Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Kallakkadal, Tsunami
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- Coastal areas of Kerala, including Alappuzha, Kollam, and Thiruvananthapuram districts, are grappling with flooding caused by high sea waves, known as swell waves or Kallakkadal in Malayalam.
- The recent swell surge occurred following a low-pressure system originating in the South Atlantic Ocean, leading to the formation of waves reaching heights of up to 11 meters.
What is Kallakkadal?
- Origin and Meaning:
- Kallakkadal refers to coastal flooding during the (April-May) pre-monsoon season.
- It is caused by ocean swell waves on the southwest coast of India.
- The term “Kallakkadal” originates from Malayalam, combining “Kallan” (thief) and “Kadal” (sea), denoting the sea’s unexpected intrusion akin to a thief.
- In 2012, the term was formally approved by the UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization).
- Causes:
- These waves stem from distant storms, such as hurricanes, generating significant energy transfer from the atmosphere to the water.
- Kallakkadal typically results from strong winds in the southern Indian Ocean, generating ocean swells that travel northward towards the Kerala coast.
Features of Kallakkadal
- This phenomenon occurs mostly during pre-monsoon season and sometimes during post monsoon.
- It continues for a few days.
- It inundates the low lying coasts.
- Initially sea recedes before the surge.
- During high tide the run-up, water level can reach as much as 3–4 m above Maximum Water Level (MWL).
How is it distinct from Tsunami?
- Nature of Phenomenon: Kallakkadal, though often confused with tsunamis, arises from distant storm-generated waves, contrasting with tsunamis triggered by underwater disturbances, typically seismic activities.
- Clarification: Understanding this distinction is crucial for implementing effective early warning systems and mitigating the impact of coastal hazards.
PYQ:
2017: At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at-
(a) Bhavnagar
(b) Bheemunipatnam
(c) Chandipur
(d) Nagapattinam
Practice MCQ:
The Coastal areas of Kerala recently witnessed the Oceanic Swell Waves locally known as Kallakkadal. In this regard consider the following statements:
1. Kallakkadal typically occurs during the spring season (March-April).
2. These waves stem from distant storms in the southern Indian Ocean.
Which of the given statements is/are NOT correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Zero FIR vs ordinary FIR
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Hyderabad Police have initiated a zero FIR case against former minister for alleged derogatory remarks against Telangana CM.
First Information Report (FIR)
- An FIR is a written document prepared by the police upon receiving information about a cognisable offence.
- It is when an officer can arrest a suspect without a court’s warrant if/she has “reason to believe” that the person committed the offence and arrest is necessary based on certain factors.
- It serves as the first step towards initiating the investigation process and subsequent police actions.
- Section 154(1) of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) empowers the police to register an FIR for cognizable offences.
- Section 166A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) provides punishment for public servants failing to record information related to a cognizable offence, with imprisonment of up to two years and a fine.
|
What is Zero FIR?
- Provision and Purpose: Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognisable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.
- No diary: Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’. Hence the name.
Features of a Zero FIR:
- Swift Action: The relevant police station subsequently registers a fresh FIR and commences the investigation.
- Focus on Victims: It is designed to expedite complaint lodging, particularly for serious crimes involving women and children, without the need to approach multiple police stations.
- Preserving Evidence: Early registration helps prevent the loss or tampering of crucial evidence and witnesses.
- Transferred Jurisdiction: The Zero FIR is later transferred to the relevant police station where the offence occurred or where the investigation should be conducted.
How does it work?
- After a police station registers a zero FIR, it has to transfer the complaint to a police station that has the jurisdiction to investigate the alleged offence.
- Once a zero FIR is transferred, the police station with the appropriate jurisdiction assigns it a serial number, thereby converting it into a regular FIR.
Legal Provisions for Zero FIR
The provision of Zero FIR finds support in various judgments and recommendations:
- Satvinder Kaur vs. State (1999): The Delhi High Court held that a woman has the right to lodge her complaint from any place other than where the incident occurred.
- Justice Verma Committee (2012): The introduction of Zero FIR was based on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee, which was formed in response to the 2012 Nirbhaya gangrape case.
- Lalita Kumari vs. Govt. of UP (2014): The Supreme Court ruled that registration of an FIR is mandatory when information discloses the commission of a cognizable offence.
PYQ:
2021: With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked-up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Practice MCQ:
Regarding the Zero FIR, consider the following statements:
1. Zero FIR allows any police station to register an FIR for a cognizable offence without assigning a regular FIR number initially.
2. Whereas FIRs have serial numbers assigned to them, zero FIRs are assigned the number ‘0’.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
This year marks 125th Year of the Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO).
About Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO)
- The idea for an Indian solar observatory emerged in the late 19th century, with then government sanctioning the establishment of the Solar Physics Observatory in Kodaikanal in August 1893.
- Kodaikanal in the Palani hills of Tamil Nadu was chosen as the site for the observatory due to its favorable atmospheric conditions, following surveys conducted by Charles Michie Smith.
- The foundation stone for KoSO was laid by Lord Wenlock, the then Governor of Madras, in 1895.
- Systematic observations at KoSO began on March 14, 1901.
- KoSO initially housed instruments for solar observations, including telescopes for examining sunspots, prominences, and solar radiations.
- Presently, KoSO houses advanced instruments like the H-alpha telescope and the White light Active Region Monitor (WARM) for high-resolution solar imaging.
Do you know?
- The Bhavnagar Telescope, named after the Maharaja of Bhavnagar, was one of the more famous instruments at KoSO during the early decades of its operation.
- A 15cm telescope was used to capture solar images onto a photographic film or plate.
- Solar magnetic plages and prominences were recorded since 1911, taken on photographic films and plates.
|
Historical Perspective
- Ancient Legacy: Throughout history, seafarers, mathematicians, astronomers, and physicists have meticulously studied the Sun and its celestial phenomena.
- British Era Initiatives: In 1792, the British East India Company established the pioneering Madras Observatory, marking a significant milestone in astronomical research in the region.
- Madras Observatory’s Legacy: The Madras Observatory documented crucial astronomical observations during 1812-1825, laying the groundwork for solar research in India.
- Shift to Systematic Observations: Dedicated solar observations commenced in 1878, fostering a deeper understanding of solar phenomena.
- Advancements in Methodology: The adoption of systematic observational techniques paved the way for more comprehensive and detailed studies of the Sun’s behavior.
Need for such Observatory
- Great Drought of 1875-1877: This event triggered by scanty rainfall, propelled the need for comprehensive solar studies to comprehend its implications on weather patterns.
- India’s Geographical Significance: India’s drought was part of a larger global phenomenon, affecting several countries and leading to widespread famine.
- Scientific Inquiry: Scientists recognized the potential role of solar variability in influencing climatic patterns, prompting inquiries into the Sun’s behavior and its correlation with environmental phenomena.
Scientific Endeavors of KoSO
- The observatory made significant contributions to solar physics, including the discovery of the radial motion of sunspots, known as the Evershed Effect.
- Over time, KoSO expanded its research areas beyond solar physics to include cosmic rays, radio astronomy, ionospheric physics, and stellar physics.
- In April 1971, KoSO was brought under the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), Bengaluru, as part of the separation of astrophysics from the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
Repository of the KoSO
- Between 1904 and 2017, all solar observations were traced onto photographic films and plates
- A new telescope mounted with CCD cameras has taken over and, since 2017, continued to observe the Sun.
- Digitization of the records was initiated in 1984 by Prof J C Bhattacharyya, and others continued the effort.
- KoSO is now home to a digital repository of a whopping 1.48 lakh solar images adding up to 10 terabyte of data.
- These include 33,500 white-light images (showing sunspots), 45,000 images of the Ca II K spectral line (which reveals plages), and 70,000 H-alpha photographic plates that show prominences.
PYQ:
2019:
On 21st June, the Sun-
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements correctly describes the ‘Evershed Effect’ in Sun?
(a) It refers to the bending of light waves around obstacles, demonstrated by the diffraction pattern observed in a single-slit experiment.
(b) It is the phenomenon of a magnetic field being generated by the motion of charged particles in the convective zone of the Sun.
(c) It describes the deflection of moving charged particles, such as electrons, in a magnetic field, leading to the creation of an electric potential difference.
(d) It is the radial flow of gases in the Sun’s outer atmosphere, observed as a redshift in the spectrum of light emitted by the photosphere. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
Mains level: NA
Why in the News?
- The Allahabad High Court clarified the appellate jurisdiction concerning orders issued by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) in contempt proceedings.
- The court ruled that appeals against CAT contempt orders must be filed exclusively before the Supreme Court under Section 19 of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
What is Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)?
- The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body in India established under Article 323-A of the Constitution of India.
- Its primary function is to adjudicate disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.
- CAT was set up to provide a speedy and inexpensive remedy to government employees in matters concerning their service conditions and employment disputes.
Establishment of CAT:
- The Administrative Tribunals Act in 1985 enacted by the Parliament authorizes the central government to establish Central Administrative Tribunal and the State Administrative Tribunals.
- There are 17 Benches and 21 Circuit Benches in the Central Administrative Tribunal all over India.
Jurisdiction of CAT:
- The Administrative Tribunal is distinguishable from the ordinary courts with regard to its jurisdiction and procedure.
- It exercises jurisdiction only about the service matters of the parties covered by the Act.
- CAT exercises jurisdiction over all service matters concerning the following:
- A member of any All-India Service
- A person appointed to any civil service of the Union or any civil post under the Union
- A civilian appointed to any defence services or a post connected with defence
Services NOT Covered:
The following members are NOT covered under the jurisdiction of CAT:
- Defense forces, Officers,
- The staff of the Supreme Court and
- Secretarial staff of the Parliament.
Procedure:
- The CAT is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is NOT bound by the procedure, prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code.
- It is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice.
- Under Section 17 of the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985, the Tribunal has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court.
Composition:
- The CAT comprises of a chairman, and other members who are appointed by the President of India.
- The membership of CAT is filled by members from judicial and administrative fields.
- The term of the service is 5 years or until the age of 65 years for chairman; 62 years for members, whichever is earlier. (minimum age is 50 years)
- The chairman or any other member may address his resignation to the President in between his term of office.
PYQ:
2019: The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) which was established for redressal of grievances and complaints by or against central government employees nowadays is exercising its power as an independent judicial authority. Explain.
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):
1. The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body.
2. It adjudicates disputes and complaints related to recruitment and service conditions of government employees.
3. Personnel of the armed forces are covered in the jurisdiction of CAT.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Lalit Kala Academy
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Ministry of Culture has restricted the powers of Lalit Kala Akademi (LKA) Chairman, V Nagdas, preventing him from taking any administrative actions without prior consultation with the ministry.
- The directive was issued, citing rule 19(1) of General Rules and Regulations of LKA, empowering the central government to intervene in administrative matters.
About Lalit Kala Akademi
|
Details |
| Established |
1954
Inaugurated by then Education Minister Maulana Azad (Based on French Academy) |
| Headquarters |
New Delhi, India |
| Founding Legislation |
Lalit Kala Akademi Act, 1954
Registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860. |
| Type |
Autonomous Institution under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India |
| Objective |
Promotion and development of visual arts in India |
| Functions |
Conducting exhibitions, workshops, seminars, and research programs
Granting scholarships, awards, and fellowships to artists
Publishing journals, catalogues, and other art-related publications
Collaborating with international art organizations and institutions |
| Programs |
1. National Exhibitions of Art
2. Rashtriya Kala Mela
3. International Exhibitions
4. Scholarships, Awards, and Fellowships
5. Workshops and Residencies
6. Seminars and Conferences |
| Key Initiatives |
Triennale India
National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA)
Art camps and symposiums |
| Membership |
Open to visual artists, art enthusiasts, and art scholars |
| Publications |
1. Lalit Kala Contemporary
2. Lalit Kala Series
3. Annual Reports
4. Catalogues and Journals |
| Awards |
1. Lalit Kala Akademi Fellowship
2. National Awards in various art categories
3. Kalidasa Samman |
| Gallery |
Lalit Kala Akademi Galleries in New Delhi and regional centers |
PYQ:
2021: Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000 :
1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
2. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statement about the Lalit Kala Akademi:
1. It was inaugurated in 1954 by then-Education Minister Maulana Azad.
2. It is an autonomous Institution under the Ministry of Culture.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Ozone, Jupiter's Compositions, Its moon
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
PRL Ahmedabad researchers has uncovered evidence of ozone presence on Jupiter’s moon Callisto, offering profound insights into celestial chemical processes.
About Jupiter and its Moons
|
Description |
| Discovery |
Known since ancient times;
Galileo Galilei observed Jupiter and its moons through a telescope in 1610 |
| Composition |
Mostly composed of hydrogen and helium, with traces of other gases such as ammonia, methane, and water vapor |
| Diameter |
139,822 kilometers |
| Mass |
1.898 × 10^27 kilograms (317.8 Earth masses) |
| Orbital Period |
Approximately 11.86 Earth years |
| Average Distance from Sun |
Approximately 778 million kilometers |
| Surface Temperature |
Approximately -145°C (-234°F) |
| Magnetic Field |
Strong magnetic field, the strongest in the solar system |
| Moons |
Jupiter has 79 known moons, including the four largest Galilean moons: Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto.
Other notable moons include Amalthea, Himalia, Elara, Leda, Thebe, Metis, Adrastea, and more.
The moons vary significantly in size, composition, and orbital characteristics. |
| Great Red Spot |
Enormous storm system, known to exist for at least 400 years |
| Exploration |
Explored by spacecraft such as Pioneer, Voyager, Galileo, Juno, and more |
Callisto and its Unique Environment
- Composition: Callisto’s predominantly icy surface, interspersed with rocky materials, sulphur dioxide, and organic compounds, positions it as a compelling candidate for extraterrestrial life exploration.
- Geological Stability: Despite extensive cratering, Callisto’s surface exhibits geological inactivity, suggesting long-term stability conducive to preserving subsurface oceans or potential habitats.
Significance of Ozone Findings
- Life-Sustaining Component: Ozone, a molecule composed of three oxygen atoms, plays a vital role in shielding celestial bodies from harmful ultraviolet radiation, fostering conditions conducive to life.
- Earthly Parallel: Just as the Earth’s ozone layer protects against harmful UV radiation, the presence of ozone on Callisto hints at stable atmospheric conditions and potential habitability, sparking scientific intrigue.
PYQ:
What is the difference between asteroids and comets?
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are made of ice, dust and rocky material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (2011)
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: NICES Programs
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The National Information System for Climate and Environment Studies (NICES) Program has extended invitations to Indian researchers to contribute to climate change mitigation efforts.
What is NICES Program?
- The NICES Programme is operated by the ISRO and the Department of Space.
- It was launched in 2012.
- It operates within the framework of the National Action Plan on Climate Change.
- NICES aims to enhance the participation of Indian researchers in addressing climate change-related challenges through multidisciplinary scientific investigations.
- Focus Areas: Potential areas for project submission include Space-based Essential Climate Variables (ECVs) and Climate Indicators, Climate Change Challenges, Weather Extremes, and Climate Services.
Activities held under NICES Program
- NICES invites project proposals from Indian scientists, academicians, and researchers affiliated with various governmental organizations, recognized institutions, universities, and departments.
- Project proposals should address climate change-related challenges.
- These projects are expected be completed within 3 years from the date of sanction.
Objective and Functionality
- The primary objective of the NICES Programme is to generate and disseminate long-term Essential Climate Variables (ECVs) derived from Indian and other Earth Observation (EO) satellites.
- These variables, spanning terrestrial, oceanic, and atmospheric domains, are crucial for characterizing Earth’s climate and monitoring changes over time.
Achievements and Impact:
- Since its inception in 2012, NICES has developed over 70 geophysical products meeting stringent quality standards.
- These products have been instrumental in documenting climate change and its impacts, contributing to scientific understanding and evidence-based decision-making.
PYQ:
2021: Describe the major outcomes of the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). What are the commitments made by India in this conference?
Practice MCQ:
The NICES Program is an initiative of:
(a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
(b) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
(c) Department of Science and Technology (DST)
(d) None of the above. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: district Kancheepuram, trend in export of electronic goods
Mains level: Trend in export of electronic goods
Why in the news?
Nearly 40% of India’s smartphone shipments over the past two fiscal years originated from a single district Kancheepuram.
Context
- In FY23, Tamil Nadu emerged as India’s foremost exporter of electronic goods, contributing 30% to the country’s total electronic goods exports in FY24.
- Historically, the state lagged behind Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka in this sector until FY22.
- However, in recent years, Tamil Nadu has experienced consistent growth in electronic goods exports, unlike other states where figures have either declined or remained static.
Chart 1 shows the electronic goods exported from Tamil Nadu in $ billion, year-wise.
- Between April 2023 and January 2024, Tamil Nadu exported electronic goods valued at over $7.4 billion.
Chart 2 shows the exports of electronic goods of the top five States in India in $ billion, year-wise
- In FY24, Tamil Nadu’s exports exceeded the combined exports of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka, which totaled $6.7 billion during that period.
- Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka were ranked second and third, respectively, in terms of electronic goods exports.
- Gujarat and Maharashtra, also among the top five exporting states, have experienced stagnant growth in recent years.
Chart 3 shows the commodity wise share in total exports from India for FY24 (till February) in $ billion
- Engineering goods were the dominant category of exports from India during the specified period, with a total value of $98 billion.
- Petroleum products followed closely behind, with exports valued at $78 billion.
- Gems and jewellery constituted another significant export category, with a total export value of $30 billion.
- Electronics goods were also notable, although they ranked lower compared to other categories, with exports totaling $25 billion. In FY18, electronics goods were not among the top 10 most exported commodities from India.
Biggest markets
- Top most importor of India’s Electronic goods: The United States and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) are the largest markets for India’s electronic goods export. In FY24 (up to February), the U.S. accounted for approximately 35% of India’s electronic goods exports, amounting to $8.7 billion, while the UAE accounted for 12% with $3 billion.
- Other countries share:The Netherlands and the United Kingdom (U.K.) each held a share of about 5% in India’s electronic goods exports.
- The primary destination : Since FY21, the United States has consistently been the primary destination for India’s electronics exports, with its share increasing significantly in recent years.
Conclusion
Tamil Nadu’s emergence as a key electronics exporter, with 30% of India’s exports, is highlighted. Kancheepuram district’s significant role, alongside Tamil Nadu’s surpassing of Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka, underscores its growth in electronic goods exports.
Mains PYQ
Q Can the strategy of regional-resource based manufacturing help in promoting employment in India? (UPSC IAS/2019)
Q Account for the failure of manufacturing sector in achieving the goal of labour-intensive exports. Suggest measures for more labour-intensive rather than capital-intensive exports.(UPSC IAS/2017)
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Vaikom Satyagraha and the people associated
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
This year April 1st marks 100 years of the Vaikom Satyagraha, in Kottayam, Kerala.
About Vaikom Satyagraha
- Vaikom was the epicentre of the Vaikom Satyagraha, which began in 1924.
- This movement aimed to challenge the ban imposed on marginalized communities from entering the vicinity of the Vaikom Mahadevar Temple in the princely state of Travancore.
- It sparked similar temple entry movements across India, advocating for the rights of untouchables and backward castes.
- It introduced nonviolent public protest as a method of resistance in Kerala.
A Precursor to the Vaikom Satyagraha
- Social and Political Developments
- Backdrop of Social Injustice: Travancore, characterized by feudal and caste-based governance, imposed stringent restrictions on lower castes, denying them entry to temples and public spaces.
- Emergence of Social Consciousness: By the late 19th century, progressive reforms and missionary activities led to increased awareness and education among lower castes, particularly the Ezhavas.
- Rise of Educated Elite: Educated individuals from diverse backgrounds, including lower castes, began to challenge social norms and demand equality in opportunities and rights.
- Beginning of Agitation
- Advocacy for Change: Ezhava leader T K Madhavan spearheaded efforts to challenge temple entry restrictions, advocating for direct action to confront discriminatory practices.
- Influence of Gandhi’s Ideals: Inspired by Gandhi’s principles of non-cooperation, Madhavan sought support from the Indian National Congress (INC) to mobilize a mass movement against untouchability.
Actual Course of Events
- Agitation
- Leaders such as T.K. Madhavan, K.P. Kesava Menon, and George Joseph spearheaded the agitation.
- Despite facing resistance and arrests by the police, the Satyagrahis persisted in their protest for over a year, resulting in numerous arrests and jails.
- Notable figures like Mahatma Gandhi, Chattampi Swamikal, and Sree Narayana Guru extended their support to the movement, which gained nationwide recognition.
- The involvement of women and support from various regions, including Punjab, highlighted the widespread impact of the Satyagraha.
- Suspension:
- Initially suspended in April 1924 at Gandhi’s suggestion, the movement resumed when attempts to resolve the issue with caste Hindu leaders failed.
- The absence of leaders like T.K. Madhavan and K.P. Kesava Menon, who were arrested, posed challenges to the movement.
- V. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar) lent support from Tamil Nadu before also being arrested.
- The resolution for the right to temple entry faced resistance in the Assembly, thwarted by traditionalist support and government pressure.
- Aftermath
- On October 1, 1924, a procession of Savarnas (forward castes) submitted a petition to the Regent Maharani Sethu Lakshmi Bai of Travancore, signed by around 25,000 individuals, urging for the temple’s open entry.
- Gandhi’s meeting with the Regent Maharani and the procession led by Mannath Padmanabhan Nair underscored the growing support for the cause.
- Eventually, on November 23, 1925, all temple gates were opened to Hindus except the eastern gate, marking a significant victory.
- The Vaikom Satyagraha laid the groundwork for the temple entry proclamation of Kerala in 1936 and inspired similar movements’ nationwide, promoting social justice and equality.
PYQ:
Satya Shodhak Samaj organized (2016):
(a) a movement for upliftment of tribals in Bihar’
(b) a temple-entry movement in Gujarat
(c) an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra
(d) a peasant movement in Punjab
Practice MCQ:
The Vaikom Satyagraha of 1924 was essentially a:
(a) Temple Entry Movement
(b) Peasants’ Uprising
(c) Salt Satyagraha
(d) Swadeshi Movement |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: GI, Various GI tags mentioned in the news
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
What is a GI Tag?
- A GI is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin.
- Nodal Agency: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 w.e.f. September 2003.
- GIs have been defined under Article 22 (1) of the WTO Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.
- The tag stands valid for 10 years and can be renewed.
Various GI Tags Awarded:
|
Details |
| Bihu Dhol (Assam) |
Traditional drum used during Bihu festivals |
| Jaapi (Assam) |
Bamboo headgear worn in rural Assam |
| Sarthebari metal craft (Assam) |
Traditional metal craft producing utensils and artifacts |
| Mishing handloom products (Assam) |
Handwoven textiles including shawls and sarees |
| Asharikandi terracotta craft (Assam) |
Terracotta pottery and decorative items |
| Pani Meteka craft (Assam) |
Brass and copper utensils adorned with intricate designs |
| Bodo Dokhona (Assam) |
Traditional attire of Bodo women |
| Bodo Eri silk (Assam) |
Silk fabric produced from eri silkworms, known for its soft texture and eco-friendly production |
| Bodo Jwmgra (Assam) |
Traditional scarf worn by Bodo community members |
| Bodo Gamsa (Assam) |
Traditional dress of Bodo men |
| Bodo Thorkha (Assam) |
Traditional musical instrument made from bamboo or wood |
| Bodo Sifung (Assam) |
Long flute used in traditional Bodo music |
| Banaras Thandai (Uttar Pradesh) |
Traditional drink made from milk, nuts, seeds, and spices |
| Banaras Tabla (Uttar Pradesh) |
Pair of drums used in classical Indian music |
| Banaras Shehnai (Uttar Pradesh) |
Traditional wind instrument used in Indian classical music |
| Banaras Lal Bharwamirch (Uttar Pradesh) |
Red chili grown in the Banaras region |
| Banaras Lal Peda (Uttar Pradesh) |
Popular Indian sweet made from condensed milk and sugar |
| Pachra-Rignai (Tripura) |
Traditional dress worn by women, consisting of a wrap-around skirt and blouse |
| Matabari Peda (Tripura) |
Sweet delicacy made from condensed milk, sugar, and ghee |
| Garo Textile weaving (Meghalaya) |
Traditional weaving craft practiced by the Garo tribe |
| Lyrnai Pottery (Meghalaya) |
Traditional pottery making characterized by unique designs and techniques |
| Chubitchi (Meghalaya) |
Traditional dish made with meat, local herbs, and spices |
PYQ:
Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status? (2015)
1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
3. Tirupathi Laddu
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to (2016):
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements about the Geographical Indications (GI) Tag:
1. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal agency for GI.
2. A GI tag stands valid for 10 years and cannot be renewed.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
|
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Empathic Voice Interface (EVI)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- Hume, a prominent research lab and tech firm based in New York, has unveiled Empathic Voice Interface (EVI), world’s first conversational AI endowed with emotional intelligence.
What is Empathic Voice Interface (EVI)?
- Hume’s Empathic Voice Interface (EVI) is powered by its proprietary empathic large language model (eLLM).
- It can decipher tones, word emphasis, and emotional cues, improving the quality of interactions.
- As an API, EVI can integrate seamlessly with various applications, offering developers a versatile solution for implementing human-like interactions.
Potential Applications and Future Prospects
- Enhanced AI Assistants: Hume’s technology enables AI assistants to engage in nuanced conversations, enhancing productivity and user satisfaction.
- Improved Customer Support: By infusing empathy into customer support interactions, Hume’s AI promises to deliver more personalized service and foster stronger relationships.
- Therapeutic Potential: Hume’s empathetic AI holds promise in therapeutic settings, offering support and guidance by understanding and responding to human emotions.
PYQ:
- What is ’emotional intelligence’ and how can it be developed in people? How does it help an individual in taking ethical decisions? (2013)
- “Emotional Intelligence is the ability to make your emotions work for you instead of against you.” Do you agree with this view? Discuss. (2019)
- How will you apply emotional intelligence in administrative practices? (2017)
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements correctly describes the Empathic Voice Interface (EVI)?
(a) EVI operates as a standalone application, devoid of integration capabilities with other software systems.
(b) It relies on conventional language models, neglecting emotional cues and word emphasis during interactions.
(c) EVI, powered by its proprietary empathic large language model (eLLM), detects emotional nuances such as tones, word emphasis, and cues, enhancing interaction quality.
(d) EVI is developed by the Microsoft. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Hepatitis B
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- A recent study by Sir Ganga Ram Hospital, New Delhi, revealed alarming deficiencies in public knowledge (transmission, effects & vaccination) about Hepatitis B in India.
- Despite the availability of a vaccine for over 30 years, HBV infection rates remain high in India, with prevalence estimates ranging from 2% to 8% and approximately 37 million carriers nationwide.
About Hepatitis
- Hepatitis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the liver.
- It can be caused by various factors, including viral infections (hepatitis viruses), alcohol consumption, certain medications, toxins, autoimmune diseases, and metabolic disorders.
|
Hepatitis A |
Hepatitis B |
Hepatitis C |
| Causative Virus |
Hepatitis A Virus (HAV) |
Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) |
Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) |
| Transmission |
Fecal-oral route (contaminated food/water) |
Blood and body fluids (unsafe sex, sharing needles) |
Blood-to-blood contact (sharing needles, transfusions) |
| Vaccine Available |
Yes |
Yes |
Yes |
| Chronic Infection |
No (usually acute) |
Yes (can become chronic) |
Yes (often becomes chronic) |
| Symptoms |
Mild flu-like symptoms, jaundice |
Variable, from none to severe symptoms |
Often asymptomatic, but can lead to liver damage |
| Chronic Complications |
None |
Cirrhosis, liver cancer |
Cirrhosis, liver cancer |
| Preventable by Vaccine |
Yes |
Yes |
No |
| Treatment |
Supportive care |
Antiviral medications |
Antiviral medications |
PYQ:
Which one of the following statements is not correct? (2019)
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing? (2013)
1. Chikungunya
2. Hepatitis B
3. HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements regarding Hepatitis C virus:
1. It is spread mainly through contaminated water and food.
2. It primarily affects the functioning of respiratory system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The Ministry of Home Affairs extended till June 30 the validity of all FCRA registered NGOs whose licences are expiring on March 31.
What is Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)?
- The FCRA regulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect internal security.
- First enacted in 1976, it was amended in 2010 when a slew of new measures was adopted to regulate foreign donations.
- The FCRA is applicable to all associations, groups and NGOs which intend to receive foreign donations.
- It is mandatory for all such NGOs to register themselves under the FCRA.
- The registration is initially valid for 5 years and it can be renewed subsequently if they comply with all norms.
What contributes to Foreign Donations?
- Foreign Contribution’ means the donation, delivery or transfer made by any foreign source of any:
- Article (whose market value is not more than one lakh rupees);
- Currency (whether Indian or foreign);
- Securities
- Foreign donations may be those from Governments, international agencies, foreign companies, trusts, corporations, foreign citizens
- However, some agencies like the UN, World Bank, IMF etc. are EXEMPTED from the definition of foreign donors.
Who cannot accept donations under FCRA?
According to the FCRA, foreign donations cannot be accepted by:
- Election candidates
- Editors and publishers of newspapers
- Judges and government employees.
- Political parties and members of legislature etc.
What was the recent Amendment?
The FCRA was amended in September 2020 to introduce some new restrictions:
- There is now a capping of the administrative expenses of NGOs at 20% of their foreign donations.
- The new amendment requires them to have a State Bank of India account at a Delhi Branch.
- It also prohibits the transfer of grants received under FCRA to any other outfit.
- It also gives sweeping powers to the Ministry of Home Affairs to cancel the FCRA certificate of an NGO.
- It made legal for political parties to accept foreign aid through Indian subsidiaries.
- Under the Act, the government may suspend the registration of a person for a period not exceeding 180 days.
- Providing Aadhar is mandatory for all office bearers, directors or key functionaries of the organization.
PYQ:
2015: Examine critically the recent changes in the rule governing foreign funding of NGOs under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 1976.
2015: How can be the role of NGOs be strengthened in India for development works relating to protection of the Environment? Discuss throwing light on the major constraints.
Practice MCQ:
Consider the following statements regarding “Foreign Contribution (regulation) Act”:
1. World Bank is excluded from the definition of foreign sources under the act.
2. Political parties are prohibited from taking foreign donations under the act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- The Supreme Court has rejected review petitions challenging its ruling on the initiation of proceedings under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
- The judgment clarified that Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code cannot be invoked for PMLA proceedings unless the alleged conspiracy pertains to a scheduled offence.
Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002
- The PMLA was enacted in 2002 with the aim of preventing money laundering and providing for confiscation of property derived from money laundering.
- It applies to all financial institutions, banks (including the RBI), mutual funds, insurance companies, and their financial intermediaries.
- The Act empowers government authorities to confiscate property and/or assets earned from illegal sources and through money laundering.
- It has been amended three times, in 2005, 2009, and 2012.
- Under the PMLA, the burden of proof lies with the accused, who must demonstrate that the suspect property/assets have not been obtained through proceeds of crime.
Penalties under PMLA:
- Freezing or Seizure of property and records, and/or attachment of property obtained through crime proceeds.
- Rigorous imprisonment for a minimum of 3 years and a maximum of 7 years. In cases where money laundering is linked with the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, the punishment can extend up to 10 years, along with a fine.
- Fine imposition.
Authorities for investigation under PMLA:
- Enforcement Directorate (ED): It is responsible for investigating offenses under the PMLA.
- Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND): It is the national agency tasked with receiving, processing, analyzing, and disseminating information related to suspect financial transactions.
|
What is Article 120 of Indian Penal Code (IPC)?
- Section 120 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with the concept of “Conspiracy to commit an offense”.
- It states that when two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated a criminal conspiracy.
- Section 120A defines “criminal conspiracy” as when two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act or an act which is not illegal by illegal means.
- Section 120B prescribes the punishment for criminal conspiracy, with death, imprisonment for life, or rigorous imprisonment for a term of two years or upwards, shall be punished in the same manner as if he had abetted such offense.
Punishment for Criminal Conspiracy
- Nature of Conspiracy: IPC 120B categorizes conspiracy based on the gravity of the offense and prescribes punishments accordingly.
- Serious Offenses: Conspiracy to commit serious crimes punishable by death, life imprisonment, or rigorous imprisonment for 2 years or more warrants severe punishment equivalent to the offense committed.
- Other Offenses: Conspiracy for illegal acts not falling under the serious category incurs imprisonment for up to six months, a fine, or both, as per Section 120B.
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements are correct regarding ‘Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002 (PMLA)’?
1. Enforcement Directorate (ED) is responsible for investigating offences under the PMLA
2. The Act enables government authorities to confiscate property earned through money laundering.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: H5N1 Bird Flu
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
- Since 2020, the highly pathogenic H5N1 bird flu has been spreading globally, posing a significant threat to both birds and mammals.
H5N1 Bird Flu: Details
- H5N1 originated from a virus outbreak on a goose farm in China in 1996 and has since evolved into a highly pathogenic strain.
- The virus quickly spread from Europe to Africa, Asia, North America, and South America, and most recently, it reached mainland Antarctica.
- H5N1 is a subtype of the influenza A virus that causes severe respiratory disease in birds, known as avian influenza or “bird flu”.
- Influenza A viruses are classified by subtypes based on the properties of their surface proteins, with H5N1 being one subtype.
How widespread is it?
- The virus has affected birds in over 80 countries, resulting in mass culling of poultry and wild birds.
- Furthermore, it has now begun infecting mammals, including seals, sea lions, and marine mammals.
- While humans rarely contract bird flu, those at risk are typically individuals who have extensive contact with infected birds at poultry farms.
- Bird flu first broke out in Maharashtra in 2006.
- The H5N1 virus led to the culling of millions of poultry so as to contain the virus. But it has resurfaced from time to time.
Impact on Animals
- Bird Species Affected: Numerous bird species, including Great Skuas and Barnacle Geese, have experienced significant mortality rates due to H5N1.
- Endangered Species Threatened: Endangered birds like the California condors have been severely affected, with a notable percentage of the population succumbing to the virus.
- Mammalian Casualties: H5N1 has crossed species barriers, infecting mammals such as foxes, pumas, skunks, and marine mammals like sea lions and dolphins.
- Devastating Consequences: Mass mortalities of marine mammals, particularly elephant seals, have been reported, raising concerns about the long-term ecological impact.
Factors behind Spread
- Climate Change: Some scientists attribute the large-scale spread of bird flu to climate change, which alters bird behavior and facilitates the transmission of the virus.
- Warmer Seas: Warmer sea temperatures have weakened marine mammal populations, making them more susceptible to disease outbreaks.
PYQ:
2015: H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?
(a) AIDS
(b) Bird flu
(c) Dengue
(d) Swine flu
Practice MCQ:
How many of the given statements about H5N1 Virus is/are correct?
1. It is a type of influenza virus causing highly infectious, respiratory disease in birds.
2. It is highly contagious in humans.
3. Seals, sea lions, and other marine mammals are vulnerable to this Virus.
Select the correct codes from below –
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None |
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Why in the news?
Scientists from Nagoya University have made a discovery about the regulation of Stomatal opening in plants, a process vital for efficient photosynthesis by a type of amino acid threonine (Thr881).
What are Stomatal Openings?
- Stomata are microscopic pores on plant leaves crucial for gas exchange.
- They particularly uptake carbon dioxide necessary for photosynthesis.
How does Light make Stomata Open?
- Research unveiled a novel regulatory mechanism involving the phosphorylation of the 881st threonine residue (Thr881) of the plasma membrane proton pump in response to red and blue light.
- Phosphorylation, a process involving the addition or removal of a phosphate group from amino acids, acts as a regulatory switch, influencing protein structure and function.
- The researchers focused on the phosphorylation of Thr881 and its role in stomatal opening.
- They observed phosphorylation in response to both red and blue light conditions, highlighting the interplay between photosynthesis and light signaling.
Significance of Thr881 Phosphorylation
- Mutant studies confirmed the critical role of Thr881 phosphorylation in stomatal opening.
- Plants expressing a mutant proton pump lacking Thr881 phosphorylation exhibited reduced stomatal aperture and transpiration rates, emphasizing the regulatory significance of this amino acid residue.
- The study identified Thr881, along with Thr948, as crucial phosphorylation sites for the activation of the enzyme H+-ATPase, essential for stomatal opening.
- Manipulating Thr881 could offer avenues for promoting plant growth, enhancing carbon dioxide absorption, and reducing fertilizer usage.
PYQ:
2014: Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?
a) Potential energy is released to form free energy
b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out
Practice MCQ:
What is the significance of phosphorylation of the threonine residue (Thr881) in the context of plants?
a) It helps in reducing carbon dioxide uptake and photosynthesis efficiency.
b) It enhances photosynthesis in dark conditions.
c) It reduces transpiration leading to enhanced water conservation.
d) It is essential for regulating stomatal aperture and facilitating gas exchange in plants. |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: T+0 Settlement Cycle
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
India’s stock market will begin the with a ‘beta version’ of T+0 settlement system (same day settlement) from today. This is the world’s fastest stock settlement system.
About T+0 Settlement Cycle
- SEBI has planned to introduce the shorter cycle in two phases:
- T+0 Settlement Details: In Phase 1, trades executed until 1:30 PM will be settled by 4:30 PM on the same day.
- Instant Settlement Mechanics: Phase 2 envisages immediate trade-by-trade settlement, with trading continuing until 3:30 PM.
Features of the T+0 Settlement Mechanism
- Early Pay-In Trend: A large percentage of retail investors already make early pay-ins of funds and securities, indicating readiness for instant settlement.
- Instant Receipt Benefits: The mechanism enables instant receipt of funds and securities, reducing settlement shortages and enhancing investor control.
- Investor Protection: Direct crediting of funds and securities into investors’ accounts, especially for UPI clients, strengthens investor protection.
Settlement Cycle: A Quick History
- SEBI shortened the settlement cycle from T+5 to T+3 in 2002, and then to T+2 in 2003.
- The T+1 cycle was introduced in 2021 and fully implemented by January 2023.
- In T+1, the settlement of funds and securities occurs on the next day after the trade.
|
Scope and Implementation of T+0
- Initially, the T+0 settlement will be available for the top 500 listed equity shares based on market capitalization, implemented in three tranches.
- The same surveillance measures applicable in the T+1 cycle will apply to the T+0 cycle.
- Trade-for-trade settlement securities will NOT be eligible for T+0.
Rationale behind T+O Cycle
- Market Growth and Efficiency: With the significant growth in market volumes and participants, SEBI aims to enhance market efficiency and safety, especially for retail investors.
- Technological Advancements: The evolution of payment systems like UPI and the sophistication of market infrastructure support the feasibility of shorter settlement cycles.
- Investor Attraction: Faster transactions, reliability, and low costs are key factors that attract investors, making Indian securities a more appealing asset class.
Benefits of the New Mechanism
- Flexibility for Clients: The new mechanism offers faster payouts of funds to sellers and securities to buyers, providing greater flexibility and control.
- Market Ecosystem Advantages: The faster settlement cycle is expected to enhance the operational efficiency of the securities market, benefiting the entire ecosystem.
PYQ:
2017: The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to
a) ASEAN
b) BRICS
c) EU
d) G20
Practice MCQ:
With reference to the T+0 Settlement Cycle, consider the following statements:
1. Trades executed until 1:30 PM will be settled by 4:30 PM on the same day.
2. Trade-for-trade settlement securities will also be eligible for T+0.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO)
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
A Czech citizen has spotted a comet in an image from the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) spacecraft, which has now been confirmed to be the 5,000th comet discovered using SOHO data.
Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO)
- The SOHO is a spacecraft jointly operated by the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA.
- Launched in December 1995, its primary mission is to study the Sun, particularly its outer atmosphere, known as the corona, and the solar wind.
- SOHO observes the Sun in various wavelengths of light, enabling scientists to study phenomena such as sunspots, solar flares, and coronal mass ejections.
- SOHO orbits the Sun at Lagrange Point L1, about 1.5 million kilometers (nearly 1 million miles) from Earth, providing an uninterrupted view of the Sun.
- Its observations have led to discoveries such as-
- Identifying the source regions of solar wind,
- Tracking solar eruptions, and
- Monitoring changes in the Sun’s activity over its 11-year solar cycle.
What are Lagrange Points?
- Lagrange Points are named after the French mathematician Joseph-Louis Lagrange who discovered them in 1772.
- They are specific points in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as the Earth and the Sun, or the Earth and the Moon, balance the centrifugal force felt by a smaller body.
- These points are stable locations where objects can maintain their relative positions concerning the larger bodies, without drifting away or falling towards them.
There are five Lagrange Points, denoted as L1, L2, L3, L4, and L5:
- L1: Located on the line connecting the two large bodies and closer to the smaller body, L1 is particularly useful for space observatories like the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO) because it provides an unobstructed view of the Sun from Earth’s perspective.
- L2: Situated on the opposite side of the smaller body from the larger one, L2 is an excellent location for deep space observatories such as the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) because it remains relatively shielded from solar interference.
- L3: Located on the line connecting the two large bodies but on the opposite side of the larger body from the smaller one, L3 is less stable and less frequently used than the other Lagrange Points.
- L4 and L5: These points form equilateral triangles with the two large bodies, with the smaller body at the third vertex. L4 precedes the smaller body in its orbit, while L5 follows it. These points are stable and have been found to accumulate natural objects, such as asteroids, known as Trojan asteroids.
|
PYQ:
2013: Consider the following phenomena:
1. Size of the sun at dusk
2. Colure of the sun at dawn
3. Moon being visible at dawn
4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
5. Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3, 4 and 5
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 5
Practice MCQ:
Regarding the Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO), consider the following statement:
1. SOHO spacecraft was launched in December 1995.
2. It is jointly operated by the European Space Agency (ESA) and NASA.
3. It orbits the Earth in sun-synchronous orbit.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) None |
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Mohiniyattam and its features
Mains level: NA
Why in the news?
The Kerala Kalamandalam, a deemed university for arts and culture, has unanimously lifted gender restrictions allowing boys for learning Mohiniyattam, a classical dance form.
About Mohiniyattam
|
Description |
| Name Meaning |
Mohini – female enchantress avatar of Vishnu;
Aattam – rhythmic motion or dance (Malayalam) |
| Roots |
Natya Shastra, ancient Hindu Sanskrit text on performance arts |
| Style |
Lasya Style – delicate, eros-filled, and feminine |
| Performers |
Traditionally women, but men also perform in contemporary times |
| Music |
Includes Carnatic music, singing, and enactment of plays through dance |
| Language |
Manipravalam : a Malayalam-Sanskrit hybrid |
| Posture |
Parted feet, gentle swaying of body, soft footwork synchronized with music beats |
| Gestures |
Follow the classical text of Hastha Lakshanadeepika with elaborate mudras (hand gestures) |
| Costumes |
Plain white or off-white sarees with golden brocade, pleated sheets for freedom of movement, adorned with jewellery |
| Accessories |
Jewellery on fingers, wrists, neck, and ears, ankle bells (for female performers), dhotis and similar accessories (for male performers) |
| Makeup |
Natural with brilliant red lips, tikka (Gobi) on forehead, lined eyes |
| Music |
Various rhythms and compositions in Manipravalam, accompanied by instruments like Mridangam, Idakka, flute, Veena, and Kuzhitalam |
| Ragas |
Rendered in the Sopana Style, a slow melodic style rooted in the Natya Shastra |
PYQ:
2012: How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?
- Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
- Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements about Mohiniyattam is not true?
- Mohiniyattam derives its name from “Mohini,” the female enchantress avatar of Vishnu, and “Aattam,” meaning rhythmic motion or dance in Malayalam.
- Its roots can be traced back to the Natya Shastra, an ancient Hindu Sanskrit text on performance arts.
- Mohiniyattam is characterized by the Tandava style, known for its vigorous movements.
- Performances of Mohiniyattam typically include enactment of plays through dance, accompanied by singing and Carnatic music.
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Note4Students
From UPSC perspective, the following things are important :
Prelims level: Magnetofossils, Magnetotactic bacteria
Mains level: NA
What is the news?
Scientists from the CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography, Goa have found in the Bay of Bengal a 50,000-year-old sediment containing giant magnetofossils, shedding light on ancient geological conditions.
What are Magnetofossils?
- Magnetofossils are fossilized magnetic particles created by magnetotactic bacteria, aiding scientists in understanding past environmental conditions.
- Described initially in the 1960s and 1970s, magnetotactic bacteria utilize iron-rich minerals to navigate the Earth’s magnetic field, leaving behind distinctive fossil remnants.
- These unique creatures were first described in 1963, by Salvatore Bellini, an Italian doctor and then again in 1975 by Richard Blakemore of the Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution, Woods Hole, Massachusetts.
- These organisms were believed to follow the magnetic field to reach places that had optimal oxygen concentration.
- Using an electron microscope, Blakemore found the bacteria contained “novel structured particles, rich in iron” in small sacs that essentially worked as a compass.
- These magnetotactic bacteria create tiny crystals made of the iron-rich minerals magnetite or greigite, aiding them in navigating changing oxygen levels in the water body they reside in.
Special Attributes of Bay of Bengal Sediment
- Previous studies on magnetofossils often ascertained their origins to be hyperthermal vents, comet impacts, changes in oceanic ventilation, weathering or the presence of oxygen-poor regions.
- Sediments deposited at the core site originate from the Godavari, Krishna, and Penner Rivers, highlighted on the map.
Findings of the Study
- Scientific Approach: In the study, combined magnetic analyses and electron microscopy to study the sediment sample.
- Sediment Characteristics: The three-metre-long sediment core from the southwestern Bay of Bengal consisted mainly of “pale green silty clays,” they wrote in their paper. They also reported finding abundant benthic and planktic foraminifera — single-celled organisms with shells found near the sea bed and free-floating in water.
- Microscopic Revelations: High-resolution transmission electron microscopy revealed the fossil to be in the shape of needles, spindles, bullets, and spearheads.
- Environmental Insights: Earlier, studies of sediments suggested that nearly 29,000 to 11,700 years ago, during the last Glacial Maximum-Holocene period, the northeast and southwest monsoon strengthened and resulted in significant weathering and sedimentation.
PYQ:
Consider the following kinds of organisms:
- Copepods
- Cyanobacteria
- Diatoms
- Foraminifera
Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 3 and 4
- 1 and 4
Practice MCQ:
Which of the following statements is correct about the ‘Magnetofossils’?
- They are fossilized magnetic particles created by magnetotactic bacteria.
- They follow the magnetic field to reach places that have optimal oxygen concentration.
- They are tiny crystals made of the iron-rich minerals magnetite or greigite.
- All of these.
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