of the universe.GRBs can erupt with a luminosity a quintillion times that of the Sun.
Types of GRBs:
Short GRBs: Result from collisions of neutron stars or a neutron star with a black hole, lasting less than two seconds, often followed by kilonovas.
Long GRBs: Result from the explosive deaths of massive stars, lasting two seconds or longer.
Mission and Objectives of SVOM
Primary Objective: To search for and study GRBs across the universe.
Data Collection: Measure and analyze electromagnetic radiation properties of GRBs.
Scientific Goals: Unlock mysteries about the universe’s evolution and gravitational waves, which are often associated with neutron star collisions.
Real-time Detection: Transmit GRB data to ground control within about one minute, enabling coordinated observations with ground-based stations globally.
Features and Capabilities of SVOM
Satellite Specifications: Weighs 930 kg and is equipped with four payloads, two developed by France and two by China.
French Contributions: ECLAIRs and MXT telescopes to detect and capture GRBs.
Chinese Contributions:
Gamma Ray Burst Monitor (GRM): Measures the spectrum of GRBs.
Visible Telescope (VT): Detects and observes visible emissions immediately after a GRB.
Orbit Details: Placed in a low Earth orbit at an altitude of 625 km, with an orbital period of 96 minutes.
Significance of SVOM’s Findings
Early Universe Insights: Aim to detect the earliest GRBs, providing information on the universe’s early stages and evolution.
Kilonova Detection: Capability to search for kilonovas, enhancing understanding of stellar evolution and the origin of heavy elements like gold and silver in the universe.
PYQ:
[2019] Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
(a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
(b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
(c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
(d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Wild Boars, Vermins under Schedule V.
Why in the News?
The Tamil Nadu government has approved the controlled hunting of wild boars causing distress to farmers near forest areas.
Presently, Wild boars are NOT listed as Vermin under the Schedule V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
About the Farmers’ Conflict Resolution Committee
The Committee includes representatives from the Departments of Forest, Revenue, Agriculture, and Horticulture, along with scientific experts and wildlife enthusiasts.
Objective: The committee was formed to study the impact of raids by elephants and wild pigs on agricultural crops.
Implementation Protocol:
Approval Process: The culling will require approval from a local three-member checking body.
Composition of the Checking Body: The body will include a forester or forest guard, the Village Administrative Officer, and the ward member.
Supervision: Culling operations must be conducted in the presence of these three members.
Zoning for Culling Operations
Areas adjacent to reserve forests will be divided into three zones:
Zone A: Within one kilometre from forest limits.
Zone B: One to five kilometres from forest limits.
Zone C: Beyond five kilometres from forest limits.
Restrictions: Shooting of wild pigs is prohibited within five kilometres of the reserve forest (Zones A and B).
Scientific Approach to Culling:
Scientific Methodology: The shooting of wild boars must adhere to a scientific approach, considering the intensity and frequency of conflict incidents.
Expert Concerns: Experts highlight the ecological role of wild boars and caution against indiscriminate killing.
About Indian Wild Boar
Details
Scientific Name
Sus scrofa cristatus
Habitat and Distribution
High grass, bushes, forests, high crops, dense forests, grasslands, scrublands, agricultural areas; Indian subcontinent, various altitudes from sea level to mountains
Gestation: around four months; Litter size: multiple piglets
Ecological Role
Seed dispersal aiding plant propagation;
Important prey species maintaining predator-prey balance in the ecosystem
Conservation Status
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule III
Proposed reclassification to Schedule V (vermin) due to agricultural damage.
Present Culling
Section 11-B (1) of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 allows the Chief Wildlife Warden to issue special orders to kill dangerous wild animals.
Back2Basics: Schedule III of WPA, 1972
Protection Level: Lesser degree of protection compared to Schedule I and II.
Prohibition: Hunting of these species is prohibited except under special circumstances defined by the Act.
Penalties: Violations related to these species attract penalties, though they are less stringent than those for higher schedules.
Species Listed in Schedule III: As per the latest available data, the following are examples of species listed under Schedule III of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972:
Chinkara (Gazella bennettii): Also known as the Indian Gazelle, found in various parts of India.
Blackbuck (Antilope cervicapra): A species of antelope native to India.
Blue Bull (Boselaphus tragocamelus): Also known as the Nilgai, the largest Asian antelope.
Indian Wild Boar (Sus scrofa cristatus): A subspecies of the wild boar native to the Indian subcontinent.
Sambar (Rusa unicolor): A large deer native to the Indian subcontinent.
Legal Provisions:
Hunting Prohibition: Hunting any animal listed under Schedule III is prohibited except for purposes like scientific research, education, and when permitted by the authorities under specific conditions.
Penalties: The penalties for offenses involving Schedule III animals include imprisonment up to three years, or a fine up to Rs. 25,000, or both.
PYQ:
[2017] In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(d) Both B and C stated above are correct in this context.
It was first issued in 1917 by the Dogra Maharaja of J&K, the ordinance remains in effect.
The ordinance mandates death or rigorous imprisonment for life, or imprisonment up to 10 years with a fine for aiding the enemy or engaging in actions detrimental to Indian military operations.
Its Evolution:
Post-Partition Incorporation: The ordinance was retained as a law in J&K post-1947 and amended over time.
Changes Post-2019: Following the repeal of Article 370, the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act retained the Enemy Agents Ordinance and other security laws while replacing many state laws with Indian laws, such as the Indian Penal Code.
Trial Procedures under the Ordinance
Special Judge Appointment: Trials are conducted by a special judge appointed by the government in consultation with the High Court.
Legal Representation: Accused individuals can only engage a lawyer if permitted by the court.
No Appeal Provision: Verdicts can only be reviewed by a High Court judge chosen by the government, with the decision being final.
Publication Bar: Unauthorized disclosure or publication of trial information is punishable by imprisonment up to two years, fine, or both.
Notable Application of the Ordinance
Notable Cases: Many Kashmiris have been tried under the ordinance, including Maqbool Bhat, the founder of Jammu Kashmir Liberation Front, who was hanged in Tihar Jail in 1984.
Current Context: The Enemy Agents Ordinance continues to be a critical tool in addressing militant assistance in J&K, reflecting the stringent legal measures in place to maintain security.
PYQ:
[2019] The banning of ‘Jamaat-e-Islami’ in Jammu and Kashmir brought into focus the role of over-ground workers (OGWs) in assisting terrorist organizations. Examine the role played by OGWs in assisting terrorist organizations in insurgency affected areas. Discuss measures to neutralize the influence of OGWs.
[2019] Indian government has recently strengthen the anti-terrorism laws by amending the unlawful activities (Prevention) Act, (UAPA), 1967 and the NIA Act. Analyze the changes in the context of prevailing security environment while discussing scope and reasons for opposing the UAPA by human rights organisations.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Sucheta Kripalani
Why in the News?
June 25 is the birth anniversary of “Sucheta Kripalani”,India’s first woman Chief Minister.
Who wasSucheta Kripalani?
Sucheta Kripalani was born on June 25, 1908, in Ambala, Punjab. Daughter of S. N. Majumdar, a government surgeon. She studied at Indraprastha College for Women and St. Stephen’s College, University of Delhi.
She married J. B. Kripalani, a former Congress president and Gandhian, in April 1936 against familial and Mahatma Gandhi’s wishes.
Political Journey and Chief Ministership
Early Career: Joined BHU to teach Constitutional History in 1929, participated in Satyagraha, and was imprisoned in 1940.
Congress Role: Organized the foreign affairs wing of AICC and later founded the All India Mahila Congress.
She won by a margin of 99 votes over Kamalapati Tripathi and was sworn in as CM on October 2, 1963.
Contributions and Achievements
Educational Reforms: Waived school fees for girls up to Class 10 from January 1965. Established Meerut University and Kanpur University.
Social Reforms: Increased reservation for SCs in government jobs to 24% in Group C and 45% in Group D until the 18% target was achieved.
Infrastructure Developments: Established a Sainik School in Ghorakhal, a new medical college in Meerut, and the UP Awas Vikas Parishad. She created the post of agriculture production commissioner.
Crime Control: Neutralized many dacoits in the Chambal Valley with the help of the Police Radio Unit.
Anti-Corruption Stance: Emphasized the need to tackle growing corruption in public services, supporting the Union government’s initiative to appoint a vigilance commission.
Multifaceted Contributions: Involved in relief activities for the 1934 Bihar earthquake, Noakhali riots, Tibetan refugee rehabilitation, and the Indo-Pak War of 1971.
Criticism and Response: Faced criticism for being influenced by English, despite being a staunch supporter of Hindi. Advocated for creating an atmosphere for Hindi in governance.
Later Life and Legacy
Post-CM Career: Served as Lok Sabha MP until 1971.
Impact: Her tenure as CM and various social contributions left a lasting impact on Indian politics and society, especially in terms of women’s leadership and social reforms.
PYQ:
[2011] With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for:
(a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of the Quit India Movement
(b) Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
(c) Leading a contingent of the Indian National Army
(d) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Nicobar Triangle, GNI Project
Why in the News?
The opposition party has demanded the immediate suspension of all clearances granted to NITI Aayog’s Great Nicobar Island (GNI) Project.
It alleged violations of due process, legal and constitutional provisions protecting tribal communities.
Great Nicobar Island: An Overview
Geography and Ecology: Southernmost tip of India, part of the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago comprising 600-odd islands.
Environment: Hilly, covered with lush rainforests, annual rainfall of around 3,500 mm.
Biodiversity: Hosts numerous endangered and endemic species including the giant leatherback turtle, Nicobar megapode, Great Nicobar crake, Nicobar crab-eating macaque, and Nicobar tree shrew.
Area: 910 sq km with mangroves and Pandan forests along the coast.
Indigenous Communities:
Shompen Tribe: Approximately 250 people live in interior forests, predominantly hunter-gatherers, classified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group.
Nicobarese Community: Two groups – Great Nicobarese and Little Nicobarese, practice farming and fishing.
Resettlement: The Great Nicobarese were resettled in Campbell Bay after the 2004 tsunami.
Administrative Hub: Campbell Bay serves as the administrative hub, housing local offices of the Andaman and Nicobar administration and the panchayat.
Back2Basics:“Nicobar Triangle”
It is named after the Nicobar Islands, which are located at the northern apex of this triangular area.
The islands within the Nicobar Triangle include:
Nicobar Islands: This group of islands belongs to India and is situated to the south of the Andaman Islands. They are known for their diverse flora and fauna and are inhabited by indigenous tribes.
Andaman Islands: Located to the north of the Nicobar Islands, the Andaman Islands are also part of India. They are well-known for their lush forests, coral reefs, and indigenous tribes.
Indonesian Archipelago: To the south and southeast of the Nicobar Islands lies the Indonesian archipelago, which includes thousands of islands spanning a vast area between the Indian and Pacific Oceans.
What is GNI Project?
The GNI Project refers to the “Holistic Development of Great Nicobar Island,” a proposed mega project being piloted by NITI Aayog.
Implementing Agency: The project is to be implemented by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Integrated Development Corporation (ANIIDCO).
Historical Context: Development plans for a port in Great Nicobar date back to the 1970s, aimed at leveraging its strategic location near the Malacca Strait.
The project aims to develop the southern end of the Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands in the Bay of Bengal by constructing –
Transshipment port
Dual-use military-civil international airport
Power plant (450 MVA gas and solar-based) and
A township over a span of 30 years on more than 160 sq. km of land, of which 130 sq. km is primary forest
Features of the Project
Transshipment hub of the East: The proposed port will allow Great Nicobar to participate in the regional and global maritime economy by becoming a major player in cargo transshipment.
Naval control: The port will be controlled by the Indian Navy, while the airport will have dual military-civilian functions and will cater to tourism as well.
Urban amenities: Roads, public transport, water supply and waste management facilities, and several hotels have been planned to cater to tourists.
Significance of the project
Economic significance: The proposed port would allow GNI to become a significant player in cargo transhipment, as it is positioned equidistant from Colombo, Port Klang (Malaysia), and Singapore.
Strategic significance: The proposal to develop GNI has been on the table since the 1970s, and it has been highlighted repeatedly as a crucial element for national security and consolidation of the Indian Ocean Region.
In recent years, the escalating Chinese presence in the Indian Ocean has added greater urgency to this imperative.
Issues with the Project
The project entails the deforestation of 130 sq km, and felling 10 lakh trees, threatens biodiversity at Galathea Bay, displaces indigenous tribes, lacks thorough impact assessments, and poses seismic risks to vulnerable communities.
Due-process Violations highlighted by the ‘Opposition’
(1) Did not recognise the grant ownership: The island administration did not recognise or grant ownership of any forest land to local tribespeople as per FRA, a requisite step under the Forest Conservation Rules, 2017, before Stage-I clearance is granted.
This is despite the fact that Rule 6(3)(e) of Forest Conservation Rules-2017 (FCR) requires that any diversion of forest land first requires the District Collector to recognise and vest rights to locals under the FRA.
The legislation allows forest communities the right to control and manage the use of the forest land over which they hold titles, and their consent is mandatory for diverting it.
(2) Inconsistencies with Stage-I Clearance: The Stage-I clearance for the project was granted in October 2022, two years after the application was received. Monthly progress reports show that the district administration did not process any claims over forest land under the FRA in the 26 months since project sanction.
(3) Withdrawal of Consent: Weeks after the Stage-I clearance was granted, the Tribal Council at Campbell Bay withdrew the consent granted by the Gram Sabha.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Global Craft Cities in India, World Crafts Council International (WCCI)
Why in the News?
Srinagar has become the fourth Indian city to be recognised as a ‘World Craft City’ by the World Craft Council (WCC), three years after it was designated as part of the UNESCO Creative City Network (UCCN) for crafts and folk arts.
Craft Sector in Kashmir
The Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage-Kashmir (INTACH-K) is working with the J&K Handicrafts department to map Srinagar’s craft sector in preparation for the final nomination.
Srinagar boasts a rich artisanal heritage, with over 20,000 registered craftsmen engaged in various disciplines such as papier mâché, walnut wood carving, hand-knotted carpets, and more.
Handicrafts contribute significantly to the local economy, with approximately 2.64% of J&K’s overall economic output attributed to the sector by 2016-17.
Notable Craft: Papier-Mache, Walnut Wood Carving, Carpets, Sozni embroidery and Pashmina and Kani shawls.
About World Craft Council (WCC International)
Details
What is it?
Non-profit, Non-governmental organization
Working
Establishment in 1964;
Registered in Belgium as an international association without lucrative purpose (AISBL).
Affiliated to the UNESCO
Founders
Kamaladevi Chattopadhay and Aileen Osborn Webb
Purpose
To promote fellowship among craftspersons worldwide, foster economic development through craft-related activities, organize exchange programs, workshops, conferences, seminars, and exhibitions, and offer encouragement and advice to artisans.
Legal Status
Registered in Belgium as an international association without lucrative purpose (AISBL)
WCC is organized into five regions: Africa, Asia Pacific, Europe, Latin America, and North America.
Meetings
European branch meets annually;
The General Assembly occurs every four years (took place in Chennai in 2012).
What is World Craft City (WCC) Designation?
The WCC initiative was launched in 2014 by the World Crafts Council AISBL (WCC-International).
It recognizes the pivotal role local authorities, craftspeople, and communities play in cultural, economic, and social development worldwide.
India has only 3 cities designated as World Craft City:
Jaipur (Kundan Jadai (Gem setting), Meenakari Jewellery, Lac-based craft, Gotta Patti Work etc. )
Mysuru (Kinnal paintings, Sandalwood carvings, Rosewood Inlay etc. )
Mamallapuram (Stone Carving continuing since Pallava dynasty (275 CE to 897 CE))
PYQ:
[2018] Safeguarding the Indian art heritage is the need of the moment. Comment (10M)
[2018] Consider the following pairs:
Puthukkuli shawls — Tamil Nadu
Sujni embroidery — Maharashtra
Uppada Jamdani saris — Karnataka
Craft Heritage of which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Brahmos Missile
Why in the News?
The BrahMos cruise missiles so inducted are termed a “game changer” by the Philippines envoy. The missiles provide credible defence and deterrent capabilities to the Philippines’ armed forces.
About BrahMos Missiles
BrahMos is a joint venture between the DRDO and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya.
The name BrahMos comes from the two rivers, the Brahmaputra of India and the Moskva of Russia.
The first successful test in 2001 was conducted from a specially designed land-based launcher.
Capabilities:
BrahMos is a medium-range ramjet supersonic cruise missile.
Launched from: submarines, ships, aircraft, or land.
It is the fastest supersonic cruise missile in the world.
It has two stages:
The first stage comprised a solid-fuelrocket booster and
The second stage comprises a liquid-fueled ramjet. ( because it provides the capability to manoeuvre and increase the range of missiles)
Warhead:
Ship-launched and land-based missiles can carry a 200 kg warhead,
Aircraft-launched variant (BrahMos A) can carry a 300 kg warhead.
Variants and Range
The missile travels at speeds of Mach 2.8 to 3.0, which is being upgraded to Mach 5.0.
A hypersonic version of the missile, BrahMos-II, is also presently under development with a speed of Mach 7-8 to boost aerial fast strike capability.
Initially restricted by the Missile Technology Control Regime to a range of 290km, the BrahMos missile’s range was extended to 450km following India’s entry into the regime in June 2016.
Ongoing efforts aim further to extend the missile’s range beyond 600km, enhancing its operational reach and effectiveness in various scenarios.
India-Philippines Relations: A quick recap
Context: 2023 marked the 75th anniversary of bilateral relations between India and the Philippines.
Equipment Transfers: These agreements facilitated government-to-government procurement of defence material and equipment.
Details of the BrahMos Deal
A MoU on defence cooperation was signed in 2006, reinforced by a 2017 MoU on defence industry and logistics cooperation.
Contract Details: In January 2022, the Philippines signed a $375 million deal with India for three batteries of shore-based anti-ship BrahMos missiles.
First Export Customer: The Philippines became the first export customer for the joint India-Russia venture.
Delivery Milestone: The first batch of missiles was delivered in April 2024.
Boost to India’s Defence Export: This deal marks India’s first overseas export of the BrahMos, showcasing India’s growing defence industry capabilities.
Bilateral Trade and Economic Cooperation
Trade Milestone: In 2023, bilateral trade crossed the $3 billion mark for the first time, with a trade balance in India’s favour.
Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA): Ongoing negotiations for a PTA aim to enhance trade balance and diversification.
Trade Partnerships: India is among the top 15 trade partners for the Philippines.
Modernisation of the Philippines Armed Forces
Phase-3 Modernisation: The Philippines armed forces are in phase-3, termed Horizon-3, of their modernisation programme.
Focus Areas: They are looking at acquiring ships, aircraft, and radars, and enhancing Maritime Domain Awareness (MDA).
Strategic Goals: Aiming to defend entitlements and secure their Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) against China over its claims for the South China Sea.
PYQ:
[2014] Which reference to the Agni-IV Missile,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
It is a surface-to-surface missile.
It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: NTA
Why in the News?
A seven-member high-level committee was constituted under the chairmanship of K. Radhakrishnan, former ISRO Chairman, by the Ministry of Education to reform the National Testing Agency (NTA).
About National Testing Agency (NTA)
NTA is a premier, specialist, autonomous and self-sustained testing organization to conducts entrance examinations for admission/fellowship in higher educational institutions.
It was established in 2017 with a grant amount of Rs.25 crore from the Union Government.
NTA is responsible for conducting exams such as:
Joint Entrance Examination – Main (JEE Main)
National Eligibility cum Entrance Test-Undergraduate (NEET-UG) as well as NEET PG
National Eligibility Test (NET)
Common Management Admission Test (CMAT)
Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT).
The NTA is chaired by an eminent educationist who will be appointed by the Ministry of Education.
There will be a Board of Governors comprising members from user institutions.
National Testing Agency (NTA) Under Scrutiny
The NTA has been criticized after the NEET paper leak controversy and the subsequent scrapping of exams like UGC-NET due to “lack of integrity”.
The committee aims to establish a robust process for conducting various entrance examinations end to end.
NTA Reform Panel: Committee Composition
Committee Head: K. Radhakrishnan, former Chairman of ISRO and Chairman of the Board of Governors at IIT-Kanpur.
Two-Month Timeline: The committee aims to meet ten times over the next two months to develop comprehensive recommendations.
Key Issues and Focus Areas:
Data Security Protocol: Develop a manual to fix a data security protocol to prevent question paper leaks.
Printing and Process Integrity: Review processes for printing question papers, onboarding printers, and training staff to minimize external participation.
Organisational Restructuring: Consider adding a data security vertical in the NTA organogram and implementing transparent processes, requiring organizational restructuring.
Examination Investigation and Security:
Root Cause Analysis: The committee will investigate the initial cause of question paper leaks to identify and plug gaps.
Modes of Examination: Examine different modes of conducting examinations:
JEE (Mains) and JEE (Advanced) are computer-based tests.
NEET-UG is conducted in pen-paper Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) mode.
Challenges faced by NTA
Infrastructure Limitations: Currently, India lacks the infrastructure to conduct computer-based tests online for more than three lakh students simultaneously.
Large-Scale Exams: NEET-UG involves up to 24 lakh students appearing in pen and paper OMR mode at once.
Conclusion
The reforms are critical to restoring the integrity of entrance examinations in India, ensuring secure and fair testing processes.
The committee’s recommendations will play a pivotal role in shaping the future operations of the NTA and entrance examination protocols.
Back2Basic: University Grants Commission (UGC)
Details
Establishment
Came into existence on 28th December, 1953.
Became a statutory organization by an Act of Parliament in 1956.
Legislation
The UGC Act, 1956.
Nodal Ministry
Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education).
Responsibilities
Providing funds to universities and colleges.
Coordination, determination, and maintenance of standards of teaching, examination, and research in institutions of higher education.
Mandate
Promoting and coordinating university education.
Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination, and research in universities.
Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
Monitoring developments in collegiate and university education.
Disbursing grants to universities and colleges.
Serving as a link between the Union and state governments and institutions of higher learning.
Advising Central and State governments on measures necessary for the improvement of university education.
Unique Distinction
Only grant-giving agency in India with the dual role of funding and maintaining standards in higher education institutions.
Functions
Promoting and coordinating university education.
Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination, and research in universities.
Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
Monitoring developments in collegiate and university education.
Disbursing grants to universities and colleges.
Serving as a link between the Union and state governments and institutions of higher learning.
Advising Central and State governments on measures necessary for the improvement of university education.
Link Role
Acts as a vital link between Union and State governments and institutions of higher learning.
Advisory Role
Advises the Central and State governments on necessary measures for the improvement of university education.
Recently a study was conducted on Prompt Fission Neutron Spectrum (PFNS) by the US. This study holds significance for design updates in India’s second stage of its nuclear power programme.
India’s Progress in Nuclear Energy
On March 4, India advanced to the second stage of its nuclear power programme by beginning the core-loading process of the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at the Madras Atomic Power Station in Kalpakkam.
India’s 3-stage Nuclear Power Program:
Description
Timeline
Stage 1
Relies on pressurized heavy water reactors (PHWRs) using natural uranium as fuel.
Initiated in the 1950s;
Operational since the 1960s
Stage 2
Focuses on developing fast breeder reactors (FBRs) using plutonium-239 produced in Stage 1.
Initiated in the 1970s;
Development phase
Stage 3
Involves the development of thorium-based reactors utilizing India’s significant thorium reserves.
Initiated in the late 1980s/early 1990s;
Research & Development phase
What is Prompt Fission Neutron Spectrum (PFNS)?
Definition: PFNS refers to neutrons emitted right after a Pu-240 nucleus captures a neutron but before it reaches a stable state.
Previous Studies: To date, only one study has investigated PFNS for Pu-240-induced fission at 0.85 mega-electron-volt (MeV). Recently, researchers in the U.S. conducted a second study with neutrons of higher energy than 0.85 MeV.
New Findings: The findings reveal significant differences between predicted and measured PFNS, aiding reactor designers and nuclear medicine practitioners.
About Plutonium-240 and its Fission
Neutron Capture: When a Pu-239 nucleus captures a neutron, it can either undergo fission or become Pu-240.
Pu-240 is common in nuclear reactors and nuclear weapon test fallout.
Pu-240 Behavior: Pu-240 capturing a neutron typically turns into Pu-241.
If Pu-240 undergoes fission, there’s uncertainty about the energy of its fission products.
Current models use complex calculations to estimate this output.
Do you know?
Plutonium is created from Uranium-238 in nuclear reactors.
Plutonium-239 is a weapon-grade fissile material (i.e. used to make nuclear weapons).
Pu-239 and Pu-240 are by-products of nuclear reactor operations and nuclear bomb explosions.
Relevance of PFNS Study to India’s PFBR
PFBR Use: The PFBR uses plutonium from CANDU (Canada Deuterium Uranium) reactor spent fuel, which contains Pu-240. Reprocessed PFBR spent fuel will also contain Pu-240.
Importance of New Data: New data on Pu-240 behaviour is essential for improving reactor efficiency and safety.
Production and Characteristics of Pu-240
Creation of Pu-239: Pu-239 is created when U-238 is exposed to neutrons in a reactor. As Pu-239 captures neutrons, it turns into Pu-240, which builds up over time.
Spontaneous Fission: Pu-240 undergoes spontaneous fission, emitting alpha particles, and is considered a contaminant in weapons-grade plutonium, where its composition is kept below 7%.
Reactor-Grade Plutonium: Plutonium with more than 19% Pu-240 is classified as reactor-grade.
Experimental Findings on PFNS
Research at LANSCE: Researchers at Los Alamos Neutron Science Centre (LANSCE) conducted tests by bombarding a pure Pu-240 sample with neutrons of 0.01-800 MeV energy.
Detection Setup: The setup included liquid scintillators to detect emitted particles, using a small Pu-240 sample to minimize alpha particle emission.
Measurement Focus: They measured the energies of neutrons and other fission products, focusing on neutron-induced fission data.
PYQ:
[2023] Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most its electricity production.
Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent at of least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: NFlES Scheme
Why in the News?
The Union Cabinet, chaired by PM Narendra Modi, approved the National Forensic Infrastructure Enhancement Scheme (NFIES).
Do you know?
Central sector schemes: They are 100% funded by the Union government and implemented by the Central Government machinery. It covers subjects from Union List (central subjects).
Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS): It has a certain percentage of the funding borne by the States and the implementation is by the State Governments.It covers subjects from Concurrent List (shared subjects).
States have some flexibility to modify schemes to suit local needs within central guidelines.
About National Forensic Infrastructure Enhancement Scheme (NFlES)
The Central Sector Scheme NFIES aims to strengthen national forensic infrastructure, expand NFSU’s reach, and establish CFSLs to meet growing forensic demands.
It aligns with India’s goals of enhancing forensic capabilities and securing robust criminal justice outcomes.
Key Components of NFlES:
Campuses of NFSU: Establishing campuses of the National Forensic Sciences University (NFSU) across India.
Central Forensic Science Laboratories (CFSLs): Setting up new CFSLs nationwide.
Delhi Campus Enhancement: Upgrading infrastructure at the Delhi Campus of NFSU.
Financial outlay: Rs. 2254.43 crore for 2024-25 to 2028-29, funded by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Objectives:
Enhancing the criminal justice system with timely and scientific forensic examinations.
Addressing the increased workload due to new criminal laws requiring forensic investigation for serious offences.
Mitigating the shortage of trained forensic professionals in Forensic Science Laboratories (FSLs).
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Viability Gap Funding (VGF) Scheme; Its features.
Why in the News?
The Union Cabinet, chaired by the PM, approved the Viability Gap Funding (VGF) scheme for offshore wind energy projects.
Note: Offshore wind energy projects refer to developing and operating wind farms located offshore, typically in coastal waters or oceans.
Back2Basics: Viability Gap Funding (VGF) Scheme
The VGF scheme is a financial tool to support infrastructure projects that are economically justified but face financial viability challenges.
It was launched in 2004 to address the gap between economically viable infrastructure projects and their financial feasibility under traditional financing models.
Administration: Administered by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, the scheme operates as a Plan Scheme with annual budget allocations.
Features:
Capital Subsidy: VGF provides a grant (capital subsidy) to infrastructure projects to make them financially attractive for private sector participation. This subsidy helps cover part of the cost that private investors would find economically unviable.
Project Eligibility: Projects eligible for VGF are typically selected through competitive bidding processes. They must demonstrate economic justification but face challenges in attracting private investment solely on commercial terms.
Disbursement Timing: The VGF grant is disbursed during the construction phase of the project. However, disbursement is conditional upon the private sector developer making the required equity contribution to the project.
Budgetary Allocation: Funds for VGF are allocated from the government’s budget. Sometimes, contributions may also come from the statutory authority that owns the project asset.
Limitations: Additional financial assistance beyond the VGF amount is capped at 20% of the total project cost. This additional support can be provided by the sponsoring Ministry, State Government, or the statutory entity involved.
Benefits:
Encouraging Investment: By reducing the financial risks associated with infrastructure projects, VGF encourages private sector participation, leading to faster project implementation and improved service delivery.
Infrastructure Development: The scheme supports the development of critical infrastructure such as transportation (roads, railways, airports), energy (power generation, transmission), and public utilities.
About VGF Scheme for Offshore Wind Energy Projects
The VGF scheme aligns with the National Offshore Wind Energy Policy (2015) to harness India’s offshore wind potential.
It aims to reduce power costs from offshore wind projects, making them viable for DISCOMs through government support.
It seeks installation and commissioning of 1 GW of offshore wind energy projects (500 MW each off the coast of Gujarat and Tamil Nadu).
Functionaries:
Private Developers will execute projects via transparent bidding.
Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd (PGCIL) will build power evacuation infrastructure.
Total outlay: Rs. 7453 crore, including Rs. 6853 crore for installing and commissioning 1 GW of projects in Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.
Advantages of Offshore Wind Energy:
Offshore wind offers higher reliability, lower storage requirements, and greater employment potential than onshore wind and solar.
The development will attract investments, build indigenous manufacturing capabilities, and foster technology advancements.
Environmental and Economic implications:
1 GW projects will generate 3.72 billion units annually, reducing CO2 emissions by 2.98 million tons per year for 25 years.
Expected to kickstart India’s offshore wind sector, supporting initial development of 37 GW capacity with an investment of Rs. 4,50,000 crore.
Creates an ecosystem for ocean-based economic activities, contributing to India’s energy transition goals.
PYQ:
[2018] With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:
India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
[2016] Give an account of the current status and the targets to be achieved pertaining to renewable energy sources in the country. Discuss in brief the importance of National Programme on Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs).
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Capsaicin Poisoning
Why in the News?
Food safety authorities in Denmark have recalled three types of South Korean spicy instant noodles due to potential risks of “acute Capsaicin poisoning.”
What is Capsaicin?
Capsaicin, the chemical responsible for chili pepper spiciness, is primarily found in the white membrane (placenta) of some chili peppers.
Mechanism of Capsaicin:
Capsaicin binds to TRPV1 receptors in the human body, which detect heat and pain.
These receptors are tricked by capsaicin into reacting as if there is a rise in temperature, causing a painful, burning sensation.
The body’s response includes sweating, facial redness, runny nose, teary eyes, gut cramps, and diarrhoea as it attempts to cool down and expel the perceived heat.
Evolutionary Benefits of Capsaicin
While birds avoid chilies, rodents consume them.
Birds lack TRPV1 receptors, unlike rodents act as seed dispersers, aiding in the germination of chili seeds.
Capsaicin serves an evolutionary purpose by deterring mammals from eating the seeds and protecting the plant from fungi and insects.
Producing capsaicin is resource-intensive, making spicy chilies more vulnerable to droughts.
Human Affinity for Spicy Foods
Over 3,000 chili cultivars have been bred for varying color, taste, and pungency.
Some experts believe humans’ love for spicy foods stems from their antimicrobial benefits, which are particularly useful in hotter climates where food spoils faster.
Psychologists argue that eating spicy foods is similar to thrill-seeking activities, providing a simulated risk without actual danger.
Potential Risks of Capsaicin
High concentrations of capsaicin can cause heartburn, gastrointestinal pain, and diarrhoea.
Long-term ingestion of high levels may lead to chronic gastrointestinal disorders.
Capsaicin poisoning is rare due to the large amount required for toxicity, with a person needing to consume around 2.5 liters of Tabasco sauce to overdose.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Carbon-14, Carbon Storage in Plants
Why in the News?
A recent study in the Science journal indicates that the storage of carbon in terrestrial vegetation is more short-lived and more vulnerable to climate change than previously estimated.
Carbon Absorption and Storage in Plants
Current models may overestimate the time carbon remains stored in plants, meaning it returns to the atmosphere sooner than previously expected.
Experts emphasised that while plants and forests play a crucial role in drawing down carbon dioxide, their potential is limited.
The study calls for a rapid reduction in fossil fuel emissions to mitigate climate change impacts.
Key Findings:
Plants and soils absorb 30% of annual carbon dioxide emissions from human activities, mitigating climate change.
However, there are gaps in understanding the stability and mechanisms of this carbon storage.
Use of Radiocarbon (Carbon-14) in Research
Researchers used Carbon-14, a radioactive isotope, to track carbon accumulation and turnover in the terrestrial biosphere.
Nuclear bomb testingin the 1950s and 1960s increased atmospheric C-14 levels, providing a unique opportunity to study carbon cycling.
Study Results
By analysing C-14 accumulation in plants from 1963 to 1967, researchers compared these findings to current models.
The analysis showed that net primary productivity (the rate of new plant tissue creation) is likely at least 80 petagrams of carbon (PgC) per year, higher than the 43-76 PgC per year predicted by current models.
The C-14 accumulation in vegetation during 1963-67 was 69 ± 24 ×10²⁶, suggesting a more rapid carbon cycle between the atmosphere and biosphere than previously thought.
Back2Basics:Carbon-14 and Carbon Dating
Carbon dating is a widely used method for determining the age of organic materials that were once living.
The method is based on the radioactive decay of Carbon-14 (C-14), an isotope of carbon with an atomic mass of 14.
It works by measuring the ratio of C-12 to C-14 in the atmosphere, as well as in plants and animals that acquire carbon through photosynthesis or food consumption.
The Half-Life Concept
Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,730 ± 40 years—i.e., half the amount of the radioisotope present at any given time will undergo spontaneous disintegration during the succeeding 5,730 years.
Because carbon-14 decays at this constant rate, an estimate of the date at which an organism died can be made by measuring the amount of its residual radiocarbon.
Implications of the Study: Reforestation is inadequate
Today, reforestation is proposed to remove CO2 from the atmosphere, but trees do not return the CO2 to the geological layers from which the fossil fuels came.
This sink is transitory and this study shows us that its duration is even shorter than we thought.
PYQ:
[2012] Consider the following agricultural practices:
Contour bunding
Relay cropping
Zero tillage
In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of them
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: AMRSense Project, AMR, National Programme on AMR Containment
Why in the News?
The AMRSense Project of the IIIT-Delhi has won the joint second prize in Trinity Challenge’s competition focused on combating Antimicrobial resistance (AMR).
The project shares the £600,000 joint second prize with ‘OASIS: OneHealth Antimicrobial Stewardship for Informal Health Systems,’ also from India.
The Trinity Challenge
It is a global initiative aimed at fostering innovative solutions to major global health challenges, particularly focusing on pandemic and epidemic threats.
It operates as a charity organization.
Objective: The Trinity Challenge seeks to harness the power of data and analytics to address global health threats, including pandemics, epidemics, and antimicrobial resistance (AMR). It encourages collaboration across sectors to develop data-driven solutions that can protect populations worldwide.
Focus Areas: The initiative primarily focuses on:
Enhancing global health security by improving early detection and response to disease outbreaks.
Strengthening health systems and resilience against future health crises.
Promoting innovations in public health, healthcare delivery, and data analytics to mitigate health risks.
What is the AMRSense Project?
The AMRSense is aimed at addressing the critical issue of Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) through a comprehensive and proactive approach.
The project focuses on empowering communities, particularly Community Health Workers (CHWs), with tools and strategies to enhance AMR surveillance and management.
It seeks to bridge the gap in data collection and evidence-based interventions at the community level in India.
Collaborators: The project involves collaboration with CHRI-PATH, 1mg.com, and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
Four Components of AMRSense:
Community Engagement: AMRSense empowers CHWs with AI-assisted tools for accurate and simplified data collection related to AMR. This helps in improving the quality and reliability of AMR data gathered from local communities.
Data Integration: The project integrates various sources of AMR-related data, including antibiotic sales, consumption patterns, and WHONet-compliant surveillance data. This integration is facilitated through open-source tools and APIs, aiming to create a unified AMR data ecosystem.
Predictive Analytics: AMRSense employs federated analytics across the OneHealth ecosystem. This approach provides integrated insights into AMR trends, facilitating proactive decision-making and interventions to manage and mitigate AMR risks.
AMRaura Scorecard: This tool is designed to monitor and evaluate AMR trends over time. It helps in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding targeted strategies to combat AMR effectively.
Impact and Future Prospects
AMRSense aims to fill gaps in CHW awareness, training, and motivation, enhancing community-level AMR data collection and management in India.
The project’s comprehensive approach seeks to foster proactive AMR surveillance and management practices.
National Programme on AMR Containment
India has launched a “National Programme on AMR Containment” during the 12th five-year plan (2012-2017) which is being coordinated by the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC).
The network of labs is being expanded in a phased manner and currently includes 35 state medical college labs in 26 States/UTs.
PYQ:
[2020] What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India?
1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis.
2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced.
3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: 67th Global Environment Facility (GEF) Council
Why in the News?
The 67th meeting of the Global Environment Facility (GEF) was recently held in Washington DC. It concluded with the approval of $736.4 million in funding for 34 nature protection and renewal projects.
About Global Environment Facility (GEF)
Details
Establishment
A pilot program in 1991 by the World Bank
Restructured after the 1992 Rio Earth Summit.
Objective
Grants and blended finance for environmental projects
Funding
Over $1 billion annually; $22 billion grants to date
World Bank serves as the GEF Trustee
Replenishment
$5.33 billion pledged for 2022-2026
Member Countries
184 countries
Main Governing Bodies
Assembly: Composed of all 184 member countries, meets every 3-4 years at ministerial level. Reviews policies, and operations, and approves amendments.
Council: Main governing body with 32 members from member countries (14 developed, 16 developing, 2 economies in transition). Meets biannually to develop policies, approve projects, and evaluate operations.
India, Bhutan, Maldives, Sri Lanka, Nepal, and Bangladesh have together formed a Permanent Constituency in the Executive Council of the GEF.
Secretariat: Based in Washington, D.C., reports to Council and Assembly, oversees project implementation and policy adherence.
STAP (Scientific and Technical Advisory Panel): Provides scientific advice on policies, strategies, and projects, consisting of six internationally recognized experts.
GEF IEO (Independent Evaluation Office): Reports to the Council, evaluates GEF’s impact and effectiveness, and shares best practices and lessons learned.
Operational Agencies
18 agencies including UNDP, UNEP, World Bank
Financial Mechanism for
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) (1994)
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) (1991)
United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) (1994)
Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (2001)
Minamata Convention on Mercury (2013)
Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (1987)
Focus Areas
Biodiversity, Climate Change (Mitigation & Adaptation), Chemicals & Waste, International Waters, Land Degradation, Sustainable Forest Management
A total of $736.4 million was approved for 34 projects worldwide.
These projects span various environmental sectors and include initiatives under the GEF Trust Fund, Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBFF), Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF), and a Multi-Trust Fund project.
[2] GBFF Initiatives:
The GBFF approved its first work programme, allocating $37.8 million specifically for enhancing protected area management in Brazil and Mexico.
This initiative aims to support sustainable practices across more than 30 million hectares of protected areas, with a focus on indigenous-led conservation efforts.
[3] GEF Trust Fund Projects:
Several projects were funded under the GEF Trust Fund, including:
Sustainable Cities Integrated Program.
Initiatives targeting chemical and waste pollution in Bolivia’s cement, textile, brick, and glass sectors, as well as Brazil’s cement industry.
[4] Projects in India:
India secured funding for two significant projects:
Enhancing biodiversity conservation to meet global targets, focusing on expanding protected areas and community-led conservation practices with a funding of $6.7 million.
Conservation and sustainable management of wetlands, forests, and grasslands along the Central Asian Flyway, receiving $10.7 million.
[5] Global Impact and Targets:
Several projects aligned with the Global Biodiversity Framework’s 30X30 target (conservation of 30% of Earth’s land and sea by 2030), including initiatives in Argentina, Central Asia, and Namibia.
These projects aim to reduce ecosystem degradation, combat biodiversity loss, and strengthen protected area management.
[6] Future Plans (GEF-9):
The Council discussed plans for the ninth replenishment funding cycle (GEF-9) from 2026 to 2030.
This period aligns with global environmental goals and targets set under international agreements like the Biodiversity Plan.
PYQ:
[2014] With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’.
(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level.
(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Principle of Diyya; Reparative Justice
Why in the News?
The Indian Government has approved the transfer of the sum of $40,000 for preliminary discussions regarding the release of Nimisha Priya from a Yemeni prison.
Currently, Priya’s mother is in Yemen, trying to waive her death penalty by paying “blood money” to the murdered man’s family.
Nimisha Priya’s Case Details
Priya, a nurse, moved to Yemen in 2008 and married Tomy Thomas in 2011 before returning to Yemen.
She faced abuse and exploitation by Talal Abdo Mahdi, leading to the tragic events resulting in Mahdi’s death and Priya’s arrest.
The $40,000 payment aims to initiate negotiations for Priya’s release.
To waive the death penalty, Priya’s family may need to raise $300,000-$400,000.
The ‘Save Nimisha Priya International Action Council’ is fundraising to meet this requirement.
What is Blood Money?
According to Islamic law, victims of crimes have a say in how criminals are to be punished.
In the case of murder, this principle applies to the families of victims.
Although murder is punished via the death penalty, the victim’s family (specifically, heirs) may choose to “forgive” the murderer in exchange for monetary compensation.
This is the principle of Diyya, or, as it is commonly referred to “blood money”.
It can be traced to the Holy Quran.
Applicability:
Blood money is applicable in cases of unintentional homicide (Qatl Khata) or accidental death, as well as in cases of bodily injury or harm caused by negligence or unintentional actions.
Practical Implications of Blood Money
Scholars believe that the idea behind this is to encourage the virtue of forgiveness, while also providing reparative justice to the victims’ family.
The scriptures do not set any specific amount as compensation.
The sum is generally arrived at via negotiation between the murderer’s family/representatives and the victim’s family.
Some Islamic countries, however, have set minimum compensation amounts.
Significance of Blood Money
Forgiveness from the victim’s family is highly encouraged and considered virtuous in Islam.
Blood money aims to prevent cycles of vengeance or retaliation (Qisas) that could lead to further social harm or conflict.
It promotes reconciliation and mutual understanding.
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: PARIVESH Portal
Why in the News?
Kerala is set to construct a ropeway in Sabarimala by compensating the Forests department with alternative land at Chinnakkanal in Idukki.
The 2.7-kilometre-long ropeway aims to transport goods from the Pampa base station to the Sabarimala Sannidhanam.
Once the land is transferred for compensatory afforestation, an application will be submitted in the PARIVESH portal for clearance from the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
What is PARIVESH Portal?
PARIVESH, which stands for Pro-Active and Responsive facilitation by Interactive Virtuous & Environmental Single-window Hub.
It is an online portal developed by the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change.
It is designed to streamline and expedite the process of obtaining clearances related to environment, forests, wildlife, and Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) from central, state, and district-level authorities.
Purpose and Scope:
PARIVESH is intended to enhance efficiency, transparency, and accountability in the clearance processes for environment, forests, wildlife, and CRZ.
It aims to reduce the turnaround time for obtaining clearances and improve responsiveness through workflow automation and real-time information availability.
Functionality:
It serves as a role-based, web-based workflow application where user agencies can submit proposals online for clearances.
It operates on a Web Architecture using IIS as an Application Server, .NET framework, and SQL Server as a database server.
Benefits to Users:
Allows for online submission and monitoring of compliance reports, including geo-tagged images of sites through a Mobile App, enhancing compliance monitoring.
Integrates Geographic Information System (GIS) interface for Appraisal Committees to analyze proposals efficiently.
Accessible 24×7 from any PC with internet connectivity, ensuring continuous availability for users across different locations and time zones.
PYQ:
[2019] Consider the following statements:
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to
State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought.
Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: International Yoga Day
Why in the News?
Prime Minister Narendra Modi is leading the celebrations of the 10th International Day of Yoga at the Sher-e-Kashmir International Convention Centre (SKICC) in Srinagar.
About International Day of Yoga
The International Day of Yoga is observed annually on June 21 worldwide since 2014 to celebrate the practice of Yoga, which originated in ancient India.
Yoga is renowned for its physical and mental health benefits, promoting well-being globally.
PM Modi proposed the idea of a Yoga Day during his UN address in September2014.
In December 2014, India’s Permanent Representative to the UN introduced the draft resolution in the UN General Assembly.
It was adopted with support from 177 countries without a vote.
The first International Day of Yoga was successfully celebrated on June 21, 2015, in cities around the world, including New York, Paris, Beijing, and New Delhi.
Why 21st June was chosen for this day?
The date of June 21 was chosen because it is the longest day of the year in the Northern Hemisphere, symbolizing spiritual significance across various cultures.
In Hindu mythology, this day marks the transition to Dakshinayana and is associated with the first yogi, Shiva, who began teaching Yoga to humanity.
Back2Basics: Yoga
Yoga originated in ancient India and has its roots in Indian philosophy, spirituality, and culture.
The word “yoga” is derived from the Sanskrit word “yuj,” which means “to join” or “to unite.” It signifies the union of mind, body, and spirit.
Historical References:
Yoga-like practices were mentioned in the Rig-Veda, an ancient Hindu text dating back to approximately 1500 BCE.
References to yoga can also be found in the Upanishads, which are philosophical texts from around 800 to 400 BCE.
Contributions of Sage Patanjali:
Patanjali is considered the father of classical yoga.
He compiled the Yoga Sutras, a foundational text that provides a systematic and philosophical framework for the practice of yoga.
The Yoga Sutras were written around the 2nd century BCE.
Eight Limbs of Yoga:
Patanjali’s Yoga Sutras outline the eight limbs or stages of yoga, known as Ashtanga Yoga. These limbs include:
Ethical principles (yamas),
Positive duties or observances (niyamas)
Physical postures (asanas),
Breath control (pranayama),
Sense withdrawal (pratyahara),
Concentration (dharana),
Meditation (dhyana), and
Self-realization (samadhi).
Schools and Styles: There are various schools and styles of yoga, each with its own approach and emphasis. Some popular styles include Hatha, Vinyasa, Ashtanga, Iyengar, Bikram, Kundalini, and Yin yoga.
PYQ:
[2014] Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?
Assam’s wildlife officials reported its discovery during a herpetofauna survey.
Back2Basics: Herpetofauna
Herpetofauna refers to a group of reptiles and amphibians collectively.
The term combines “herpeto-” from the Greek “herpeton,” meaning “creeping animal,” and “fauna,” referring to the animal species found in a particular region or time.
Herpetofauna play essential roles in ecosystems:
They act as both predators and prey, help regulate insect populations, and serve as indicators of environmental health.
They serve as environmental indicators and play significant roles in pest control.
About Striped Caecilian
The Striped Caecilian (Ichthyophis spp.) is a type of limbless amphibian belonging to the family Ichthyophiidae.
Caecilians are often mistaken for snakesor worms due to their elongated, cylindrical bodies and lack of limbs.
They are primarily found in tropical regions of Africa, Asia, and the Americas.
They usually live underground or in moist soil habitats.
Key features of the Striped Caecilian include:
They have smooth, cylindrical bodies with a ringed or striped pattern, hence the name “striped.”
Caecilians are predominantly fossorial (burrowing), spending most of their lives underground or in leaf litter. This behaviour makes them elusive and difficult to study.
They are carnivorous, feeding on small invertebrates found in soil and leaf litter.
Their eyesight is generally poor, and they rely on chemoreception (sensing chemicals in the environment) to locate prey.
Caecilians are known for their unique reproductive strategies, which can involve live births or laying eggs. Some species exhibit parental care, with adults guarding eggs or young offspring.
Significance: Kaziranga’s Biodiversity
Kaziranga National Park’s diverse ecosystem, encompassing flood plains, wetlands, grasslands, and hill tracts, provides an ideal habitat for herpetofauna.
The park hosts 24 amphibian species, 74 reptile species, and 21 of India’s 29 species of tortoises and freshwater turtles.
About Kaziranga National Park
Details
Location
Assam, India
Geographical Features
Situated between Brahmaputra River and Karbi (Mikir) Hills
Significance
Eastern Himalayan Biodiversity Hotspot
Rivers
Diphlu River runs through the park
Highways
National Highway 37 passes through the park
Legal Status
Designated as a National Park in 1974.
UNESCO World Heritage Site (1985).
Important Bird Area by Birdlife International
Key Conservation Achievements
Houses around 2/3rd of the world’s Great Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros.
Declared a Tiger Reserve due to high tiger density
‘Big Five’ species
Great Indian One-Horned Rhino, Asian Elephant, Royal Bengal Tiger, Asiatic Water Buffalo, Swamp Deer
